Related provisions for MCOB 5.6.85

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ICOBS 3.2.8RRP
The requirements relating to the placing and receipt of orders do not apply to contracts concluded exclusively by exchange of e-mail or by equivalent individual communications.[Note: article 10(4) and 11(3) of the E-Commerce Directive]
LR 9.2.19GRP
LR 9.2.18 R does not apply to:(1) pro forma financial information prepared in accordance with Annex 1 and Annex 2 of the PD Regulation; or(2) any preliminary statements of annual results or half-yearly or quarterly reports that are reproduced with the unaudited financial information.
SUP 16.8.2GRP
1The purpose of this section is to enable information on the persistency of life policies and data on stakeholder pensions to be prepared and provided to the FSA in a standard format. This information is used in the monitoring of firms both individually and collectively.
BIPRU 9.11.7GRP
(1) This provision contains guidance on the requirement in BIPRU 9.11.6 R (1) that the composition of the pool of exposuressecuritised must be known at all times.(2) The composition should be known sufficiently at the time of purchase for the firm to be able accurately to calculate the risk weighted exposure amounts of the pool under the standardised approach.(3) Thereafter, any change to the composition of the pool during the life of the transaction that would lead to an increase
COLL 8.2.6RRP

This table belongs to COLL 8.2.5 R

1

Description of the authorised fund

Information detailing:

(1)

the name of the authorised fund;

(2)

that the authorised fund is a qualified investor scheme; and

(3)

in the case of an ICVC, whether the head office of the company is situated in England and Wales or Wales or Scotland or Northern Ireland.

3Property Authorised Investment Funds

1A

For a property authorised investment fund, a statement that:

(1)

it is a property authorised investment fund;

(2)

no body corporate may seek to obtain or intentionally maintain a holding of more that 10% of the net asset value of the fund; and

(3)

in the event that the authorised fund manager reasonably considers that a body corporate holds more than 10% of the net asset value of the fund, the authorised fund manager is entitled to delay any redemption or cancellation of units in accordance with 6A if the authorised fund manager reasonably considers such action to be:

(a)

necessary in order to enable an orderly reduction of the holding to below 10%; and

(b)

in the interests of the unitholders as a whole.

2

Constitution

The following statements:

(1)

the scheme property of the scheme is entrusted to a depositary for safekeeping (subject to any exception permitted by the rules);

(2)

if relevant, the duration of the scheme is limited and, if so, for how long;

(3)

charges and expenses of the scheme may be taken out of scheme property;

(4)

for an ICVC:

(a)

what the maximum and minimum sizes of the scheme's capital are; and

(b)

the unitholders are not liable for the debts of the company; and

(5)

for an AUT:

(a)

the trust deed:

(i)

is made under and governed by the law of England and Wales, or the law of Scotland or the law of Northern Ireland;

(ii)

is binding on each unitholder as if he had been a party to it and that he is bound by its provisions; and

(iii)

authorises and requires the trustee and the manager to do the things required or permitted of them by its terms;

(b)

subject to the provisions of the trust deed and all the rules made under section 247 of the Act (Trust scheme rules):

(i)

the scheme (other than sums held to the credit of the distribution account) is held by the trustee on trust for the unitholders according to the number of units held by each unitholder or, where relevant, according to the number of individual shares in the scheme property represented by the units held by each unitholder; and

(ii)

the sums standing to the credit of any distribution account are held by the trustee on trust to distribute or apply in accordance with COLL 8.5.15 R (Income);

(c)

a Unitholder is not liable to make any further payment after he has paid the price of his units and that no further liability can be imposed on him in respect of the units he holds; and

(d)

payments to the trustee by way of remuneration are authorised to be paid (in whole or in part) out of the scheme property.

3

Investment objectives

A statement of the object of the scheme, in particular the types of investments and assets in which it and each sub-fund (where applicable) may invest and that the object of the scheme is to invest in property of that kind with the aim of spreading investment risk.

4

Units in the scheme

A statement of:

(1)

the classes of units which the scheme may issue, indicating, for a scheme which is an umbrella, which class or classes may be issued in respect of each sub-fund; and

(2)

the rights attaching to units of each class (including any provisions for the expression in two denominations of such rights).

5

Limitation on issue of and redemption of units

Details as to:

(1)

the provisions relating to any restrictions on the right to redeem units in any class; and

(2)

the circumstances in which the issue of the units of any particular class may be limited.

6

Income and distribution

Details of the person responsible for the calculation, transfer, allocation and distribution of income for any class of unit in issue during the accounting period.

3Redemption or cancellation of units on breach of law or rules

6A

A statement that where any holding of units by a unitholder is (or is reasonably considered by the authorised fund manager to be) an infringement of any law, governmental regulation or rule, those units must be redeemed or cancelled.

7

Base currency

A statement of the base currency of the scheme.

8

Meetings

Details of the procedures for the convening of meetings and the procedures relating to resolutions, voting and the voting rights for unitholders.

9

Powers and duties of the authorised fund manager and depositary

Where relevant, details of any function to be undertaken by the authorised fund manager and depositary which the rules in COLL require to be stated in the instrument constituting the scheme.

10

Termination and suspension

Details of:

(1)

the grounds under which the authorised fund manager may initiate a suspension of the scheme and any associated procedures; and

(2)

the methodology for determining the rights of unitholders to participate in the scheme property on winding up.

110A

Investment in overseas2 property through an intermediate holding vehicle1

If investment in an overseas2 immovable is to be made through an intermediate holding vehicle or a series of intermediate holding vehicles, a statement that the purpose of that intermediate holding vehicle or series of intermediate holding vehicles will be to enable the holding of overseas2 immovables by the scheme.1

11

Other relevant matters

Details of those matters which enable the scheme, authorised fund manager or depositary to obtain any privilege or power conferred by the rules in COLL which is not otherwise provided for in the instrument constituting the scheme.
SUP 6.4.5DRP
(1) A firm other than a credit union wishing to cancel its Part IV permission, must apply online at www.fsa.gov.uk using the form specified on the FSA's ONA system.99(2) A credit union wishing to cancel its Part IV permission must apply using the form in SUP 6 Annex 6D and submit its application in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification). The application must be addressed for the attention of the Cancellations Team at the FSA.99(a) [deleted]949(b)
MCOB 5.5.16RRP
Where MCOB 5.5.15 R(4) applies:(1) a firm must ask the customer relevant questions about his credit history or obtain information on his credit record from a credit reference agency;(2) a credit reference agency must not be used unless:(a) it would be quicker than asking the customer the relevant questions about his credit history; or(b) the customer is not able to provide sufficient information on his credit history.
LR 8.6.4GRP
When considering an application for approval as a sponsor the FSA may:(1) carry out any enquiries and request any further information which it considers appropriate, including consulting other regulators;(2) request that the applicant or its specified representative answer questions and explain any matter the FSA considers relevant to the application;(3) take into account any information which it considers appropriate in relation to the application.22(4) [deleted]22[Note: The
SUP 17.4.4GRP
11The requirement to keep information at the disposal of the FSA means that a firm should maintain that information in such a form that it can readily be gathered and transmitted to the FSA upon request. Where more than one firm has given effect to a transaction, each firm should be considered to have carried out the transaction for the purposes of SUP 17.4.3 R and should keep the records, even where only one firm makes a transaction report as contemplated in this Chapter.
SYSC 5.1.8GRP
The effective segregation of duties is an important element in the internal controls of a firm in the prudential context. In particular, it helps to ensure that no one individual is completely free to commit a firm's assets or incur liabilities on its behalf. Segregation can also help to ensure that a firm'sgoverning body receives objective and accurate information on financial performance, the risks faced by the firm and the adequacy of its systems.
MCOB 5.9.1CRRP
2A firm must ensure that the SRB agreement seller realises that there are other possible sources of information on the appropriate rental value for the property available to him, including local estate agents, local newspapers and on-line sites which carry advertisements for the rental of residential property in the customer's locality.
SYSC 12.1.10RRP
The internal control mechanisms referred to in SYSC 12.1.8 R must include:(1) mechanisms that are adequate for the purpose of producing any data and information which would be relevant for the purpose of monitoring compliance with any prudential requirements (including any reporting requirements and any requirements relating to capital adequacy, solvency, systems and controls and large exposures):(a) to which the firm is subject with respect to its membership of a group; or(b)
TC App 5.1.1GRP

1Introduction

1.

TC Appendix 4E contains a list of appropriate qualifications for the purposes of TC 2.1.10 E.

2.

This Appendix sets out:

(1)

the criteria which the FSA may take into account when assessing a qualification provider; and

(2)

the information the FSA will expect the qualification provider to provide if it asks the FSA to add a qualification to the list of appropriate qualifications in TC Appendix 4 E.

Criteria for assessing a qualification provider

3.

The FSA will expect the qualification provider of an appropriate qualification to have, in the FSA's opinion:

(1)

assessors and qualification developers who are trained and qualified;

(2)

valid, reliable and robust assessment methods;

(3)

robust governance and a clear separation of function between its qualification services and any other services it performs, including effective procedures for managing any conflicts of interest;

(4)

procedures for reviewing and refreshing its syllabus and question banks to ensure that they are relevant and up to date;

(5)

robust and credible procedures for assessing a candidate's demonstration of the learning outcomes specified in the relevant examination standards;

(6)

robust arrangements for contingency and business continuity planning in relation to its qualification services;

(7)

appropriate records management procedures in relation to its qualification services;

(8)

procedures for dealing with inappropriate conduct by candidates, for example, attempting to obtain or obtaining qualifications dishonestly;

(9)

robust procedures for the setting of assessments and marking of results; and

(10)

adequate resources in order to be financially viable.

Information about the qualification to be provided to the FSA

4.

If a qualification provider asks the FSA to add a qualification to the list of appropriate qualifications in TC Appendix 4 E, the FSA will expect the qualification provider to:

(1)

where relevant, specify the qualifications framework within which the qualification is placed;

(2)

specify the activity in TC Appendix 1 to which the qualification relates;

(3)

set out the recommended prior knowledge, attainment or experience for candidates;

(4)

where relevant, set out the exemption policy for a candidate's prior learning or achievement;

(5)

provide the relevant learning materials to the FSA together with an explanation of how those learning materials correspond to the content of the most recent examination standards. Any content of the examination standards which has been excluded from the learning materials must be justified;

(6)

where applicable, explain how grading is applied;

(7)

where applicable, explain the provider's rules of combination;

(8)

provide details of expected learning hours or any other similar arrangements;

(9)

where applicable, specify the level of the overall qualification with reference to the relevant qualification framework or, if there is no relevant qualification framework, the European Qualifications Framework and the percentage of the qualification at that level, as well as the percentages and the levels for the remainder of the qualification;

(10)

provide details of any credit for prior learning included in the qualification together with an explanation of how it meets the most recent examination standards; and

(11)

provide an explanation of how the qualification compares in quality and standard to other similar qualifications.

Information about the qualification provider to be provided to the FSA

5.

When considering whether to include or retain a qualification in the list of appropriate qualifications, the FSA may consider, where relevant:

(1)

whether the qualification provider has in place suitable arrangements for:

(a)

meeting its statutory duties in relation to equality and diversity; and

(b)

reducing barriers to learning, for example, for candidates with learning difficulties;

(2)

any concerns, issues or investigations which have been raised by the qualification provider's qualifications regulator;

(3)

the annual pass rates of each of the relevant qualifications;

(4)

the quality of the service the qualification provider provides to candidates in relation to qualifications and its complaints procedures;

(5)

how the qualification provider maintains its qualifications to ensure they remain comparable to other qualifications in the same sector; and

(6)

whether the qualification provider gives candidates reasonable notice of any syllabus change, change in method of assessment or pass standards;

(7)

information supporting the criteria in TC Appendix 5G paragraph 3.
ICOBS 4.2.2GRP
In considering a customer's information needs for the purposes of Principle 7, a firm should have regard to the importance of information for a customer's purchasing decision when deciding when and how to give it.
ICOBS 5.2.2RRP
(1) Prior to the conclusion of a contract, a firm must specify, in particular on the basis of information provided by the customer, the demands and the needs of that customer as well as the underlying reasons for any advice given to the customer on that policy.(2) The details must be modulated according to the complexity of the policy proposed.[Note: article 12(3) of the Insurance Mediation Directive]
MAR 1.10.5CRP

1Table: Provisions of the Takeover Code conformity with which will not, of itself, amount to market abuse (This table belongs to MAR 1.10.4C):1

Takeover Code provisions:

Disclosure of information which is not generally available

1(a)

2.1 plus notes, 2.5, 2.6, 2.9 plus notes

8

19.7

20.1, 20.2, 20.3

28.4

37.3(b) and 37.4(a)

Standards of care

2.8 first sentence and note 4

19.1, 19.5 second sentence and note 2, 19.8

23 plus notes

28.1

Timing of announcements, documentation and dealings

2.2, 2.4(b)

5.4

6.2(b)

7.1

11.1 note 6 only

17.1

21.2

30

31.6(c), 31.9

33 (in so far as it refers 31.6(c) and 31.9 only)

38.5

Content of announcements

2.4 (a) and (b)

19.31
SUP 5.3.9GRP
In having regard to the cost implications of using the section 166 power (Reports by skilled persons) alternative options (such as visits) or other powers, the FSA will take into account relevant factors, including:(1) whether the firm may derive some benefit from the work carried out and recommendations made by the skilled person, for instance a better understanding of its business and its risk profile, or the operation of its information systems, or improvements to its systems
DEPP 3.2.26GRP
FSA staff responsible for recommending action to the RDC will continue to assess the appropriateness of the proposed action in the light of new information or representations they receive and any material change in the facts or circumstances relating to a particular matter. It may be therefore that they decide to give a notice of discontinuance to a person to whom a warning notice or decision notice has been given. The decision to give a notice of discontinuance does not require
FEES 7.2.9RRP

Table of rules in FEES 4that also apply to FEES 7

FEES 4 rules incorporated into FEES 7

Description

FEES 4.2.4 R

Method of payment

FEES 4.2.7B R

Calculation of periodic fee and tariff base for a firm's second financial year

FEES 4.2.8 R

How FEES 4.2.7 R applies in relation to an incoming EEA firm or an incoming Treaty firm

FEES 4.2.10 R

Extension of time

FEES 4.2.11 R (first entry only)

Due date and changes in permission for periodic fees

FEES 4.3.7 R

Groups of firms

FEES 4.3.13 R

Firms applying to cancel or vary permission before start of period

FEES 4.3.15 R

Firms acquiring businesses from other firms

FEES 4.4.1 R to FEES 4.4.6 R

Information on which fees are calculated