Related provisions for MCOB 13.3.4C

DISP App 1.6.14G06/04/2008

34DISP App 1.5.10 G provides firms with the opinion of underpinning benefits. Firms should satisfy the FSA that their proposals provide complainants with a level of redress that is at least commensurate with the standard approaches and, to ensure consistency, windfall augmentations should be excluded when considering whether an underpin will apply. The FSA will take this into account when considering proposals put forward by firms.

COLL 8.2.6R21/12/2011

This table belongs to COLL 8.2.5 R

1	Description of the authorised fund
	Information detailing:
	(1)	the name of the authorised fund;
	(2)	that the authorised fund is a qualified investor scheme; and
	(3)	in the case of an ICVC, whether the head office of the company is situated in England and Wales or Wales or Scotland or Northern Ireland.
3Property Authorised Investment Funds
1A	For a property authorised investment fund, a statement that:
	(1)	it is a property authorised investment fund;
	(2)	no body corporate may seek to obtain or intentionally maintain a holding of more that 10% of the net asset value of the fund; and
	(3)	in the event that the authorised fund manager reasonably considers that a body corporate holds more than 10% of the net asset value of the fund, the authorised fund manager is entitled to delay any redemption or cancellation of units in accordance with 6A if the authorised fund manager reasonably considers such action to be:
		(a)	necessary in order to enable an orderly reduction of the holding to below 10%; and
		(b)	in the interests of the unitholders as a whole.
2	Constitution
	The following statements:
	(1)	the scheme property of the scheme is entrusted to a depositary for safekeeping (subject to any exception permitted by the rules);
	(2)	if relevant, the duration of the scheme is limited and, if so, for how long;
	(3)	charges and expenses of the scheme may be taken out of scheme property;
	(4)	for an ICVC:
		(a)	what the maximum and minimum sizes of the scheme's capital are; and
		(b)	the unitholders are not liable for the debts of the company; and5
	5(4A)	for an ICVC which is an umbrella, a statement that the assets of a sub-fund belong exclusively to that sub-fund and shall not be used to discharge directly or indirectly the liabilities of, or claims against, any other person or body, including the umbrella, or any other sub-fund, and shall not be available for any such purpose;
	(5)	for an AUT:
		(a)	the trust deed:
			(i)	is made under and governed by the law of England and Wales, or the law of Scotland or the law of Northern Ireland;
			(ii)	is binding on each unitholder as if he had been a party to it and that he is bound by its provisions; and
			(iii)	authorises and requires the trustee and the manager to do the things required or permitted of them by its terms;
		(b)	subject to the provisions of the trust deed and all the rules made under section 247 of the Act (Trust scheme rules):
			(i)	the scheme (other than sums held to the credit of the distribution account) is held by the trustee on trust for the unitholders according to the number of units held by each unitholder or, where relevant, according to the number of individual shares in the scheme property represented by the units held by each unitholder; and
			(ii)	the sums standing to the credit of any distribution account are held by the trustee on trust to distribute or apply in accordance with COLL 8.5.15 R (Income);
		(c)	a Unitholder is not liable to make any further payment after he has paid the price of his units and that no further liability can be imposed on him in respect of the units he holds; and
		(d)	payments to the trustee by way of remuneration are authorised to be paid (in whole or in part) out of the scheme property.
3	Investment objectives
	A statement of the object of the scheme, in particular the types of investments and assets in which it and each sub-fund (where applicable) may invest and that the object of the scheme is to invest in property of that kind with the aim of spreading investment risk.
4	Units in the scheme
	A statement of:
	(1)	the classes of units which the scheme may issue, indicating, for a scheme which is an umbrella, which class or classes may be issued in respect of each sub-fund; and
	(2)	the rights attaching to units of each class (including any provisions for the expression in two denominations of such rights).
5	Limitation on issue of and redemption of units
	Details as to:
	(1)	the provisions relating to any restrictions on the right to redeem units in any class; and
	(2)	the circumstances in which the issue of the units of any particular class may be limited.
6	Income and distribution
	Details of the person responsible for the calculation, transfer, allocation and distribution of income for any class of unit in issue during the accounting period.
3Redemption or cancellation of units on breach of law or rules
6A	A statement that where any holding of units by a unitholder is (or is reasonably considered by the authorised fund manager to be) an infringement of any law, governmental regulation or rule, those units must be redeemed or cancelled.
7	Base currency
	A statement of the base currency of the scheme.
8	Meetings
	Details of the procedures for the convening of meetings and the procedures relating to resolutions, voting and the voting rights for unitholders.
9	Powers and duties of the authorised fund manager and depositary
	Where relevant, details of any function to be undertaken by the authorised fund manager and depositary which the rules in COLL require to be stated in the instrument constituting the scheme.
10	Termination and suspension
	Details of:
	(1)	the grounds under which the authorised fund manager may initiate a suspension of the scheme and any associated procedures; and
	(2)	the methodology for determining the rights of unitholders to participate in the scheme property on winding up.
110A	Investment in overseas2 property through an intermediate holding vehicle1
	If investment in an overseas2 immovable is to be made through an intermediate holding vehicle or a series of intermediate holding vehicles, a statement that the purpose of that intermediate holding vehicle or series of intermediate holding vehicles will be to enable the holding of overseas2 immovables by the scheme.1
11	Other relevant matters
	Details of those matters which enable the scheme, authorised fund manager or depositary to obtain any privilege or power conferred by the rules in COLL which is not otherwise provided for in the instrument constituting the scheme.

PERG 8.7.5G01/07/2005

In the FSA's opinion, section 21 will apply to a communication (made in the course of business) if it contains an invitation or inducement to engage in investment activity which is addressed to a particular person or to persons generally. Where this is the case, it will not matter that the communication may be physically delivered to someone other than the person who is intended to engage in investment activity. PERG 8.6.10 G gives more guidance on this.

COLL 6.13.4R01/07/2011

(1) An authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must ensure the retention of the records referred to in COLL 6.13.2 R and COLL 6.13.3 R for a period of at least five years or, in exceptional circumstances and where directed by the FSA, for a longer period, determined by the nature of the instrument or portfolio transaction, where it is necessary to enable the FSA to exercise its supervisory functions under the UCITS Directive.(2)

SUP 11.8.6G21/06/2001

The FSA may ask the firm for additional information following a notification under SUP 11.8.1 R in order to satisfy itself that the controller continues to be suitable (see SUP 2: Information gathering by the FSA on its own initiative).

PR App 1.1.101/11/2007

1Note: The following definitions relevant to the prospectus rules are extracted from the Glossary.

Act	the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000.
admission to trading	admission to trading on a regulated market.
advertisement	(as defined in the PD Regulation) announcements:
	(1)	relating to a specific offer to the public of securities or to an admission to trading on a regulated market; and
	(2)	aiming to specifically promote the potential subscription or acquisition of securities.
annual information update	the document referred to in PR 5.2.1 R.
applicant	an applicant for approval of a prospectus or supplementary prospectus relating to transferable securities.
asset backed security	(as defined in the PD Regulation) securities which:
	(1)	represent an interest in assets, including any rights intended to assure servicing, or the receipt or timeliness of receipts by holders of assets of amounts payable thereunder; or
	(2)	are secured by assets and the terms of which provide for payments which relate to payments or reasonable projections of payments calculated by reference to identified or identifiable assets.
base prospectus	a base prospectus referred to in PR 2.2.7 R.
body corporate	(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions) any body corporate, including a body corporate constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom;
building block	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of additional information requirements, not included in one of the schedules, to be added to one or more schedules, as the case may be, depending on the type of instrument and/or transaction for which a prospectus or base prospectus is drawn up.
CARD	Consolidated Admissions and Reporting Directive.
CESR recommendations	the recommendations for the consistent implementation of the European Commission's Regulation on Prospectuses no 809/2004 published by the Committee of European Securities Regulators.
collective investment undertaking other than the closed-end type	(in PR) (as defined in Article 2.1(o) of the prospectus directive) unit trusts and investment companies:
	(1)	the object of which is the collective investment of capital provided by the public, and which operate on the principle of risk-spreading;
	(2)	the units of which are, at the holder's request, repurchased or redeemed, directly or indirectly, out of the assets of these undertakings.
Consolidated Admissions and Reporting Directive	Directive 2001/34/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council on the admission of securities to official stock exchange listing and on information to be published on those securities.
credit institution	as defined in article 1(1) of the Banking Consolidation Directive.
director	(in accordance with section 417(1)(a) of the Act) a person occupying in relation to it the position of a director (by whatever name called) and, in relation to an issuer which is not a body corporate, a person with corresponding powers and duties.
EEA State	(in accordance with paragraph 8 of Schedule 3 to the Act (EEA Passport Rights)) a State which is a contracting party to the agreement on the European Economic Area signed at Oporto on 2 May 1992, as it has effect for the time being; as at 1 May 2004, the following are the EEA States: Austria, Belgium, Cyprus, the Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hungary, Iceland, Ireland, Italy, Latvia, Liechtenstein, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, the Netherlands, Norway, Poland, Portugal, the Slovak Republic, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden and the United Kingdom.
equity security	(as defined in Article 2.1(b) of the prospectus directive) shares and other transferable securities equivalent to shares in companies, as well as any other type of transferable securities giving the right to acquire any of the aforementioned securities as a consequence of their being converted or the rights conferred by them being exercised, provided that securities of the latter type are issued by the issuer of the underlying shares or by an entity belonging to the group of the said issuer.
equity share	shares comprised in a company's equity share capital.
equity share capital	(for a company), its issued share capital excluding any part of that capital which, neither as respects dividends nor as respects capital, carries any right to participate beyond a specified amount in a distribution.
executive procedures	the procedures relating to the giving of warning notices, decision notices and supervisory notices that are described in DEPP 4 (Decision by FSA staff under executive procedures)2. 2 2
FSA	the Financial Services Authority.
guarantee	(as defined in the PD Regulation) any arrangement intended to ensure that any obligation material to the issue will be duly serviced, whether in the form of guarantee, surety, keep well agreement, mono-line insurance policy or other equivalent commitment.
guarantor	a person that provides a guarantee.
Home State or Home Member State	(as defined in section 102C of the Act) in relation to an issuer of transferable securities, the EEA State which is the "home Member State" for the purposes of the prospectus directive (which is to be determined in accordance with Article 2.1(m) of that directive).
Host State or Host Member State	(as defined in Article 2.1(n) of the prospectus directive) the EEA State where an offer to the public is made or admission to trading is sought, when different from the home State.
3	[deleted]3 3
3	[deleted]3 3
issuer	(as defined in section 102A of the Act) a legal person who issues or proposes to issue the transferable securities in question.
MiFID 3	The European Parliament and Council Directive on markets in financial instruments (No. 2004/39/EC). See also MiFID Regulation and MiFID implementing Directive.3
non-equity transferable securities	(as defined in section 102A of the Act) all transferable securities that are not equity securities.
	Note: In the prospectus directive and the PD Regulation, the Commission uses the term "non-equity securities" rather than "non-equity transferable securities".
offer	an offer of transferable securities to the public.
offer of transferable securities to the public	(as defined in section 102B of the Act), in summary:
	(a)	a communication to any person which presents sufficient information on: (i) the transferable securities to be offered, and (ii) the terms on which they are offered, to enable an investor to decide to buy or subscribe for the securities in question;
	(b)	which is made in any form or by any means;
	(c)	including the placing of securities through a financial intermediary;
	(d)	but not including a communication in connection with trading on: (i) a regulated market; (ii) a multilateral trading facility; or (iii) any market prescribed by an order under section 130A of the Act.
	Note: This is only a summary, to see the full text of the definition, readers should consult section 102B of the Act.
offering programme	(as defined in Article 2.1(k) of the prospectus directive) a plan which would permit the issuance of non-equity securities, including warrants in any form, having a similar type and/or class, in a continuous or repeated manner during a specified issuing period.
offeror	a person who makes an offer of transferable securities to the public.
overseas company	a company incorporated outside the United Kingdom.
Part 6 rules	(in accordance with section 73A(1) of the Act), rules made for the purposes of Part 6 of the Act.
PD	prospectus directive.
PD Regulation	Regulation number 809/2004 of the European Commission.
person	(in accordance with the Interpretation Act 1978) any person, including a body of persons corporate or unincorporated that is, a natural person, a legal person and, for example, a partnership).
PR	the Prospectus Rules sourcebook.
profit estimate	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a profit forecast for a financial period which has expired and for which results have not yet been published.
profit forecast	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a form of words which expressly states or by implication indicates a figure or a minimum or maximum figure for the likely level of profits or losses for the current financial period and/or financial periods subsequent to that period, or contains data from which a calculation of such a figure for future profits or losses may be made, even if no particular figure is mentioned and the word "profit" is not used.
property collective investment undertaking	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a collective investment undertaking whose investment objective is the participation in the holding of property in the long term.
prospectus	a prospectus required under the prospectus directive.
prospectus directive	the Directive of the European Parliament and of the Council of 4 November 2003 on the prospectus to be published when securities are offered to the public or admitted to trading (No 2003/71/EC).
Prospectus Rules	(as defined in section 73A(4) of the Act) rules expressed to relate to transferable securities.
Public international body	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a legal entity of public nature established by an international treaty between sovereign States and of which one or more Member States are members.
qualified investor	(as defined in section 86(7) of the Act) :
	(a)	any entity falling within the meaning of Article 2(1)(e)(i), (ii) or (iii) of the prospectus directive;
	(b)	An investor registered on the register maintained by the competent authority under section 87R;
	(c)	An investor authorised by an EEA State other than the United Kingdom to be considered as a qualified investor for the purposes of the prospectus directive.
register	register of qualified investors maintained by the FSA under section 87R of the Act.
registration document	a registration document referred to in PR 2.2.2 R.
regulated information	(as defined in the PD Regulation) all information which the issuer, or any person who has applied for the admission of securities to trading on a regulated market without the issuer’s consent, is required to disclose under Directive 2001/34/EC or under Article 6 of Directive 2003/6/EC.3
regulated market	a multilateral system operated and/or managed by a market operator, which brings together or facilitates the bringing together of multiple third-party buying and selling interests in financial instruments in the system and in accordance with its non-discretionary rules in a way that results in a contract, in respect of the financial instruments admitted to trading under its rules and/or systems, and which is authorised and functions regularly and in accordance with the provisions of Title III of MiFID.3
RIS	Regulatory Information Service.
risk factors	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of risks which are specific to the situation of the issuer and/or the securities and which are material for taking investment decisions.
rule	(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions)) a rule made by the FSA under the Act.
schedule	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of minimum information requirements adapted to the particular nature of the different types of issuers and/or the different securities involved.
securities issued in a continuous and repeated manner	(as defined in Article 2.1(l) of the prospectus directive) issues on tap or at least two separate issues of securities of a similar type and/or class over a period of 12 months.
securities note	a securities note referred to in PR 2.2.2 R.
small and medium-sized enterprise	(as defined in Article 2.1(f) of the prospectus directive) companies, which, according to their last annual or consolidated accounts, meet at least two of the following three criteria: an average number of employees during the financial year of less than 250, a total balance sheet not exceeding €43,000,000 and an annual net turnover not exceeding €50,000,000.
special purpose vehicle	(as defined in the PD Regulation) an issuer whose objects and purposes are primarily the issue of securities.
statutory notice associated decision	a decision which is made by the FSA and which is associated with a decision to give a statutory notice, including a decision:
statutory notice decision	a decision by the FSA on whether or not to give a statutory notice.
	(a)	to determine or extend the period for making representations;
	(b)	to determine whether a copy of the statutory notice needs to be given to any third party and the period for him to make representations;
	(c)	to refuse access to FSA material;
	(d)	as to the information which it is appropriate to publish about the matter to which a final notice or an effective supervisory notice relates.
summary	(in relation to a prospectus) the summary included in the prospectus.
supplementary prospectus	a supplementary prospectus containing details of a new factor, mistake or inaccuracy.
transferable security	(as defined in section 102A of the Act) anything which is a transferable security for the purposes of MiFID 3, other than money-market instruments for the purposes of that directive which have a maturity of less than 12 months. 3
	Note: In the prospectus directive and PD regulation, the Commission uses the term "security" rather than "transferable security".
umbrella collective investment scheme	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a collective investment undertaking invested in one or more collective investment undertakings, the asset of which is composed of separate class(es) or designation(s) of securities.
United Kingdom	England and Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland (but not the Channel Islands or the Isle of Man).
units of a collective investment scheme	(as defined in Article 2.1(p) of the prospectus directive) securities issued by a collective investment undertaking as representing the rights of the participants in such an undertaking over its assets.
working day	(as defined in section 103 of the Act) any day other than a Saturday, a Sunday, Christmas Day, Good Friday or a day which is a bank holiday under the Banking and Financial Dealings Act 1971 in any part of the United Kingdom.

SUP 3.1.2R01/06/2011

Applicable sections (see SUP 3.1.1 R)

(1) Category of firm		(2) Sections applicable to the firm	(3) Sections applicable to its auditor
(1)	Authorised professional firm which is required by IPRU(INV) 2.1.2R to comply with chapters 3, 519 or 13 of IPRU(INV) and which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act 9 (Notes 1 and 6)23 23 19 23 23	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8,19SUP 3.10 19
(2)	Authorised professional firm not within (1) to which the custody chapter or client money chapter applies22 17 22 23	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.11	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10
(3)	Authorised professional firm not within (1) or (2) which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.7	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8
(4)	Bank, building society or dormant account fund operator 21which in each case carries on designated investment business 21(Notes 2A and 6)23 23	SUP 3.1-SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10
(5)	Bank, building society or a dormant account fund operator which in each case does not carry on designated investment business 21 (Note 2A) 21	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8
(5A)	Credit union	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.824
(6)	Insurer, the Society of Lloyd's, underwriting agent or members' adviser, UK ISPV 11 (Note 5)7	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8
(7)	Investment management firm, (other than an exempt CAD firm),16 personal investment firm (other than a small personal investment firm or exempt CAD firm) 15or securities and futures firm (other than an exempt CAD firm or an exempt BIPRU commodities firm 20)15 which, in each case, has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act 9(Notes 3 and 623)17 23 9 17 23	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8,19SUP 3.10 19
9(7A)	Investment management firm (other than an exempt CAD firm)20, personal investment firm (other than a small personal investment firm or exempt CAD firm 15) or securities and futures firm (other than an exempt CAD firm 15 or an exempt BIPRU commodities firm 20) not within (7) to which the custody chapter or client money chapter applies22 23 17 22	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10
9(7B)	UCITS firm 13 (Note 6)23 13	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8,19SUP 3.10 19
13(7C)	UK MiFID investment firm, which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act (Notes 3B and 6)23 20 20 23	SUP 3.1 - 3.7, SUP 3.1123	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.1014
17(7D)	Sole trader or partnership that is a UK 20 MiFID investment firm (other than an exempt CAD firm) (Notes 3C and 6)23 20 20 23	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10
(8)	Small personal investment firm or service company which, in either case, has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.7	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8
(9)8	Home finance provider 10 which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act 9 10	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.78	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.88
(10)8	Insurance intermediary (other than an exempt insurance intermediary) to which the insurance client money chapter 17 (except for CASS 5.2 (Holding money as agent)) applies (see Note 4)8 17	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.78, SUP 3.1123	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.108
(11)8	Exempt insurance intermediary and insurance intermediary not subject to SUP 3.1.2 R(10) which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.78	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.88
(12)8	Home finance intermediary 10 or home finance administrator 10 which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act. 10 10	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.78	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.88
Note 1 = This chapter applies to an authorised professional firm in row (1) (and its auditor) as if the firm were of the relevant type in the right-hand column of IPRU(INV) 2.1.4R.
Note 2 [deleted]23 17 17 23
Note 2A = For this purpose, designated investment business does not include either or both: (a) dealing which falls within the exclusion in article 15 of the Regulated Activities Order (Absence of holding out etc) (or agreeing to do so); and (b) dealing in investments as principal (or agreeing to do so): (i) by a firm whose permission to deal in investments as principal is subject to a limitation to the effect that the firm, in carrying on this regulated activity, is limited to entering into transactions in a manner which, if the firm was an unauthorised person, would come within article 16 of the Regulated Activities Order (Dealing in contractually based investments); and (ii) in a manner which comes within that limitation; having regard to article 4(4) of the Regulated Activities Order (Specified activities: general23). 18
Note 3 = This note applies in relation to an oil market participant to which IPRU(INV) 3 does not apply and in relation to an energy market participant to which IPRU(INV) 3 does not apply. In SUP 3: (a) only SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.7 are applicable to such a firm; and (b) only SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.8 are applicable to its auditor; and, in each case, only if it has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act.
17Note 3A [deleted]23 23
20Note 3B = UK MiFID investment firms include exempt CAD firms. An exempt CAD firm that has opted into MiFID can benefit from the audit exemption for small companies in the Companies Act legislation if it meets the relevant criteria in that legislation and fulfils the conditions of regulation 4C(3) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Markets in Financial Instruments) Regulations 2007. If a firm does so benefit then SUP 3 will not apply to it. For further details about exempt CAD firms, see PERG 13, Q58.
17Note 3C20 = A sole trader or a partnership that is a UK MiFID investment firm 20 to which the custody chapter 22 or client money chapter applies22 20 must have its annual accounts audited. 20 20 22 22
Note 4 = The client money audit requirement in SUP 3.1.2 R(10) therefore applies to all insurance intermediaries except:8 • those which do not hold client money or other client assets in relation to insurance mediation activities; or 8 • those which only hold up to, but not exceeding, £30,000 of client money under a statutory trust arising under CASS 5.3.8 Insurance intermediaries which, in relation to insurance mediation activities, hold no more than that amount of client money only on a statutory trust are exempt insurance intermediaries.8
Note (5) = In row (6):7
(a)7	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7 applies to a managing agent in respect of its own business and in respect of the insurance business of each syndicate which it manages; and7
(b)7	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.8 apply to the auditors of a managing agent and the auditors of the insurance business of each syndicate which the managing agent manages.1 2 3 4 5 6 7
23Note 6 = Where SUP 3.11 applies to a firm, and SUP 3.10 applies to the auditor of that firm, those sections apply whether or not that firm's permission prevents it from holding client money or custody assets and whether or not it holds client money or custody assets.

TC App 6.1.1G01/02/2011

1Introduction
1.	An accredited body is a body recognised by the FSA to act as an accredited body.
2.	Information on accredited bodies, including guidance on the process for including an applicant body in the list, is set out below and the obligation to pay the application fee is set out in FEES 3.2.
3.	The role of an accredited body relates to rules in TC which come into force on 31 December 2012.
Process for including a body in the list of accredited bodies
4.	In considering the compatibility of a proposed addition with the regulatory objectives, the FSA will determine whether the applicant will, if accredited, contribute to securing an appropriate degree of protection for consumers having regard in particular to:
	(1)	the matters set out in paragraphs 10 to 20; and
	(2)	the rules and practices of the applicant.
5.	An application to the FSA to be added to the list of accredited bodies should set out how the applicant will satisfy the criteria in paragraphs 10 to 20. The application should be accompanied by a report from a suitable auditor which sets out its independent assessment of the applicant's ability to meet these criteria. An application form is available from the FSA upon request.
6.	When considering an application for accredited body status the FSA may:
	(1)	carry out any enquiries and request any further information that it considers appropriate, including consulting other regulators;
	(2)	ask the applicant or its specified representative to answer questions and explain any matter the FSA considers relevant to the application;
	(3)	take into account any information which the FSA considers appropriate to the application; and
	(4)	request that any information provided by the applicant or its specified representative is verified in such a manner as the FSA may specify.
7.	The FSA will confirm its decision in writing to the applicant.
8.	The FSA will enter into an agreement with the applicant or accredited body which will specify the requirements that the accredited body must meet. These will include the matters set out in paragraphs 10 to 20. Approval as an accredited body becomes effective only when the name of the applicant is added to the Glossary definition of accredited body.
9.	Paragraphs 10 to 20 set out the criteria which an applicant should meet to become an accredited body and which an accredited body should meet at all times.
Acting in the public interest and furthering the development of the profession
10.	The FSA will expect an accredited body to act in the public interest, to contribute to raising consumer confidence and professional standards in the retail investment advice market and to promoting the profession.
Carrying out effective verification services
11.	If independent verification of a retail investment adviser's professional standards has been carried out by an accredited body, the FSA will expect the accredited body to provide the retail investment adviser with evidence of that verification in a durable medium and in a form agreed by the FSA. This is referred to in this Appendix and TC 2.1.28 R as a 'statement of professional standing'.
12.	The FSA will expect an accredited body to have in place effective procedures for carrying out its verification activities. These should include:
	(1)	verifying that each retail investment adviser who is a member of or subscriber to the accredited body's verification service has made an annual declaration in writing that the retail investment adviser has, in the preceding 12 months, complied with APER and completed the continuing professional development required;
	(2)	verifying annually the continuing professional development records of no less than 10% of the retail investment advisers who have used its service in the previous 12 months to ensure that the records are accurate and the continuing professional development completed by the retail investment advisers is appropriate; and
	(3)	verifying that, if required by TC, the retail investment advisers who use its services have attained an appropriate qualification. This should include, where relevant, checking that appropriate qualification gap-fill records have been completed by the retail investment advisers.
13.	The FSA will not expect an accredited body to carry out the verification in paragraph 12(3) if a retail investment adviser provides the accredited body with evidence in a durable medium which demonstrates that another accredited body has previously verified the retail investment adviser's appropriate qualification, including, where relevant, appropriate qualification gap-fill.
14.	The FSA will expect an accredited body to make it a contractual condition of membership (where a retail investment adviser is a member of the accredited body) or of using its verification service (where a retail investment adviser is not a member of the accredited body) that, as a minimum, the accredited body will not continue to verify a retail investment adviser's standards and will withdraw its statement of professional standing if the accredited body is provided with false information in relation to a retail investment adviser's qualifications or continuing professional development or a false declaration in relation to a retail investment adviser's compliance with APER. In this regard, an accredited body must have in place appropriate decision-making procedures with a suitable degree of independence and transparency.
Having appropriate systems and controls in place and providing evidence to the FSA of continuing effectiveness
15.	The FSA will expect an accredited body to ensure that it has adequate resources and systems and controls in place in relation to its role as an accredited body.
16.	The FSA will expect an accredited body to have effective procedures in place for the management of conflicts of interest and have a well-balanced governance structure with at least one member who is independent of the sector.
17.	The FSA will expect an accredited body to have a code of ethics and to ensure that its code of ethics and verification service terms and conditions do not contain any provisions that conflict with APER.
Ongoing cooperation with the FSA
18.	The FSA will expect an accredited body to provide the FSA with such documents and information as the FSA reasonably requires, and to cooperate with the FSA in an open and transparent manner.
19.	The FSA will expect an accredited body to share information with the FSA (subject to any legal constraints) in relation to the professional standards of the retail investment advisers who use its service as appropriate. Examples might include conduct issues, complaints, dishonestly obtaining or falsifying qualifications or continuing professional development or a failure to complete appropriate continuing professional development. The FSA will expect an accredited body to notify the firm if issues such as these arise.
20.	The FSA will expect an accredited body to submit to the FSA an annual report by a suitable independent auditor which sets out that auditor's assessment of the quality of the body's satisfaction of the criteria in paragraphs 10 to 19 in the preceding 12 months and whether, in the auditor's view, the body is capable of satisfying the criteria in the subsequent 12 months. The FSA will expect this annual report to be submitted to the FSA within three months of the anniversary of the date on which the accredited body was added to the Glossary definition of accredited body.
Withdrawal of accreditation
21.	If an accredited body fails or, in the FSA's view, is likely to fail to satisfy the criteria, the FSA will discuss this with the accredited body concerned. If, following a period of discussion, the accredited body has failed to take appropriate corrective action to ensure that it satisfies and will continue to satisfy the criteria, the FSA will withdraw the accredited body's accreditation by removing its name from the list of accredited bodies published in the Glossary. The FSA will expect the body to notify each retail investment adviser holding a current statement of professional standing of the FSA's decision. A statement of professional standing issued by the accredited body before the withdrawal of accreditation will continue to be valid until its expiration.

FEES 4.1.4G01/06/2011

(1) The periodic fees for collective investment schemes reflect the estimated costs to the FSA of considering proposals to change regulated collective investment schemes, maintaining up to date records about them, and related policy work.(2) The provision of the Transaction Reporting System facilities for firms reporting transactions under SUP 17 incurs costs to the FSA. These costs depend upon the amount the facility is used. Accordingly the income which the FSA receives from

CASS 1.2.5R01/11/2007

1The insurance client money chapter2 does not apply to an authorised professional firm with respect to its non-mainstream regulated activities, which are insurance mediation activities, if:2(1) the firm's designated professional body has made rules which implement article 4 of the Insurance Mediation Directive;33(2) those rules have been approved by the FSA under section 332(5) of the Act; and(3) the firm is subject to the rules in the form in which they were approved.

PERG 8.1.4G01/07/2005

This guidance is issued under section 157 of the Act. It represents the FSA's views and does not bind the courts. For example, it would not bind the courts in an action for damages brought by a private person for breach of a rule (see section 150 of the Act (Actions for damages)), or in relation to the enforceability of a contract where there has been a breach of sections 19 (The general prohibition) or 21 (Restrictions on financial promotion) of the Act (see sections 26 to 30

PERG 4.14.2G01/07/2005

In the FSA's view, the following exclusions are likely, in many cases, to exclude the normal activities of professional firms from amounting to regulated mortgage activities:(1) article 67 of the Regulated Activities Order (Activities carried on in the course of a profession or non-investment business), which applies in relation to the advising and arranging activities (see PERG 4.10.1 G);(2) article 66 of the Regulated Activities Order (Trustees, nominees and personal representatives)

MCOB 4.11.7G30/06/2010

(1) A consideration of the customer's benefits position will need to focus on whether, by entering into the proposed regulated sale and rent back agreement, his entitlement to means-tested benefit will be adversely affected because of his receipt of the net proceeds of sale (if any) of the property. The customer's possible loss of entitlement to claim housing benefit should also be assessed. Where a firm has insufficient knowledge of means-tested and housing benefits to reach

SUP 13.5.2AG06/03/2009

4SUP 13.5.2 R does not apply to UK pure reinsurers as they have automatic passport rights on the basis of their Home State authorisation under Reinsurance Directive.

COLL 12.2.5G01/07/2011

The FSA's equivalent rules under articles 19(3) and 19(4) of the Directive are set out in COLL 12.3.5 R (COLL fund rules under the management company passport: the fund application rules) and COLL 6.6.3 R (Functions of the authorised fund manager).

SUP 11.4.2AR28/03/2009

1A non-directive firm4must notify the FSA of any of the following events concerning the firm:4(1) a person becoming controller of the firm; or44(2) an existing controller ceasing to be controller of the firm.444

Related provisions for MCOB 13.3.4C

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