Related provisions for BIPRU 4.10.8
41 - 60 of 180 items.
Where an authorised fund manager of a feeder UCITS enters into a master-feeder agreement or, if applicable, internal conduct of business rules, with the management company of an EEA UCITS scheme, references in COLL 11 Annex 1 R and COLL 11 Annex 2 R to COLLrules implementing provisions in the UCITS Directive which are the responsibility of the EEA UCITS scheme'sHome State regulator should be read as referring to the corresponding provisions in the laws and regulations of that
Where the FSA is informed in accordance with COLL 11.3.9 R that a feeder UCITS which is an EEA UCITS scheme has invested in units of the master UCITS, section 261A (Information for home state regulator) of the Act and regulation 29A (Information for home state regulator) of the OEIC Regulations require the FSA to inform the Home State regulator of the feeder UCITS immediately.[Note: article 66(1) second sentence of the UCITS Directive]
An authorised fund manager of a master UCITS must ensure the timely availability of all information that is required in accordance with its obligations under the regulatory system, the general law and the instrument constituting the scheme, to:(1) the feeder UCITS (or where applicable its management company);(2) the competent authority of the feeder UCITS;(3) the depositary of the feeder UCITS; and(4) the auditor of the feeder UCITS.[Note: article 66(3) of the UCITS Directive
A firm is required to notify the FSA of changes to its close links (see SUP 11.9). Threshold condition 3 (Close links) provides that, if a firm has close links with another person, the FSA must be satisfied that:(1) those close links are not likely to prevent the FSA's effective supervision of the firm; and(2) where it appears to the FSA that the person is subject to the laws, regulations or administrative provisions of a territory which is not an EEA State, neither the foreign
The purposes of the rules and guidance in this section are:(1) to ensure that, in addition to such notifications, the FSA receives regular and comprehensive information about the identities of all persons with whom a firm has close links, which is relevant to a firm's continuing to satisfy the threshold condition 3 (Close links) (see SUP 2.3) and to the protection of consumers; and(2) to implement certain requirements relating to the provision of information on close links which
(1) A firm must submit a report to the FSA annually by completing the Close Links Notification Form (see SUP 11.9.3 AG) and must include5 the information in (3) or (4) (as applicable) and (5)5.(2) A firm must submit the report in (1) to the FSA within four months of the firm'saccounting reference date.(3) If a firm is not aware: (a) that it has any close links; or (b) of any material changes to the details in (4) (a) to (c) in respect of its close links since the submission of
(1) Each EEA State, including the United Kingdom, is required to implement article 14 of the UCITS Directive by drawing up rules of conduct which management companies authorised in that State must observe at all times, except as explained in (3).(2) UK UCITS management companies operating an EEA UCITS scheme under the freedom to provide cross border services (otherwise than by establishing a branch in that State) are advised that, as provided for elsewhere in the Handbook, they
(1) A UK UCITS management company which applies to operate an EEA UCITS scheme in another EEA State is advised that it must comply with the requirements of the Host State regulator regarding provision to them of the following documents:(a) the written agreement it has entered into with the depositary of the EEA UCITS scheme, as referred to in articles 23 and 33 of the UCITS Directive; and(b) information on delegation arrangements (if any), regarding functions of investment management
(1) Actuaries appointed under this chapter made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (Information given by auditor or actuary to the Authority). Section 343 and the regulations also apply to an actuary of an authorised person in his capacity as an actuary of a person with close links with the authorised person.4(2) These regulations oblige actuaries to report certain matters to the FSA. Sections 342(3) and 343(3) of the Act provide that an actuary does not
An actuary2 who has ceased to be appointed under this chapter2, or who has been formally notified that he will cease to be so 2appointed, must notify the FSA without delay:222(1) of any matter connected with the cessation which he thinks ought to be drawn to the FSA's attention; or(2) that there is no such matter.
This chapter gives guidance to UK firms. In most cases UK firms will be authorised persons under the Act. However, under the Banking Consolidation Directive, a subsidiary of a firm which is a credit institution which meets the criteria set out in that Directive also has an EEA right. Such an unauthorised subsidiary is known as a financial institution. References in this chapter to a UK firm include a financial institution.
(1) The authorised fund manager may, with the prior agreement of the depositary, and must without delay, if the depositary so requires, temporarily1 suspend the issue, cancellation, sale and redemption of units in an authorised fund (referred to in this chapter as "dealings in units"), where due to exceptional circumstances it is in the interest of all the unitholders in the authorised fund. (1A) The authorised fund manager and the depositary must ensure that the suspension is
2Where:(1) an authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme which is a master UCITS temporarily suspends the issue, cancellation, sale and redemption of its units, whether at its own initiative or at the request of the FSA; or(2) an operator of an EEA UCITS scheme which is a master UCITS temporarily suspends the issue, cancellation, sale or redemption of its units, whether at its own initiative or at the request of its Home State regulator; the authorised fund manager of each of its
A common platform firm must in particular
take the necessary steps to ensure that the following conditions are satisfied:(1) the service provider must have
the ability, capacity, and any authorisation required
by law to perform the outsourced functions,
services or activities reliably and professionally;(2) the service provider must carry
out the outsourced services
effectively, and to this end the firm must
establish methods for assessing the standard of performance of the service
provider;(3)
A common platform firm must make available
on request to the FSA and
any other relevant competent authority all
information necessary to enable the FSA and
any other relevant competent authority to
supervise the compliance of the performance of the outsourced activities
with the requirements of the regulatory system.[Note: article
14(5) of the MiFID implementing Directive]
1This chapter applies to every firm and with respect to every regulated activity, except that:(1) for an incoming ECA provider, this chapter does not apply when the firm is acting as such;(2) for an incoming EEA firm which has permission only for cross-border services and which does not carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom, this chapter does not apply;(3) for an incoming firm not falling under (1) or (2), this chapter does not apply to the extent that the firm is
3GEN 4.5 (Statements about authorisation and regulation by the FSA) applies in relation to activities carried on from an establishment maintained by the firm (or by its appointed representative) in the United Kingdom, provided that, in the case of the MiFID business of an EEAMiFID investment firm or the activities of an EEA UCITS management company,4 it only applies to business conducted within the territory of the United Kingdom.
This chapter does not apply to:(1) an EEA firm that wishes to carry on in the United Kingdom activities which are outside the scope of its EEA right and the scope of a permission granted under Schedule 4 to the Act; in this case the EEA firm requires a "top-up permission" under Part IV of the Act (see the FSA website "How do I get authorised":http://www.fsa.gov.uk/Pages/Doing/how/index.shtml3); or 3(2) an EEA firm that carries on any insurance activity:(a) by the provision of
(1) EEA firms should note that this chapter only addresses the procedures which the FSA will follow under the Act.So, an EEA firm should consider this guidance in conjunction with the requirements with which it will have to comply in its Home State. 6(2) The guidance in this chapter represents the FSA's interpretation of the Single Market Directives, the Act and the secondary legislation made under the Act. The guidance is not exhaustive and should not be seen as a substitute
A firm is required under GENPRU 2.1.52 R (Calculation of the market risk capital requirement) to calculate its market risk capital requirement using the rules in BIPRU 7. However, the FSA may at the firm's request modify GENPRU 2.1.52 R to allow the firm to calculate all or part of the PRR for the positions covered by that model by using a CAD 1 model (for options risk aggregation and/or interest rate pre-processing) or a VaR model (value at risk model) instead. BIPRU 7.10 (Use
The purpose of BIPRU 7.9 is to provide guidance on the FSA's policy for granting CAD 1 model waivers under section 148 of the Act (Modification or waiver of rules). The policy recognises that CAD 1 models may vary across firms but, as a minimum, the FSA will need to be satisfied:(1) about the quality of the internal controls and risk management relating to the model (see BIPRU 7.9.19G - BIPRU 7.9.23G for further details);(2) about the quality of the model standards; and(3) that
No changes should be made to a CAD 1 model unless the change is not material. Material changes to a CAD 1 model will require a renewed waiver to be issued. Materiality is measured from the time that the waiver is granted or, if the waiver has been varied in accordance with section 148 of the Act, any later time that may be specified in the waiver for these purposes. If a firm is considering making material changes to its CAD 1 model, then it should notify the FSA at once. If a
(1) Before an EEA firm other than an EEA pure reinsurer1 exercises an EEA right to provide cross border services into the United Kingdom, the Act requires it to satisfy the service conditions, as set out in paragraph 14 of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act. (2) For the purposes of paragraph 14(1)(b) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, the information to be contained in the regulator's notice has been prescribed under regulation 3 of the EEA Passport Rights Regulations.(3) An EEA
(1) Unless the EEA firm other than an EEA pure reinsurer1is passporting under the Insurance Mediation Directive, if the FSA receives a regulator's notice or, where no notice is required (in the case of an EEA firm passporting under the Banking Consolidation Directive), is informed of the EEA firm's intention to provide cross border services into the United Kingdom, the FSA will, under paragraphs 14(2)(b) and 14(3) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, notify the EEA firm of the
5A UK UCITS management company must ensure that the procedures it establishes under DISP 1.3.1 R for the reasonable and prompt handling of complaints require that:(1) there are no restrictions on Unitholders exercising their rights in the event that the UCITS is authorised in an EEA State other than the United Kingdom; and(2) Unitholders are allowed to file complaints in any of the official languages of the Home State of the UCITS scheme or EEA UCITS scheme or of any EEA State
416These procedures should, taking into account the nature, scale and complexity of the respondent's business, ensure that lessons learned as a result of determinations by the Ombudsman are effectively applied in future complaint handling, for example by:(1) relaying a determination by the Ombudsman to the individuals in the respondent who handled the complaint and using it in their training and development;(2) analysing any patterns in determinations by the Ombudsman concerning
2If a firm requires employees who are not subject to a qualification 7 requirement in TC7 to pass a relevant examination from the list of recommended examinations maintained by the Financial Skills Partnership7, the FSA will take that into account when assessing whether the firm has ensured that the employee satisfies the knowledge component of the competent employees rule.777
(1) 2A firm other than a credit union must submit any notice underSUP 15.5.1R, SUP 15.5.4R, SUP 15.5.5 R3 and SUP 15.5.7R by submitting the form in SUP 15 Ann 3R online at www.fsa.gov.uk.(2) A credit union must submit any notice under SUP 15.5.1R, SUP 15.5.4R, SUP 15.5.5 R3 and SUP 15.5.7R by submitting the form in SUP 15 Ann 3R in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4R to SUP 15.7.9G (Form and method of notification).(3) Where a firm is obliged to submit a notice online under (1), if
(1) Business plan failure in the context of reverse stress testing should be understood as the point at which the market loses confidence in a firm and this results in the firm no longer being able to carry out its business activities. Examples of this would be the point at which all or a substantial portion of the firm's counterparties are unwilling to continue transacting with it or seek to terminate their contracts, or the point at which the firm's existing shareholders are
(1) The FSA may request a firm to submit the design and results of its reverse stress tests and any subsequent updates as part of its ARROW risk assessment. (2) In the light of the results of a firm's reverse stress tests, the FSA may require the firm to implement specific measures to prevent or mitigate the risk of business failure where that risk is not sufficiently mitigated by the measures adopted by the firm in accordance with SYSC 20.2.1 R, and the firm's potential failure