Related provisions for SUP App 3.3.8
141 - 160 of 249 items.
If a firm makes an offer to a consumer2 with a view to entering into a regulated mortgage contract a which is a distance contract, it must provide the consumer2 with the following information with the offer document:22(1) the EEA State or States whose laws are taken by the firm as a basis for the establishment of relations with the customer prior to the conclusion of the regulated mortgage contract;(2) any contractual clause on law applicable to the regulated mortgage contract
(1) The information-sharing agreement referred to in COLL 11.5.1 R must include:(a) identification of the documents and categories of information which are to be routinely shared between both auditors;(b) whether the information or documents referred to in (a) are to be provided by one auditor to the other or made available on request;(c) the manner and timing, including any applicable deadlines, of the transmission of information by the auditor of the master UCITS to the auditor
The purpose of the guidance (other than in REC 6A) 2in this sourcebook is to give information on the recognition requirements, other obligations on recognised bodies in or under the Act and the MiFID implementing requirements. The purpose of the guidance in REC 6A is to give EEA market operators information about their passporting rights in the United Kingdom2. Explanations of the purposes of the rules in this sourcebook are given in the chapters concerned.22
Section 418 of the Act (Carrying on regulated activities in the United Kingdom) takes this one step further. It extends the meaning that 'in the United Kingdom' would ordinarily have by setting out five additional cases. The Act states that, in these five cases, a person who is carrying on a regulated activity but who would not otherwise be regarded as carrying on the activity in the United Kingdom is, for the purposes of the Act, to be regarded as carrying on the activity in
7(1) A firm may provide a document, or the information required to be provided by the rules in this section, in a durable medium immediately after the conclusion of a distance contract, if the contract has been concluded at a client's request using a means of distance communication that does not enable the document or information to be provided in that form in good time before the client is bound by the contract.7(2) The exception in (1) does not apply in relation to the provision
(1) 12A tied agent is a person who acts for and under the responsibility of a MiFID investment firm (or a third country investment firm) in respect of MiFID business (or the equivalent business of the third country investment firm). Most tied agents appointed by firms are also appointed representatives.(2) Unless otherwise provided, this chapter applies to a firm that appoints a tied agent that is an appointed representative in the same way as it applies to the appointment of
The general eligibility criteria for using the methods in BIPRU 7.7.4R and BIPRU 7.7.9R - BIPRU 7.7.11R, for CIUs issued by companies supervised or incorporated within the EEA are that:(1) the CIU's prospectus or equivalent document must include:(a) the categories of assets the CIU is authorised to invest in;(b) if investment limits apply, the relative limits and the methodologies to calculate them;(c) if leverage is allowed, the maximum level of leverage; and(d) if investment
(1) A firm should:(a) before using
the services of the intermediary, check:(i) the FSA Register; or(ii) in relation
to insurance mediation carried
on by an EEA firm, the register
of its Home State regulator;for the status of the person; and(b) use the services
of that person only if the relevant register indicates that the person is
registered for that purpose.(2) (a) Checking the FSA Register before using the services of the
intermediary and using the services of that person
The exemptions apply so as to confer exemption on persons from the general prohibition in respect of four distinct categories of regulated activities.(1) The first category is carrying on any regulated activity, apart from effecting or carrying out contracts of insurance (or agreeing to do so). Exempt persons here are generally supranational bodies of which the United Kingdom or another EEA State is a member.(2) The second category is the regulated activity of accepting deposits.
An applicant must submit, in final form, to the FSA by midday two business days before the FSA is to consider the application:1(1) a completed Application for Admission of Securities to the Official List;(2) either:(a) the prospectus, or listing particulars that has been approved by the FSA; or(b) a copy of the prospectus, a certificate of approval and (if applicable) a translation of the summary of the prospectus, if another EEA State is the home Member State for the securities;1(3)
DTR 7.1 does not apply to:(1) any issuer which
is a subsidiary undertaking of
a parent undertaking where the parent undertaking is subject to DTR 7.1, or
to requirements implementing Article 41 of the Audit
Directive in any other EEA State;[Note: Article 41.6(a) of the Audit Directive](2) any issuer the sole
business of which is to act as the issuer of asset-backed
securities provided the entity makes a statement available to
the public setting out the reasons for which it considers
- (1)
Before a pure protection contract is concluded, a firm must inform a customer of the information in the table below.
- (2)
The information must be communicated in a clear and accurate manner, in writing, and in an official language of the State of the commitment or in another language agreed by the parties.
Information to be communicated before conclusion |
|
(1) |
The name of the insurance undertaking and its legal form. |
(2) |
The name of the EEA State in which the head office and, where appropriate, the agency or branch concluding the contract is situated. |
(3) |
The address of the head office and, where appropriate, of the agency or branch concluding the contract. |
(4)* |
Definition of each benefit and each option. |
(5)* |
Term of the contract. |
(6)* |
Means of terminating the contract. |
(7)* |
Means of payment of premiums and duration of payments. |
(8)* |
Information on the premiums for each benefit, both main benefits and supplementary benefits, where appropriate. |
(9) |
Arrangements for application of the cancellation period. |
(10) |
General information on the tax arrangements applicable to the type of policy. |
(11) |
The arrangements for handling complaints concerning contracts by policyholders, lives assured or beneficiaries under contracts including, where appropriate, the existence of a complaints body (usually the Financial Ombudsman Service), without prejudice to the right to take legal proceedings. |
(12) |
The law applicable to the contract where the parties do not have a free choice or, where the parties are free to choose the law applicable, the law the insurance undertaking proposes to choose. |
Note: The rule on mid-term changes applies to items marked with an asterisk (see ICOBS 6.3.3 R). |
|
[Note: Annex III(A) to the Consolidated Life Directive]
(1) 1PR 2, PR 3, PR 4.2, PR 5.1, PR 5.3.1 UK to PR 5.3.3 G and PR 5.5 only apply (subject to paragraph (2)) in relation to:(a) an offer, or a request for admission to trading of transferable securities, in respect of which section 85 of the Act applies (other than an exempt offer under section 86 of the Act) and in relation to which the United Kingdom is the Home State;(b) an offer, or a request for admission to trading of transferable securities, where under section 87 of the
(1) 8A tied agent that is an appointed representative may not start to act as a tied agent until it is included on the applicable register (section 39(1A) of the Act). If the tied agent is established in the UK, the register maintained by the FSA is the applicable register for these purposes. If the tied agent is established in another EEA State, it should consult section 39(1B) of the Act to determine the applicable register.(2) A UK MiFID investment firm that appoints an FSA
Undertakings whose registered office is in a third country which would have required authorisation in accordance with Article 6 (1)3 of the UCITS directive or with regard to portfolio management under point 4 of section A of Annex 1 to MiFID if it had its registered office or, only in the case of an investment firm, its head office within the EEA,2 shall be exempted from aggregating holdings with the holdings of its parent undertaking under this rule provided3 that they comply
Where communications by persons in another EEA State are made to or directed at persons in the United Kingdom account must be taken of the effect of any relevant EU Directives. For example, the E-Commerce Directive will, with limited exceptions, prevent the United Kingdom from imposing restrictions on incoming financial promotions in information society services. The Treasury has given effect to this through the Financial Promotion Order (see1PERG 8.12.38 G). Other potentially
(1) 13A firm must not assess an employee as competent to carry on an activity in TC Appendix 1 until the employee has demonstrated the necessary competence to do so and has (if required by TC Appendix 1) attained 16each module of an appropriate qualification16. This assessment need not take place before the employee starts to carry on the activity.14161613(2) A firm may assess an employee who is subject to, but has not satisfied, an appropriate qualification16requirement as competent