Related provisions for SUP 11.4.1
161 - 180 of 246 items.
If a listed company enters into a related party transaction, the listed company must:(1) make a notification in accordance with LR 10.4.1 R (Notification of class 2 transactions) that contains the details required by that rule and also:(a) the name of the related party; and(b) details of the nature and extent of the related party's interest in the transaction or arrangement;(2) send a circular to its shareholders containing the information required by LR 13.3 and LR 13.6;(3) obtain
(1) A person who is required to make a notification may, without affecting their responsibility, appoint another person to make the notification on his behalf.(2) Where two or more persons are required to make a notification such persons may, without affecting their responsibility, arrange for a single notification to be made.[Note: article 8(3) of the TD implementing Directive.]
(1) As part of its obligations under GENPRU 1.2.30 R (Processes, strategies and systems for risks) and GENPRU 1.2.36 R (Stress and scenario tests) a firm must carry out an evaluation of its exposure to the interest rate risk arising from its non-trading activities.(2) The evaluation under (1) must cover the effect of a sudden and unexpected parallel change in interest rates of 200 basis points in both directions.(3) A firm must immediately notify the FSA if any evaluation under
(1) An authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme that has been approved by the
FSA
to operate as a feeder UCITS, including as a feeder UCITS of a different master UCITS, must provide the following information to its unitholders at least 30 calendar days before the date when the feeder UCITS is to start to invest in units of the master UCITS or, if it has already invested in them, the date when its investment will exceed the limit applicable under COLL 5.2.11R (9) (Spread: general):(a)
(1) An issuer of securities represented by listedcertificates representing certain securities must notify a RIS of any change of depositary.(2) The notification required by paragraph (1) must be made as soon as possible, and in any event by 7.30 a.m. on the business day following the change of depositary, and contain the following information:(a) the name, registered office and principal administrative establishment if different from the registered office of the depositary;(b)
(1) This section deals with the circumstances and manner in which an AUT is to be wound up or a sub-fund of an AUT is to be terminated. Under section 256 of the Act (Requests for revocation of authorisation order), the manager or trustee of an AUT may request the FSA to revoke the authorisation order in respect of that AUT. Section 257 of the Act (Directions) gives the FSA the power to make certain directions.(2) The termination of a sub-fund under this section will be subject
(1) Under the Gibraltar Order2 made under section 409 of the Act, a Gibraltar firm is treated as an EEA firm under Schedule 3 to the Act if it is:22(a) authorised in Gibraltar under the Insurance Directives; or(aA) authorised in Gibraltar under the Reinsurance Directive; or6(b) authorised in Gibraltar under the Banking Consolidation Directive; or22(c) authorised in Gibraltar under the Insurance Mediation Directive; or2(d) authorised in Gibraltar under the MiFID4.24(1A) Similarly,
If the CAD 1 model ceases to meet the requirements of the waiver, the firm should notify the FSA at once. The FSA may then revoke the waiver unless it is varied in accordance with section 148 of the Act. If the CAD 1 model waiver contains conditions it is a condition of using the CAD 1 model approach that the firm should continue to comply with those conditions.
A firm applying for a waiver from one or more of the disclosure requirements in BIPRU 11.2.2 R - BIPRU 11.2.5 R will need to:(1) satisfy the FSA that it is included within comparable disclosures provided on a consolidated basis by a parent undertaking whose head office is not in an EEA State; and(2) notify the FSA of the location where the comparable disclosures are provided.
A firm which is applying for cancellation of Part IV permission and which is not otherwise authorised by, or under, the Act should, at the same time, comply with SUP 10.13.6 R and notify the FSA of persons ceasing to perform controlled functions. These forms should give the effective date of withdrawal, if known (see SUP 10 (Approved persons)).
(1) If any emergency arises which:(a) makes it impracticable for a person to comply with a particular rule in the Handbook; (b) could not have been avoided by the person taking all reasonable steps; and(c) is outside the control of the person, its associates and agents (and of its and their employees);the person will not be in contravention of that rule to the extent that, in consequence of the emergency, compliance with that rule is impracticable. (2) Paragraph (1) applies only