Related provisions for MCOB 5.4.20

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COLL 6.3.3CGRP
(1) 8The accounting policies and procedures referred to in COLL 6.3.3B R should enable the authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme to value the scheme property accurately at each valuation point and to calculate dealingprices by reference to that valuation.(2) Where different share or unitclasses exist, it should be possible to extract from the accounting records the net asset value of each different class.[Note: recital (9) of the UCITS implementing Directive]
COLL 6.3.6GRP

Table: This table belongs to COLL 6.3.2 G (2) (a) and COLL 6.3.3 R (Valuation)1.

Valuation and pricing

1

The valuation of scheme property

(1)

Where possible, investments should be valued using a reputable source. The reliability of the source of prices should be kept under regular review.

(2)

For some or all of the investments comprising the scheme property, different prices may quoted according to whether they are being bought (offer prices) or sold (bid prices). The valuation of a single-priced authorised fund should reflect the mid-market value of such investments. In the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, the issue basis of the valuation will be carried out by reference to the offer prices of investments and the cancellation basis by reference to the bid prices of those same investments. The prospectus should explain how investments will be valued for which a single price is quoted for both buying and selling.1

1

3(2A)

Schemes investing in approved money-market instruments5should value such instruments on an amortised cost basis on condition that:5

55

[Note:CESR's UCITS eligible assets guidelines with respect to article 4(2) of the UCITS eligible assets Directive]

(2B)

Short-term money market funds may value approved money-market instruments on an amortised cost basis.7

[Note: paragraph 21 of CESR's guidelines on a common definition of European money market funds]7

(3)

Any part of the scheme property of an authorised fund that is not an investment should be valued at a fair value, but for immovables this is subject to COLL 5.6.20 R (3) (f) (Standing independent valuer and valuation).

(4)

For the purposes of (2) and (3), any fiscal charges, commissions, professional fees or other charges that were paid, or would be payable on acquiring or disposing of the investment or other part of the scheme property should, in the case of a single-priced authorised fund,2 be excluded from the value of an investment or other part of the scheme property. In the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, any such payments should be added to the issue basis of the valuation, or subtracted from the cancellation basis of the valuation, as appropriate. Alternatively, the prospectus of a dual-priced authorised fund may prescribe any other method of calculating unitprices that ensures an equivalent treatment of the effect of these payments.2

(5)

Where the authorised fund manager has reasonable grounds to believe that:

it should value an investment at a price which, in its opinion, reflects a fair and reasonable price for that investment (the fair value price);

(6)

The circumstances which may give rise to a fair value price being used include:

  • no recent trade in the security concerned; or
  • the occurrence of a significant event since the most recent closure of the market where the price of the security is taken.
In (b), a significant event is one that means the most recent price of a security or a basket of securities is materially different to the price that it is reasonably believed would exist at the valuation point had the relevant market been open.

(7)

In determining whether to use such a fair value price , the authorised fund manager should include in his consideration:

4(7A)

Where the authorised fund manager, the depositary or the standing independent valuer have reasonable grounds to believe that the most recent valuation of an immovable does not reflect the current value of that immovable, the authorised fund manager should consult and agree with the standing independent valuer a fair and reasonable value for the immovable.

(8)

The authorised fund manager should document the basis of valuation (including any fair value pricing policy) and, where appropriate, the basis of any methodology and ensure that the procedures are applied consistently and fairly.

(9)

Where a unit price is determined using properly applied fair value prices in accordance with policies in (8), subsequent information that indicates the price should have been different from that calculated will not normally give rise to an instance of incorrect pricing.

2

The pricing controls of the authorised fund manager

(1)

An authorised fund manager needs to be able to demonstrate that it has effective controls over its calculations of unit prices.

(2)

The controls referred to in (1) should ensure that:

  • asset prices are accurate and up to date;
  • investment 1transactions are accurately and promptly reflected in valuations;
  • the components of the valuation (including stock, cash, and units in issue1), are regularly reconciled to their source or prime records and any reconciling items resolved promptly and debtors reviewed for recoverability;
  • the sources of prices not obtained from the main pricing source are recorded and regularly reviewed;
  • compliance with the investment and borrowing powers is regularly reviewed;
  • dividends are accounted for as soon as securities1 are quoted ex-dividend (unless it is prudent to account for them on receipt):
  • fixed interest dividends, interest and expenses are accrued at each valuation point1;
  • tax positions are regularly reviewed and adjusted, if necessary;
  • reasonable tolerances are set for movements in the key elements of a valuation and movements outside these tolerances are investigated;5
  • the fund manager regularly reviews the portfolio valuation for accuracy5; and5
  • the valuation of OTC derivatives is accurate and up to date and in compliance with the methods agreed with the depositary.5

(3)

In exercising its pricing controls, the authorised fund manager may exercise reasonable discretion in determining the appropriate frequency of the operation of the controls and may choose a longer interval, if appropriate, given the level of activity on the authorised fund1or the materiality of any effect on the price.

(4)

Evidence of the exercise of the pricing controls should be retained.

(5)

Evidence of persistent or repetitive errors in relation to these matters, and in particular any evidence of a pattern of errors working in an authorised fund manager's favour, will make demonstrating effective controls more difficult.

(6)

Where the pricing1function is delegated to a third party, COLL 6.6.15 R (1) (Committees and delegation) will apply.

3

The depositary's review of the authorised fund manager's systems and controls

(1)

This section provides details of the types of checks a depositary should carry out to be satisfied that the authorised fund manager adopts systems and controls which are appropriate to ensure that prices of units are calculated in accordance with this section and to ensure that the likelihood of incorrect prices will be minimised. These checks also apply where an authorised fund manager has delegated all or some of its pricing1 functions to one or more third parties5.

5

(2)

A depositary should thoroughly review an authorised fund manager's systems and controls to confirm that they are satisfactory. The depositary's review should include an analysis of the controls in place to determine the extent to which reliance can be placed on them.

(3)

A review should be performed when the depositary is appointed and thereafter as it feels appropriate given its knowledge of the robustness and the stability of the systems and controls and their operation.

(4)

A review should be carried out more frequently where a depositary knows or suspects that an authorised fund manager's systems and controls are weak or are otherwise unsatisfactory.

(5)

Additionally, a depositary should from time to time review other aspects of the valuation of the scheme property of each authorised fund for which it is responsible, verifying, on a sample basis, if necessary, the assets, liabilities, accruals, units in issue1, securities prices (and in particular the prices of OTC derivatives,5unapproved securities and the basis for the valuation of unquoted securities) and any other relevant matters, for example an accumulation factor or a currency conversion factor.

(6)

A depositary should ensure that any issues, which are identified in any such review, are properly followed up and resolved.

4

The recording and reporting of instances of incorrect pricing

(1)

An authorised fund manager should record each instance where the price of a unit is incorrect as soon as the error is discovered, and report the fact to the depositary together with details of the action taken, or to be taken, to avoid repetition as soon as practicable.

(2)

In accordance with COLL 6.6.11 G (Duty to inform the FSA), the depositary should report any breach of the rules in COLL 6.3 immediately to the FSA. However, notification should relate to instances which the depositary considers material only.

(3)

A depositary should also report to the FSA immediately any instance of incorrect pricing1where the error is 0.5% or more of the price of a unit, where a depositary believes that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate and should not be paid by an authorised fund manager.

(4)

In accordance with SUP 16.6.8 R, a depositary should also make a return to the FSA on a quarterly basis which summarises the number of instances of incorrect pricing1 during a particular period.

5

The rectification of pricing breaches

(1)

COLL 6.6.3 R (1) (Functions of the authorised fund manager) places a duty on the authorised fund manager to take action to reimburse affected unitholders, former unitholders, and the scheme itself, for instances of incorrect pricing1, except if it appears to the depositary that the breach is of minimal significance.

(2)

A depositary may consider that the instance of incorrect pricing1is of minimal significance if:

(3)

In determining (2), if the instance of incorrect pricing1 is due to one or more factors or exists over a period of time, each price should be considered separately.

(4)

If a depositary deems it appropriate, it may, in spite of the circumstances outlined in (2), require a payment from the authorised fund manager or from the authorised fund to the unitholders, former unitholders, the authorised fund or the authorised fund manager (where appropriate).

(5)

The depositary should satisfy itself that any payments required following an instance of incorrect pricing1 are accurately and promptly calculated and paid.

(6)

If a depositary considers that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate, it should report the matter to the FSA, together with its recommendation and justification. The depositary should take into account the need to avoid prejudice to the rights of unitholders, or the rights of unitholders in a class of units.

(7)

It may not be practicable, or in some cases legally permissible, for the authorised fund manager to obtain reimbursement from unitholders, where the unitholders have benefited from the incorrect price.

(8)

In all cases where reimbursement or payment is required, amounts due to be reimbursed to unitholders for individual sums which are reasonably considered by the authorised fund manager and depositary to be immaterial, need not normally be paid.
BIPRU 12.5.4RRP
A firm must ensure that:(1) it regularly carries out an ILAA;(2) it makes a written record of its ILAA;(3) its ILAA is proportionate to the nature, scale and complexity of its activities; (4) its ILAA takes into account whole-firm and group-wide liquidity resources only to the extent that reliance on these is permitted by the FSA;(5) its ILAA includes an assessment of the results of the stress tests required by BIPRU 12.5.6 R; and(6) its ILAA includes an assessment of the firm's
BIPRU 12.5.13RRP
In carrying out the liquidity stresses required by BIPRU 12.5.6R, a firm must:(1) analyse each of the sources of risk identified in BIPRU 12.5.14R;(2) record the evidence which supports any behavioural assumptions that it makes in carrying out those stress tests;(3) record the evidence which supports its assessment of the adequacy of its liquid assets buffer; and(4) identify those of the measures set out in its contingency funding plan that it would implement.
BIPRU 4.3.16RRP
The areas of responsibility for the credit risk control unit(s) must include the following:(1) testing and monitoring grades and pools;(2) production and analysis of summary reports from the firm'srating systems;(3) implementing procedures to verify that grade and pool definitions are consistently applied across departments and geographic areas;(4) reviewing and documenting any changes to the rating process, including the reasons for the changes;(5) reviewing the rating criteria
BIPRU 4.3.17RRP
Notwithstanding BIPRU 4.3.16 R, a firm using pooled data according to BIPRU 4.3.92 R - BIPRU 4.3.94 R (Overall requirements for estimation) may outsource the following tasks:(1) production of information relevant to testing and monitoring grades and pools;(2) production of summary reports from the firm'srating systems;(3) production of information relevant to review of the rating criteria to evaluate if they remain predictive of risk;(4) documentation of changes to the rating
GENPRU 1.3.11GRP
A firm should keep a record of and be ready to explain to its supervisory contacts in the FSA the reasons for any difference between the deficit reduction amount and any commitment the firm has made in any public document to provide funding in respect of a defined benefit occupational pension scheme.
GENPRU 1.3.12GRP
The provisions of GENPRU 1.3.9 R to GENPRU 1.3.10 R and GENPRU 1.3.36 R apply only to the extent that the items referred to in those paragraphs would otherwise be recognised under the accounting requirements applicable to the firm. Some of those requirements may only be relevant to a firm subject to international accounting standards.
SYSC 19A.3.5RRP
A firm must:(1) maintain a record of its Remuneration Code staff in accordance with the general record-keeping requirements (SYSC 9); and(2) take reasonable steps to ensure that its Remuneration Code staff understand the implications of their status as such, including the potential for remuneration which does not comply with certain requirements of the Remuneration Code to be rendered void and recoverable by the firm.
SYSC 19A.3.53GRP
(1) Variable remuneration may be justified, for example, to incentivise employees involved in new business ventures which could be loss-making in their early stages.(2) The governing body (or, where appropriate, the remuneration committee) should approve performance adjustment policies, including the triggers under which adjustment would take place. The FSA may ask firms to provide a copy of their policies and expects firms to make adequate records of material decisions to operate
DISP 1.2.3GRP
These summary details should cover at least:(1) how the respondent fulfils its obligation to handle and seek to resolve relevant complaints; and(2) (where the complaint falls within the jurisdiction of the Financial Ombudsman Service)7 that, if the complaint is not resolved, the complainant may be entitled to refer it to the Financial Ombudsman Service.
COBS 11.7.4RRP
The arrangements required under this section must in particular be designed to ensure that:(1) each relevant person covered by this section is aware of the restrictions on personal transactions, and of the measures established by the firm in connection with personal transactions and disclosure, in accordance with this section;(2) the firm:(a) is informed promptly of any personal transaction entered into by a relevant person, either by notification of that transaction or by other
REC 5.2.14GRP

Information and supporting documentation (see REC 5.2.4 G).

(1)

Details of the applicant's constitution, structure and ownership, including its memorandum and articles of association (or similar or analogous documents ) and any agreements between the applicant, its owners or other persons relating to its constitution or governance (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1. An applicant for RAP status must provide details of the relationship between the governance arrangements in place for the UK RIE and the RAP.3

(2)

Details of all business to be conducted by the applicant, whether or not a regulated activity (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1.

(3)

Details of the facilities which the applicant plans to operate, including details of the trading platform or (for an RAP) auction platform,3 settlement arrangements, clearing services and custody services which it plans to supply. An applicant for RAP status must provide details on the relationship between the auction platform and any secondary market in auction products which it operates or plans to operate.3

(4)

Copies of the last three annual reports and accounts and, for the current financial year, quarterly management accounts.

(5)

Details of its business plan for the first three years of operation as a UK recognised body (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1.

(6)

A full organisation chart and a list of the posts to be held by key individuals (with details of the duties and responsibilities) and the names of the persons proposed for these appointments when these names are available (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1.

(7)

Details of its auditors, bankers, solicitors and any persons providing corporate finance advice or similar services (such as reporting accountants) to the applicant.

(8)

Details of any relevant functions to be outsourced or delegated, with copies of relevant agreements.

(9)

Details of information technology systems and of arrangements for their supply, management, maintenance and upgrading, and security.

(10)

Details of all plans to minimise disruption to operation of its facilities in the event of the failure of its information technology systems.

(11)

Details of internal systems for financial control, arrangements for risk management and insurance arrangements to cover operational and other risks.

(12)

Details of its arrangements for managing any counterparty risks, including details of margining systems, guarantee funds and insurance arrangements.

(13)

Details of internal arrangements to safeguard confidential or privileged information and for handling conflicts of interest.

(14)

Details of arrangements for complying with the notification rules and other requirements to supply information to the FSA.

(15)

Details of the arrangements to be made for monitoring and enforcing compliance with its rules and with its clearing, settlement and default arrangements.

(16)

A summary of the legal due diligence carried out in relation to ascertaining the enforceability of its rules (including default rules)and arrangements for margin against any of its members based outside the United Kingdom, and the results and conclusions reached.

(17)

Details of the procedures to be followed for declaring a member in default, and for taking action after that event to close out positions, protect the interests of other members and enforce its default rules.

(18)

Details of membership selection criteria, rules and procedures, including (for an RAP) details of how the rules of the UK RIE will change in order to reflect RAP status.3

(19)

Details of arrangements for recording transactions effected by, or cleared through, its facilities.

(20)

Details of arrangements for detecting financial crime and market abuse , including arrangements for complying with money laundering law.

(21)

Details of criteria, rules and arrangements for selecting specified investments to be admitted to trading on (or cleared by) an RIE, or to be cleared by an RCH and, where relevant, details of how information regarding specified investments will be disseminated to users of its facilities.

(22)

Details of arrangements for cooperating with the FSA and other appropriate authorities, including draft memoranda of understanding or letters.

(23)

Details of the procedures and arrangements for making and amending rules, including arrangements for consulting on rule changes.

(24)

Details of disciplinary and appeal procedures, and of the arrangements for investigating complaints.
DEPP 1.2.8GRP
The FSA will make and retain appropriate records of those decisions, including records of meetings and the representations (if any) and materials considered by the decision makers.
SUP App 3.9.6GRP

Table 2A: UCITS Directive activities

Part II RAO Activities

Part III RAO Investments

1.

The management of UCITS in the form of unit trusts / common funds or of investment companies; this includes the function mentioned in Annex II of the UCITS Directive (see Note 2).

Articles 14, 21, 25, 37, 51, 53, 64

Articles 76-81, 83-85, 89

2.

Managing portfolios of investments, including those owned by pension funds, in accordance with mandates given by investors on a discretionary, client-by-client basis, where such portfolios include one or more of the instruments listed in Section C 3of Annex I 3to MiFID3.

33

Articles 14, 21, 25, 37, 53, 64

Articles 76-81, 83-85, 89

3.

Investment advice concerning one or more of the instruments listed in Section C3of Annex I 3to MiFID3.

3

Articles 53, 64

Articles 76-81, 83-85, 89

4.

Safekeeping and administration services in relation to units of collective investment undertakings.

Articles 40, 45, 64

Articles 76-81, 83-85, 89

Note 1. A UCITS management company can only exercise passport rights under the UCITS Directive (article 2(13)(h) of MiFID3). A UCITS management company can only be authorised to carry on the non-core services set out in rows (3) and (4) of Table 2A if it is also authorised to carry on the activity set out in row (2) of the table.

33

Note 2. The functions set out in Annex 2 to the UCITS Directive are:

1.

Investment management.

2.

Administration:

a.

legal and fund management accounting services;

b.

customer inquiries;

c.

valuation and pricing (including tax returns);

d.

regulatory compliance monitoring;

e.

maintenance of unit-holder register;

f.

distribution of income;

g.

unit issues and redemptions;

h.

contract settlements (including certificate dispatch);

i.

record keeping.

3.

Marketing.
REC 2.11.3GRP
In determining whether a UK recognised body has made satisfactory arrangements for the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to the users of its facilities, the FSA may have regard to: (1) the level of protection which the arrangements provide against the risk of theft or other types or causes of loss;(2) whether the arrangements ensure that assets are only used or transferred in accordance with the instructions of the owner of those assets or in accordance with
DISP 3.7.7RRP
17The Ombudsman will maintain a register of each money award.
COLL 5.7.9RRP
(1) A non-UCITS retail scheme operating as a FAIF must not invest in units in schemes in COLL 5.7.7R (1) to (3) (‘second schemes’) unless the authorised fund manager has carried out appropriate due diligence on each of the second schemes and:(a) is satisfied, on reasonable grounds and after making all reasonable enquiries, that each of the second schemes complies with relevant legal and regulatory requirements;(b) has taken reasonable care to determine that:(i) the property of
MCOB 9.5.2RRP

Table of modified cross-references to other rules:

This table belongs to MCOB 9.5.1 R.

Subject

Rule or guidance

Reference in rule or guidance

To be read as a reference to:

Application: What?

MCOB 6.1.5R

MCOB 6

MCOB 6 as modified by MCOB 9.5

Content of offer document

MCOB 6.1.6G

MCOB 5.6

MCOB 9.4

Purpose

MCOB 6.2.1G

MCOB 6

MCOB 6 as modified by MCOB 9.5

General

MCOB 6.3.2R

Records

MCOB 6.4.3R

Modifications to the illustration

MCOB 6.4.5G

MCOB 6.4.4R(5)(b)

MCOB 9.5.4R(6)(b)

Modifications to the illustration

MCOB 6.4.6R

MCOB 6.4.4(1)

MCOB 9.5.4R(1)

Modifications to the illustration

MCOB 6.4.6R(1) and (2)

MCOB 5.6

MCOB 9.4

Modifications to the illustration

MCOB 6.4.7R

MCOB 6.4.4R(1)

MCOB 9.5.4R(1)

Modifications to the illustration

MCOB 6.4.7R(2)

MCOB 5

MCOB 9

Modifications to the illustration

MCOB 6.4.7R(3)

MCOB 5.6.73R to MCOB 5.6.83G

MCOB 9.4.72R to MCOB 9.4.82G

Modifications to the illustration

MCOB 6.4.7R(3)

MCOB 5.6.92R to MCOB 5.6.112G

MCOB 9.4.91R to MCOB 9.4.110R

Other information contained in the offer document

MCOB 6.4.13R

MCOB 5.6.122R

MCOB 9.4.126R

Offer documents in place of illustrations

MCOB 6.6.1R

MCOB 5.4 and MCOB 5.5

MCOB 5.4 and MCOB 5.5 as modified by MCOB 9
COLL 6.5.9RRP
(1) Upon the removal or retirement of the manager, the removed or retiring manager:(a) is entitled to be recorded in the register for those units continued to be held or treated as held by it; and(b) may require the trustee to issue to it a certificate for those units (if not previously issued).(2) (Paragraph (1) is subject to any restriction in the prospectus relating to the permitted categories of unitholders.
REC 2A.3.2GRP

The guidance in relation to the recognition requirements in the sections of REC 2 listed in Column A of the table below applies to an RAP in relation to the equivalent RAP recognition requirements listed in Column C and (if shown) with the modifications in Column B.

Table: Guidance on RAP recognition requirements

Column A

REC 2 guidance which applies to an RAP

Column B

Modification to REC 2 guidance for an RAP

Column C

Relevant RAP recognition requirement

REC 2.2.2 G to REC 2.2.7 G (Relevant circumstances and Outsourcing)

Reg 13

REC 2.3.3 G to REC 2.3.9 G (Financial resources)

Reg 14

REC 2.4.3 G to REC 2.4.6 G (Suitability)

In addition to the matters set out in REC 2.4.3 G to REC 2.4.6 G, the FSA will have regard to whether a key individual has been allocated responsibility for overseeing the auction platform of the UK recognised body.

Reg 15

REC 2.5.3 G to REC 2.5.20 G (Systems and controls and conflicts) and REC 2.5A (Guidance on Public Interest Disclosure Act: Whistleblowing)

Reg 16 and 17(2)(f)1

REC 2.6.26 G to REC 2.6.34 G (Safeguards for investors)

Reg 17

REC 2.7.3 G to REC 2.7.4 G (Access to facilities)

The FSA shall have regard to whether an RAP provides access to bid at auctions only to those persons eligible to bid under article 18 of the auction regulation.

Reg 17(2)(a) and1 20

REC 2.8.3 G to REC 2.8.4 G (Settlement and clearing services)

Reg 17(2)(d) and 21

REC 2.9.3 G to REC 2.9.4 G (Transaction recording)

Reg 17(2)(e)

REC 2.10.3 G to REC 2.10.4 G (Financial crime and market abuse)

Reg 17(2)(g)

REC 2.11.3 G to REC 2.11.4 G (Custody)

REC 2.11.4 G is replaced with the following for an RAP:

Where an RAP arranges for other persons to provide services for the safeguarding and administration services of assets belonging to users of its facilities, it will also need to satisfy the RAP recognition requirement in regulation 17(2)(h) of the RAP regulations (see REC 2A.2.1 UK).

Reg 17(2)(h)

REC 2.12.11 G to REC 2.12.12 G (Availability of relevant information)

REC 2.12.11 G to REC 2.12.12 G are replaced with the following for an RAP:

REC 2.12.11 G

In determining whether appropriate arrangements have been made to make relevant information available to persons engaged in dealing in auction products, the FSA may have regard to:

(1) the extent to which auction bidders are able to obtain information in a timely fashion about the terms of those auction products and the terms on which they will be auctioned, either through accepted channels for dissemination of information or through other regularly and widely accessible communication media;

(2) what restrictions, if any, there are on the dissemination of relevant information to auction bidders; and

(3) whether relevant information is, or can be, kept to restricted groups of persons in such a way as to facilitate or encourage market abuse.

REC 2.12.12 G

An RAP does not need to maintain its own arrangements for providing information on the terms of auction products to auction bidders where it has made adequate arrangements for other persons to do so on its behalf or there are other effective and reliable arrangements for this purpose.

Reg 17(2)(c)

REC 2.13.3 G to REC 2.13.6 G (Promotion and maintenance of standards)

Reg 18

REC 2.14.3 G to REC 2.14.6 G (Rules and consultation)

Reg 19

REC 2.15.3 G to REC 2.15.6 G (Discipline)

Reg 22

REC 2.16.3 G to REC 2.16.4 G (Complaints)

Reg 23
COLL 11.6.13RRP
Where the authorised fund manager of a feeder UCITS gives notice to the FSA under section 251 of the Act or regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations that it intends to wind up the scheme, it must inform:(1) the unitholders of the feeder UCITS; and(2) where notice is given under COLL 11.6.5R (4) (Application for approval by a feeder UCITS where a master UCITS merges or divides), the authorised fund manager of the master UCITS;of its intention without undue delay.[Note: articles 20(3)
COLL 8.6.5RRP
In relation to an ICVC or an AUT which is a qualified investor scheme, the provisions in COLL 7.6 (Schemes of arrangement) will apply as appropriate to the authorised fund manager, any other directors of the ICVC and the depositary as if COLL 7.6 applied to a qualified investor scheme and did not exclude unitholders becoming unitholders in another qualified investor scheme.
CASS 8.1.4GRP
The mandate rules apply to those firms that control, rather than hold, clients' assets or are able to create liabilities in the name of a client. These rules seek to ensure that firms establish and maintain records and internal controls to prevent the misuse of the authority granted by the client.