Related provisions for SUP 11.7.1
121 - 140 of 430 items.
(1) This section deals with the circumstances and manner in which an AUT is to be wound up or a sub-fund of an AUT is to be terminated. Under section 256 of the Act (Requests for revocation of authorisation order), the manager or trustee of an AUT may request the FSA to revoke the authorisation order in respect of that AUT. Section 257 of the Act (Directions) gives the FSA the power to make certain directions.(2) The termination of a sub-fund under this section will be subject
1This table belongs to COLL 7.4.1 G (4) (Explanation of COLL 7.4)
Summary of the main steps in winding up an AUT or terminating a sub-fund under FSArules Notes: N = Notice to be given to the FSA under section 251 of the Act. E = commencement of winding up or termination W/U = winding up FAP = final accounting period (COLL 7.4.5 R (4)) |
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Step number |
Explanation |
When |
|
1 |
Receive FSA approval |
N + one month On receipt of notice from the FSA |
Section 251 of the Act |
2 |
Normal business ceases; notify unitholders |
E |
7.4.3R |
3 |
Trustee to realise and distribute proceeds |
ASAP after E |
7.4.4R(1) to (5) |
4 |
Within 4 months of FAP |
7.4.5R(5) |
|
5 |
Request FSA to revoke relevant authorisation order |
On completion of W/U |
7.4.4R(6) |
(1) Upon the happening of any of the events or dates referred to in (2) and not otherwise:1(a) COLL 6.2 (Dealing), COLL 6.3 (Valuation and pricing) and COLL 5 (Investment and borrowing powers) cease to apply to the AUT or to the units and scheme property in the case of a sub-fund;1(b) the trustee must cease to issue and cancel1units, except in respect of the final cancellation under COLL 7.4.4 R (1) or (2);11(c) the manager must cease to sell and redeem units; (d) the manager
This chapter applies to a UK firm, that is, a person whose head office is in the United Kingdom and which is entitled to carry on an activity in another EEA State subject to the conditions of a Single Market Directive. Such an entitlement is referred to in the Act as an EEA right and its exercise is referred to in the Handbook as passporting.1
This chapter gives guidance on Schedule 3 to the Act for a UK firm which wishes to exercise its EEA right and establish a branch in, or provide cross border services into, another EEA State. That is, when a UK firm wishes to establish its first branch in, or provide cross border services for the first time into, a particular EEA State.
Part XII of the Act (Notices of acquisitions of control 3 over UK3 authorised persons) places an obligation on the controllers and proposed controllers of those UK domestic firms not listed in SUP 11.1.1 R (1) to SUP 11.1.1 R (6) to notify the FSA of changes in control, including acquiring, increasing or reducing control or ceasing to have control over a firm.3 Furthermore, those persons are required to obtain the FSA's approval before becoming a controller or increasing their
As the approval of the FSA is not required under the Act for a new controller of an overseas firm, the notification rules on such firms are less prescriptive than they are for UK domestic firms. Nevertheless, the FSA still needs to monitor such an overseas firm's continuing satisfaction of the threshold conditions, which normally includes consideration of a firm's connection with any person, including its controllers and parent undertakings (see COND). The FSA therefore needs
Similarly, the FSA needs to monitor a firm's continuing satisfaction of threshold condition 3 (Close links) (see COND 2.32), which requires that a firm's close links are not likely to prevent the FSA's effective supervision of that firm. Accordingly the FSA needs to be notified of any changes in a firm's close links. This requirement is contained in SUP 11.9.2
Threshold condition 2(1) and (2) (Location of offices), implement the requirements of article 6 of the Post BCCI Directive and article 5(4) of MiFID3 and threshold condition 2(3) and (4) implements article 2.9 of the Insurance Mediation Directive, although the Act extends threshold condition 2 to firms which are outside the scope of the Single Market Directives and the UCITS Directive.1
Neither the Post BCCI Directive, MiFID,3 the Insurance Mediation Directive nor the Act define what is meant by a firm's 'head office'. This is not necessarily the firm's place of incorporation or the place where its business is wholly or mainly carried on. Although the FSA will judge each application on a case-by-case basis, the key issue in identifying the head office of a firm is the location of its central management and control, that is, the location of: 1(1) the directors
A person who is concerned to know whether his proposed insurance mediation activities may require authorisation will need to consider the following questions (these questions are a summary of the issues to be considered and have been reproduced, in slightly fuller form, in the flow chart in PERG 5.15.2 G (Flow chart: regulated activities related to insurance mediation – do you need authorisation?):(1) will the activities relate to contracts of insurance (see PERG 5.3(Contracts
It is recognised pursuant to section 22 of the Act that a person will not be carrying on regulated activities in the first instance, including insurance mediation activities, unless he is carrying on these activities by way of business. Similarly, where a person's activities are excluded he cannot, by definition, be carrying on regulated activities. To this extent, the content of the questions above does not follow the scheme of the Act. For ease of navigation, however, the questions
An unauthorised person who intends to carry on activities connected with contracts of insurance will need to comply with section 21 of the Act (Restrictions on financial promotion). This guidance does not cover financial promotions that relate to contracts of insurance. Persons should refer to the general guidance on financial promotion in PERG 8 (Financial promotion and related activities). (See in particular PERG 8.17A (Financial promotions concerning insurance mediation activities)
(1) Before an EEA firm other than an EEA pure reinsurer1 exercises an EEA right to provide cross border services into the United Kingdom, the Act requires it to satisfy the service conditions, as set out in paragraph 14 of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act. (2) For the purposes of paragraph 14(1)(b) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, the information to be contained in the regulator's notice has been prescribed under regulation 3 of the EEA Passport Rights Regulations.(3) An EEA
(1) Unless the EEA firm other than an EEA pure reinsurer1is passporting under the Insurance Mediation Directive, if the FSA receives a regulator's notice or, where no notice is required (in the case of an EEA firm passporting under the Banking Consolidation Directive), is informed of the EEA firm's intention to provide cross border services into the United Kingdom, the FSA will, under paragraphs 14(2)(b) and 14(3) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, notify the EEA firm of the
Section 236(3) of the Act states clearly that the investment condition must be met 'in relation to BC'. In the FSA's view, this means that the investment condition should not be applied rigidly in relation to specific events such as particular issues of shares or securities or in relation to particular points in time. The requirements of the investment condition must be satisfied in relation to the overall impression of the body corporate itself, having regard to all the circ
Certain matters are to be disregarded in determining whether the investment condition is satisfied. Section 236(4) of the Act states that, for these purposes, no account is to be taken of any actual or potential redemption or repurchase of shares or securities under:(1) Chapters 3 to 71 of Part 181 of the Companies Act 2006;1or1(2) [deleted]11(3) corresponding provisions in force in another EEA State; or(4) provisions in force in a country or territory other than an EEA State
The FSA's views on the following three elements of the investment condition are explained separately:(1) the 'reasonable investor' (see PERG 9.7 (The investment condition: the 'reasonable investor'));(2) the 'expectation' test (see PERG 9.8 (The investment condition: the 'expectation test' (section 236(3)(a) of the Act))); and(3) the 'satisfaction' test (see PERG 9.9 (The investment condition: the 'satisfaction test' (section 236(3)(b) of the Act)).
Section 39 of the Act makes provision exempting appointed representatives from the need to obtain authorisation. An appointed representative is a person who is a party to a contract with an authorised person which permits or requires the appointed representative to carry on certain regulated activities. SUP 12 (Appointed representatives) contains guidance relating to appointed representatives.
Where a person is already an appointed representative (in relation to any non-mortgage activities) and he proposes to carry on any regulated mortgage activities, he will need to consider the following matters.(1) He must become authorised if his proposed mortgage activities include either entering into a regulated mortgage contract or administering a regulated mortgage contract. These activities may not be carried on by appointed representatives and the Act does not permit any
Sections 85 and 86 of the Act provide for when a prospectus approved by the FSA will be required:
85 |
(1) |
It is unlawful for transferable securities to which this subsection applies to be offered to the public in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the offer is made. |
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(2) |
It is unlawful to request the admission of transferable securities to which this subsection applies to trading on a regulated market situated or operating in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the request is made. |
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(3) |
A person who contravenes subsection (1) or (2) is guilty of an offence and liable – |
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(a) |
on summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum or both; |
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(b) |
on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or a fine or both. |
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(4) |
A contravention of subsection (1) or (2) is actionable, at the suit of a person who suffers loss as a result of the contravention, subject to the defences and other incidents applying to actions for breach of statutory duty. |
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(5) |
Subsection (1) applies to all transferable securities other than – |
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(a) |
those listed in Schedule 11A; |
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(b) |
such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.2 R]. |
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(6) |
Subsection (2) applies to all transferable securities other than – |
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(a) |
those listed in Part 1 of Schedule 11A; |
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(b) |
such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.3 R]. |
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(7) |
"Approved prospectus" means, in relation to transferable securities to which this section applies, a prospectus approved by the competent authority of the home State in relation to the issuer of the securities. |
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86 |
Exempt offers to the public |
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(1) |
A person does not contravene section 85(1) if – |
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(a) |
the offer is made to or directed at qualified investors only; |
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(b) |
the offer is made to or directed at fewer than 1502 persons, other than qualified investors, per EEA State; |
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(c) |
the minimum consideration which may be paid by any person for transferable securities acquired by him pursuant to the offer is at least 50,000 euros (or an equivalent amount); |
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(d) |
the transferable securities being offered are denominated in amounts of at least 50,000 euros (or equivalent amounts); or |
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(e) |
the total consideration for the transferable securities being offered cannot exceed 100,000 euros (or an equivalent amount). |
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(2) |
Where - |
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(a) |
a person who is not a qualified investor ("the client") has engaged a qualified investor falling within Article 2.1(e)(i) of the prospectus directive to act as his agent; and |
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(b) |
the terms on which the qualified investor is engaged enable him to make decisions concerning the acceptance of offers of transferable securities on the client's behalf without reference to the client, |
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an offer made to or directed at the qualified investor is not to be regarded for the purposes of subsection (1) as also having been made to or directed at the client. |
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(3) |
For the purposes of subsection (1)(b), the making of an offer of transferable securities to – |
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(a) |
trustees of a trust, |
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(b) |
members of a partnership in their capacity as such, or |
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(c) |
two or more persons jointly, |
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is to be treated as the making of an offer to a single person. |
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(4) |
In determining whether subsection (1)(e) is satisfied in relation to an offer ("offer A"), offer A is to be taken together with any other offer of transferable securities of the same class made by the same person which – |
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(a) |
was open at any time within the period of 12 months ending with the date on which offer A is first made; and |
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(b) |
had previously satisfied subsection (1)(e). |
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(5) |
For the purposes of this section, an amount (in relation to an amount denominated in euros) is an "equivalent amount" if it is an amount of equal value denominated wholly or partly in another currency or unit of account. |
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(6) |
The equivalent is to be calculated at the latest practicable date before (but in any event not more than 3 working days before) the date on which the offer is first made. |
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(7) |
"Qualified investor" means – |
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(a) |
an entity falling within Article 2.1(e)(i), (ii) or (iii) of the prospectus directive; |
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(b) |
an investor registered on the register maintained by the [FSA] under section 87R; |
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(c) |
an investor authorised by an EEA State other than the United Kingdom to be considered as a qualified investor for the purposes of the prospectus directive. |
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In accordance with section 85(5)(b) of the Act, section 85(1) of the Act does not apply to offers of the following types of transferable securities:(1) shares issued in substitution for shares of the same class already issued, if the issue of the new shares does not involve any increase in the issued capital;(2) transferable securities offered in connection with a takeover by means of an exchange offer, if a document is available containing information which is regarded by the
In accordance with section 85(6)(b) of the Act, section 85(2) of the Act does not apply to the admission to trading of the following types of transferable securities:(1) shares representing, over a period of 12 months, less than 10 per cent of the number of shares of the same class already admitted to trading on the same regulated market;(2) shares issued in substitution for shares of the same class already admitted to trading on the same regulated market, if the issue of the
The FSAmay seek to vary a firm's Part IV permission on its own initiative
in certain situations including
the following:(1) If
the FSA determines
that a firm's management, business
or internal controls give rise
to material risks that are not fully addressed by its rules,
the FSAmay
seek to vary
the firm's Part
IV permission and impose an additional requirement or limitation on the firm.(2) If
a firm becomes or is to become
involved with new products or selling practices which
The FSA may seek to impose requirements or limitations which
include but are not restricted to:(1) requiring
a firm to submit regular reports
covering, for example, trading results, management accounts, customer complaints, connected party transactions;(2) requiring a firm to
maintain prudential limits, for example on large exposures,
foreign currency exposures or
liquidity gaps;(3) requiring
a firm to submit a business
plan (or
for an insurer, a scheme of operations (see SUP
The FSA will seek to give a firm reasonable
notice of an intent to vary its permission and to agree with the firm an
appropriate timescale. However, if the FSA considers
that a delay may create a risk to any of the FSA's regulatory objectives,3 the FSA may need to act immediately using its powers under section 45 of the Actto vary a firm's Part IV permission with
immediate effect.3
Section 39 of the Act (Exemption of appointed representatives) exempts appointed representatives from the need to obtain authorisation. An appointed representative is a person who is party to a contract with an authorised person which permits or requires him to carry on certain regulated activities (see Glossary for full definition). SUP 12 (Appointed representatives) contains rules and guidance relating to appointed representatives.
Where a person is already an appointed representative and he proposes to carry on any insurance mediation activities, he will need to consider the following matters.(1) He must become authorised if his proposed insurance mediation activities include activities that do not fall within the table in PERG 5.13.4 G (for example, dealing as agent in pure protection contracts) and he wishes to carry on these activities. The Act does not permit any person to be exempt for some activities
Consistent with Principle 11 (Relations with regulators), the FSA will expect a firm to notify it if the firm does not propose to follow its individual liquidity guidance. The FSA will expect any such notification to be accompanied by a clear account of the firm's reasons for considering the individual liquidity guidance to be inappropriate. The FSA will expect to receive any such notification within one month from the date on which it gives individual liquidity guidance to the
As part of the FSA's enquiry into the reasons for a firm's deviation, or expected deviation, from its individual liquidity guidance or, as the case may be, its simplified buffer requirement, the FSA may ask for further assessments and analyses of a firm's liquidity resources and the risks faced by the firm. The FSA may consider the use of its powers under section 166 of the Act to assist in such circumstances.
If agreement through discussion with the FSA cannot be reached as to the necessary actions and timescales to remedy deviation from that guidance, the FSA will consider using its powers under the Act (for example, its power under section 45 to vary, on its own initiative, a firm'sPart IV permission or its power of intervention under section 196) so as to require the firm to take such actions as the FSA considers are necessary to return the firm to conformity with the terms of its
The FSA will send a notice in writing requiring the person in SUP 5.2.1 G to provide a report by a skilled person on any matter if it is reasonably required in connection with the exercise of its functions conferred by or under the Act. The FSA may require the report to be in whatever form it specifies in the notice (SUP 5 Annex 2 summarises the appointment and reporting processes).
The skilled person is appointed by the person in SUP 5.2.1 G. The FSA will normally seek to agree in advance with the person in SUP 5.2.1 G the skilled person who will make the report. The Act requires that the skilled person be nominated or approved by the FSA:(1) if the FSA decides to nominate the skilled person who is to make the report report, it will notify the person in SUP 5.2.1 G accordingly; and (2) alternatively, if the FSA is content to approve a skilled person selected
1In the event that the FSA decides that the possible reduction in risk weighted exposure amounts which the originator would achieve by the securitisation referred to in BIPRU 9.3.7R is not justified by a commensurate transfer of credit risk to third parties, it will use its powers under section 45 of the Act (Variation etc on the Authority's own initiative) to require the firm to increase its risk weighted exposure amount to an amount commensurate with the FSA's assessment of
1BIPRU 1.3.10 G sets out the FSA's approach to the granting of waivers. The conditions in BIPRU 9.3.11D are minimum requirements. Satisfaction of those does not automatically mean the FSA will grant the relevant waiver. The FSA will in addition also apply the tests in section 148 (Modification or waiver of rules) of the Act.
1Subject to BIPRU 9.3.22G, BIPRU 9.15.9R and BIPRU 9.15.10R, where the originator or sponsor of a securitisation fails to meet any of the requirements in BIPRU 9.3.18R to BIPRU 9.3.20R (disclosure requirements) in any material respect by reason of its negligence or omission, the FSA will use its powers under section 45 (Variation etc on the Authority's own initiative) of the Act to impose an additional risk weight of no less than 250% (capped at 1250%) of the risk weight that
Any person who concludes or is advised that he will need to make an application for Part IV permission should look at PERG 2 Annex 2 G to determine the categories of specified investment and regulated activities that are relevant to the next step and should then refer to the FSA website How do I get authorised: http://www.fsa.gov.uk/Pages/Doing/how/index.shtml1 for details of the application process.1
19The Ombudsman cannot consider a complaint if the complainant refers it to the Financial Ombudsman Service:(1) more than six months after the date on which the respondent sent the complainant its final response or redress determination or summary resolution communication; or3(2) more than: (a) six years after the event complained of; or (if later)(b) three years from the date on which the complainant became aware (or ought reasonably to have become aware) that he had cause for
The purpose of this guidance is two fold:(1) to outline the restriction on financial promotion under section 21 of the Act (Restrictions on financial promotion) and the main exemptions from this restriction; and(2) to outline the main circumstances in which persons who are primarily involved in making or helping others to make financial promotions may be conducting regulated activities requiring authorisation or exemption themselves; this part of the guidance may also be of more
This guidance is issued under section 157 of the Act. It represents the FSA's views and does not bind the courts. For example, it would not bind the courts in an action for damages brought by a private person for breach of a rule (see section 150 of the Act (Actions for damages)), or in relation to the enforceability of a contract where there has been a breach of sections 19 (The general prohibition) or 21 (Restrictions on financial promotion) of the Act (see sections 26 to 30
The word ‘communicate’ is extended under section 21(13) of the Act and includes causing a communication to be made. This means that a person who causes the communication of a financial promotion by another person is also subject to the restriction in section 21. Article 6(d) of the Financial Promotion Order also states that the word ‘communicate’ has the same meaning when used in exemptions in the Order. Article 6(a) also states that the word ‘communication’ has the same meaning
1The position of an unauthorised person (‘U’) who, in the course of business, causes an authorised person to communicate a financial promotion is somewhat different. This is because the authorised person (‘A’) is not subject to section 21 of the Act and so will not necessarily be communicating the financial promotion in circumstances in which an exemption would apply. To avoid any doubt about the application of section 21 to U, a specific exemption is provided in article 17A of
Section 21(1) of the Act refers only to the communication of an invitation or inducement. It says nothing about communications being 'made to' or 'directed at' persons or about who the 'recipient' of a communication will be. These facts are determined by the following sequence:(1) section 21(13) of the Act indicates that communications are 'made';(2) article 6 of the Financial Promotion Order (Interpretation: communications) indicates that communications are made by being 'addressed
(1) 7In addition to instruments admitted to or dealt in on an eligible market, a UCITS scheme may also with the express consent of the FSA (which takes the form of a waiver under section 148 of the Act as applied by section 250 of the Act or regulation 7 of the OEIC Regulations) invest in an approved money-market instrument provided:(a) the issue or issuer is itself regulated for the purpose of protecting investors and savings in accordance with COLL 5.2.10AR (2);(b) investment
A UCITS scheme must not invest in units in a collective investment scheme ("second scheme") unless the second scheme satisfies all of the following conditions, and provided that no more than 30% of the value of the UCITS scheme is invested in second schemes within (1)(b) to (e):88(1) the second scheme must:(a) satisfy the conditions necessary for it to enjoy the rights conferred by the UCITS Directive; or(b) be recognised under the provisions of section 270 of the Act (Schemes
(1) COLL 9.3 gives further detail as to the recognition of a scheme under section 270of the Act.(2) Article 5013 of the UCITS Directive sets out the general investment limits. So, a non-UCITS retail scheme, or its equivalent EEAscheme which has the power to invest in gold or immovables would not meet the criteria set in COLL 5.2.13R (1)(c) and COLL 5.2.13R (1)(d).13(3) 8In determining whether a scheme meets the requirements of article 50(1)(e)13 of the UCITS Directive for the
13Authorised fund managers of UCITS schemes or EEA UCITS schemes should bear in mind that where a UCITS scheme, or an EEA UCITS scheme that is a recognised scheme under section 264 of the Act, employs particular investment strategies such as investing more than 35% of its scheme property in government and public securities, or investing principally in units in collective investment schemes, deposits or derivatives, or replicating an index, COBS 4.13.2R (Marketing communications