Related provisions for PERG 7.4.13

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FIT 1.3.2GRP
In assessing fitness and propriety, the FSA will also take account of the activities of the firm for which the controlled function is or is to be performed, the permission held by that firm and the markets within which it operates.
LR 9.7A.3GRP
The FSA may authorise the omission of information required by LR 9.7A.1 R or LR 9.7A.2 R if it considers that disclosure of such information would be contrary to the public interest or seriously detrimental to the listed company, provided that such omission would not be likely to mislead the public with regard to facts and circumstances, knowledge of which is essential for the assessment of the shares.1
SUP 12.2.2GRP
(1) A person must satisfy the conditions in section 39(1) of the Act to become an appointed representative. These are that:(a) the person must not be an authorised person, that is, he must not have permission under the Act to carry on any regulated activity in his own right (section 39(1) of the Act); (b) the person must have entered into a contract with an authorised person, referred to in the Act as the 'principal', which:(i) permits or requires him to carry on business of
SUP App 3.9.5GRP

3Table 2: MiFIDinvestment services and activities

Part II RAO Investments

Part III RAO Investments

A MiFIDinvestment services and activities

1.

Reception and transmission of orders in relation to one or more financial instruments

Article 252

Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

2.

Execution of orders on behalf of clients

Article 14, 21

A Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

3.

Dealing on own account

Article 14

Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

4.

Portfolio management

Article 37 (14, 21, 25 - see Note 1) 2

Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

5.

Investment advice

Article 53

Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

6.

Underwriting of financial instruments and/or placing of financial instruments on a firm commitment basis

Article 14, 21

Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

7.

Placing of financial instruments without a firm commitment basis

Article 21, 25

Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

8.

Operation of Multilateral Trading Facilities

Article 25D5 (see Note 2)

5

Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

Ancillary services

Part II RAO Activities

Part III RAO Investments

1.

Safekeeping and administration of financial instruments for the account of clients, including custodianship and related services such as cash/collateral management

Article 40, 45, 64

Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

2.

Granting credits or loans to an investor to allow him to carry out a transaction in one or more of the relevant instruments where the firm granting the credit or loan is involved

3.

Advice to undertakings on capital structure, industrial strategy and related matters and advice and services relating to mergers and the purchase of undertakings

Article 14, 21, 25, 53, 64

Article 76-80, 83-85, 89

4.

Foreign exchange services where these are connected with the provision of investment services

Article 14, 21, 25, 53, 64

Article 83-85, 89

5.

Investment research and financial analysis or other forms of general recommendation relating to transactions in financial instruments

Article 53, 64

Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

6.

Services related to underwriting

Article 25, 53, 64

Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

7.

Investment services and activities as well as ancillary services of the type included under Section A or B of Annex I related to the underlying of the derivatives included under Section C 5, 6, 7 and 10-where these are connected to the provision of investment or ancillary services.

Article 14, 21, 25, 25D,5 37, 53, 64

5

Article 83 and 84

Note 1. A firm may also carry on these other activities when it is managing investments.2

Note 2. A firm operating an MTF under article 25D5 does not need to have a permission covering other regulated activities, unless it performs other regulated activities in addition to operating an MTF.

5
SUP App 3.9.6GRP

Table 2A: UCITS Directive activities

Part II RAO Activities

Part III RAO Investments

1.

The management of UCITS in the form of unit trusts / common funds or of investment companies; this includes the function mentioned in Annex II of the UCITS Directive (see Note 2).

Articles 14, 21, 25, 37, 51, 53, 64

Articles 76-81, 83-85, 89

2.

Managing portfolios of investments, including those owned by pension funds, in accordance with mandates given by investors on a discretionary, client-by-client basis, where such portfolios include one or more of the instruments listed in Section C 3of Annex I 3to MiFID3.

33

Articles 14, 21, 25, 37, 53, 64

Articles 76-81, 83-85, 89

3.

Investment advice concerning one or more of the instruments listed in Section C3of Annex I 3to MiFID3.

3

Articles 53, 64

Articles 76-81, 83-85, 89

4.

Safekeeping and administration services in relation to units of collective investment undertakings.

Articles 40, 45, 64

Articles 76-81, 83-85, 89

Note 1. A UCITS management company can only exercise passport rights under the UCITS Directive (article 2(13)(h) of MiFID3). A UCITS management company can only be authorised to carry on the non-core services set out in rows (3) and (4) of Table 2A if it is also authorised to carry on the activity set out in row (2) of the table.

33

Note 2. The functions set out in Annex 2 to the UCITS Directive are:

1.

Investment management.

2.

Administration:

a.

legal and fund management accounting services;

b.

customer inquiries;

c.

valuation and pricing (including tax returns);

d.

regulatory compliance monitoring;

e.

maintenance of unit-holder register;

f.

distribution of income;

g.

unit issues and redemptions;

h.

contract settlements (including certificate dispatch);

i.

record keeping.

3.

Marketing.
SUP 15.3.11AGRP
6SUP 15.3.11 R (1)(e) relates to the standard requirement in the permission of those firms which fall outside MiFID because of the Treasury's implementation of Article 3 of MiFID. Guidance on how the Treasury has exercised the Article 3 exemption for the United Kingdom is given in Q48 and the following questions and answers in PERG 13.5 (Exemptions from MiFID).
SUP 15.3.23DRP
3The Society must immediately inform the FSA in writing if it becomes aware that any matter likely to be of material concern to the FSA may have arisen in relation to:(1) the regulated activities for which the Society has permission; or (2) underwriting agents; or (3) approved persons or individuals acting for or on behalf of underwriting agents.
SUP 18.4.9GRP
For an amalgamation the successor society, and for a transfer the transferee, may need to apply for permission, or to vary its permission, under Part IVof the Act. The FSA will need time before confirming a transferto consider whether any necessary permission or variation should be given. If the transferee is an EEA firm or a Swiss general insurance company, then confirmation will be needed from its Home State regulator that it meets the Home State's solvency margin requirements
SUP 18.4.26GRP
If authorisation or a Part IV permission is needed, the FSA will need to consider the application for authorisation or permission in the usual way. If the authorisation or permission is refused, confirmation cannot be given even if all the other criteria are met. As part of the regulatory objective to protect consumers, the FSA may consider whether an amalgamation is in the interests of members.
SUP 6.4.6GRP
(1) In addition to applying for cancellation of Part IV permission in accordance with SUP 6.4.5 D, a firm may discuss prospective cancellations with its usual supervisory contact at the FSA.4 Alternatively a firm can contact the Firms Contact Centre on 0845 606 9966.4(2) To contact the Cancellations Team: Cancellations4 Team:4(a) write to: Cancellations Team, The Financial ServicesAuthority, 25 The North Colonnade, Canary Wharf, London, E14 5HS; or(b) email cancellation.team@fsa.gov.uk(3)
SUP 6.4.18GRP
A firm which is applying for cancellation of Part IV permission and which is not otherwise authorised by, or under, the Act should, at the same time, comply with SUP 10.13.6 R and notify the FSA of persons ceasing to perform controlled functions. These forms should give the effective date of withdrawal, if known (see SUP 10 (Approved persons)).
SUP 13.3.2GRP
A UK firm other than a UK pure reinsurer9cannot establish a branch in another EEA State for the first time under an EEA right unless the conditions in paragraphs 19(2), (4) and (5) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act are satisfied. It is an offence for a UK firm which is not an authorised person to contravene this prohibition (paragraph 21 of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act). These conditions are that:(1) the UKfirm has given the FSA, in accordance with the FSArules (see SUP
SUP 13.3.6GRP
(1) If the FSA gives a consent notice, it will inform the UK firm in writing that it has done so.(2) The consent notice will contain, among other matters, the requisite details or, 8if the firm is passporting under the Insurance Directives, the relevant EEA details8 (see SUP 13 Annex 18) provided by the UK firm in its notice of intention8 (see SUP 13.5 (Notices of intention)).8888(3) 10Where a consent notice is given under the UCITS Directive, the FSA will at the same time: (a)
SUP 13.4.4GRP
8(1) If8 the UK firm'sEEA right derives from MiFID8, the Banking Consolidation Directive or the UCITS Directive, paragraph 20(3) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act requires the FSA to send a copy of the notice of intention8 to the Host State Regulator within one month8 of receipt.8A UK firm passporting under the Banking Consolidation Directive10 may start providing cross border services as soon as it satisfies the relevant conditions (see SUP 13.4.2 G).88888810(2) (a) If8 the
COLL 6.9.2GRP
(1) Regulation 15(8)(f) of the OEIC Regulations (Requirements for authorisation) requires independence between the depositary, the ICVC and the ICVC's directors, as does section 243(4) of the Act (Authorisation orders) for the trustee and manager of an AUT. COLL 6.9.3 G to COLL 6.9.5 G give FSA's view of the meaning of independence of these relationships. An ICVC, its directors and depositary or a manager and a trustee of an AUT are referred to as "relevant parties" in this guidance.(2)
COLL 6.9.11RRP
An ICVC must notify the FSA within 14 days of the occurrence of any of the following:(1) any amendment to the instrument of incorporation;(2) any change in the address of the head office of the ICVC;(3) any change of director;(4) any change of depositary;(5) in respect of any director or depositary, any change in the information mentioned in regulation 12(1)(b) or (c) of the OEIC Regulations (Applications for authorisation);(6) any change of the auditor of the ICVC;(7) any order
COND 2.5.2GRP
(1) Threshold condition 5 (Suitability), requires the firm to satisfy the FSA that it is 'fit and proper' to have Part IV permission having regard to all the circumstances, including its connections with other persons, the range and nature of its proposed (or current) regulated activities and the overall need to be satisfied that its affairs are and will be conducted soundly and prudently (see also PRIN and SYSC).(2) The FSA will also take into consideration anything that could
COND 2.5.6GRP
In determining whether a firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, threshold condition 5 in respect of conducting its business with integrity and in compliance with proper standards, the relevant matters, as referred to in COND 2.5.4 G (2), may include but are not limited to whether:(1) the firm has been open and co-operative in all its dealings with the FSA and any other regulatory body (see Principle 11 (Relations with regulators)) and is ready, willing and organised to comply
PERG 5.11.4GRP
The restrictions placed on the exclusions listed in PERG 5.11.3 G on 14 January 2005 have the following effects.(1) Unauthorised persons who:(a) introduce clients or customers to an independent financial adviser with a view to a transaction; or(b) deal as agent on behalf of their clients or customers with or though an authorised person; or(c) arrange for their clients or customers to enter into a transaction with or though an authorised person;will not be able to rely on articles
PERG 5.11.6GRP
(1) The removal of the exclusion for groups and joint enterprises in article 69 of the Regulated Activities Order (Groups and joint enterprises) may have implications for a company providing services for:(a) other members of its group; or(b) other participants in a joint enterprise of which it is a participant.(2) Such companies might typically provide risk or treasury management or administration services which may include regulated activities relating to a contract of insurance.
COLL 12.3.2GRP
(1) An EEA UCITS management company may be the manager of an AUT or the ACD of an ICVC, that is a UCITS scheme (see SUP 13A (Qualifying for authorisation under the Act)).(2) An EEA UCITS management company that acts as the manager of an AUT, or the ACD of an ICVC, that is a UCITS scheme may conduct its business from a branch in the United Kingdom or under the freedom to provide cross border services (without establishing a branch in the United Kingdom).(3) The Glossary definition
COLL 12.3.5RRP
An EEA UCITS management company that manages a UCITS scheme must comply with the rules of the Handbook which relate to the constitution and functioning of the UCITS scheme (the fund application rules), as follows:(1) the setting up and authorisation of the UCITS scheme (COLL 1 (Introduction), COLL 2 (Authorised fund applications), COLL 3 (Constitution), COLL 6.5 (Appointment and replacement of the authorised fund manager and the depositary), COLL 6.6 (Powers and duties of the
SUP 16.12.1GRP
1The effect of SUP 16.1.1 R is that this section applies to every firm carrying on business set out in column (1) of SUP 16.12.4 R except:(1) an incoming EEA firm2 with permission for cross border services only;(2) an oil market participant that is not subject to the requirements of IPRU(INV) Chapter 32;(3) an authorised professional firm (other than one that must comply with IPRU(INV) 3, 5 or 13 in accordance with IPRU(INV) 2.1.4R, where SUP 16.12.4 R will apply in respect
SUP 18.2.25GRP
(1) If the transferee is (or will be) an EEA firm (authorised in its Home State to carry on insurance business under the Insurance Directives) or a Swiss general insurance company, then the FSA has to consult the transferee's Home State regulator, who has 3 months to respond. It will be necessary for the FSA to obtain from the transferee's Home State regulator a certificate confirming that the transferee will meet the Home State's solvency margin requirements (if any) after the
SUP 18.2.27GRP
If the transferee is not (and will not be) authorised and will be neither an EEA firm nor a Swiss general insurance company, then the FSA will need to consult itsinsurance supervisor in the place where the business is to be transferred. The FSA will need confirmation from this supervisor that the transferee will meet his solvency margin requirements there (if any) after the transfer.