Related provisions for PERG 9.7.1
- (1)
The main provision within the definition of alternative debenture arrangements that seeks to ensure that only instruments that display the characteristics of a debt security can be alternative debentures is set out at PERG 2.6.11CG (5). It provides that the amount of additional payments under the arrangements must not exceed an amount which would, at the time the bond is issued, be a reasonable commercial return on a loan of capital. Where the return is not fixed at the outset, it is the maximum possible amount of the additional payments that must be considered in deciding this question. The following example demonstrates how this condition should be approached.
- additional payments under the arrangements would exceed a reasonable commercial return on a loan of the capital.
Further, where the return is not fixed at the outset, it is the maximum possible amount of the additional payments that must be considered. Here, the issue terms of the sukuk impose no upper limit on the amount of the periodic distributions: a sakk holder subscribing 1,000 may, in a year, get back 200 or 2,000 or nothing depending on the rental market. The maximum potential return is clearly in excess of a reasonable commercial return on a loan of 1,000; and
- the arrangements have not been admitted to an official list or admitted to trading on a regulated market or recognised investment exchange (see PERG 2.6.11CG (6)).
- (2)
If, in the above example, investors returns were capped at 500 per sakk per year, then this is the amount that must be considered in deciding whether the return exceeds a reasonable commercial return on a loan, even where the amounts actually received turn out to be far lower.
- (3)
In applying the reasonable commercial return test, the sakk should be compared to a hypothetical loan to the issuer on similar terms and carrying similar risks. For example, a conventional security convertible into shares will normally carry a lower rate of interest because the conversion right has a value. The return on an exchangeable or convertible sakk should be measured against the return on an equivalent exchangeable or convertible debt security.
- (4)
The risk to investors in sukuk may vary slightly from that of a conventional bond in some instances. This may be due to the fact that sukuk holders only have recourse to the bond assets or some other structural feature which results in the risk profile being higher. In such instances it may be justifiable for the rate of return to be slightly higher than that of a conventional loan.
- (5)
As with any financial instrument, the pricing of sukuk will depend on the issuers view of the market at the time of issue and reasonable commercial return may vary depending on the issuer and the economic circumstances prevalent at the time of issue.
Example ABC Ltd is a property development company. It wishes to increase its portfolio on a short-term basis. It issues 5-year sukuk to investors and uses the proceeds to buy the head lease of a commercial property. The rental income from the lease is distributed to investors in proportion to their holdings without a cap on the level of return. After 5 years, the head lease is sold on at a profit and the proceeds shared between investors. In this example, the investors participate directly in the success or failure of the underlying property business. The sakk is not really in the nature of a debt instrument. It is unlikely to be an alternative debenture as: |
Table There are some frequently asked questions about the application of the definition of an open-ended investment company in the following table. This table belongs to PERG 9.2.4 G (Introduction).
Question |
Answer |
|
1 |
Can a body corporate be both open-ended and closed-ended at the same time? |
In the FSA's view, the answer to this question is 'no'. The fact that the investment condition is applied to BC (rather than to particular shares in, or securities of, BC) means that a body corporate is either an open-ended investment company as defined in section 236 of the Act or it is not. Where BC is an open-ended investment company, all of its securities would be treated as units of a collective investment scheme for the purpose of the Act. A body corporate formed in another jurisdiction may, however, be regarded as open-ended under the laws of that jurisdiction but not come within the definition of an open-ended investment company in section 236 (and vice versa). |
2 |
Can an open-ended investment company become closed-ended (or a closed-ended body become open-ended)? |
In the FSA's view, the answer to this question is 'yes'. A body corporate may change from open-ended to closed-ended (and vice versa) if, taking an overall view, circumstances change so that a hypothetical reasonable investor would consider that the investment condition is no longer met (or vice versa). This might happen where, for example, an open-ended investment company stops its policy of redeeming shares or securities at regular intervals (so removing the expectation that a reasonable investor would be able to realise his investment within a period appearing to him to be reasonable). See also PERG 9.7.5 G. |
3 |
Does the liquidation of a body corporate affect the assessment of whether or not the body is an open-ended investment company? |
The FSA considers that the possibility that a body corporate that would otherwise be regarded as closed-ended may be wound up has no effect at all on the nature of the body corporate before the winding up. The fact that, on a winding up, the shares or securities of any investor in the body corporate may be converted into cash or money on the winding up (and so 'realised') would not, in the FSA's view, affect the outcome of applying the expectation test to the body corporate when looked at as a whole. The answer to Question 4 explains that investment in a closed-ended fixed term company shortly before its winding up does not, in the FSA's view, change the closed-ended nature of the company. For companies with no fixed term, the theoretical possibility of a winding up at some uncertain future point is not, in the FSA's view, a matter that would generally carry weight with a reasonable investor in assessing whether he could expect to be able to realise his investment within a reasonable period. |
4 |
Does a fixed term closed-ended investment company become an open-ended investment company simply because the fixed term will expire? |
In the FSA's view, the answer to this is 'no'. The termination of the body corporate is an event that has always been contemplated (and it will appear in the company's constitution). Even as the date of the expiry of the fixed term approaches, there is nothing about the body corporate itself that changes so as to cause a fundamental reassessment of its nature as something other than closed-ended. Addressing this very point in parliamentary debate, the Economic Secretary to the Treasury stated that the "aim and effect [of the definition] is to cover companies that look, to a reasonable investor, like open-ended investment companies". The Minister added that "A reasonable investor's overall expectations of potential investment in a company when its status with respect to the definition is being judged will determine whether it meets the definition. The matter is therefore, definitional rather than one of proximity to liquidation". (Hansard HC, 5 June 2000 col 124). |
5 |
In what circumstances will a body corporate that issues a mixture of redeemable and non-redeemable shares or securities be an open-ended investment company? |
In the FSA's view, the existence of non-redeemable shares or securities will not, of itself, rule out the possibility of a body corporate falling within the definition of an open-ended investment company. All the relevant circumstances will need to be considered (see PERG 9.6.4 G, PERG 9.2.8.8G and PERG 9.8.9 G). So the following points need to be taken into account.
|
6 |
Does "realised on a basis calculated wholly or mainly by reference to..." in section 236(3)(b) apply to an investor buying investment trust company shares traded on a recognised investment exchange because of usual market practice that the shares trade at a discount to asset value? |
In the FSA's view, the answer is 'no' (for the reasons set out in PERG 9.9.4 G to PERG 9.9.6 G). |
7 |
Does the practice of UK investment trust companies buying back shares result in them becoming open-ended investment companies? |
In the FSA's view, it does not, because its actions will comply with company law: see section 236(4) of the Act and PERG 9.6.5 G. |
8 |
Would a body corporate holding out redemption or repurchase of its shares or securities every six months be an open-ended investment company? |
In the FSA's view a period of six months would generally be too long to be a reasonable period for a liquid securities fund. A shorter period affording more scope for an investor to take advantage of any profits caused by fluctuations in the market would be more likely to be a reasonable period for the purpose of the realisation of the investment (in the context of the 'expectation' test, see PERG 9.8 and, in particular, PERG 9.8.9 G which sets out the kind of factors that may need to be considered in applying the test). |
9 |
Would an initial period during which it is not possible to realise investment in a body corporate mean that the body corporate could not satisfy the investment condition? |
In the FSA's view, the answer to that question is 'no'. In applying the investment condition, the body corporate must be considered as a whole (see PERG 9.6.3 G). At the time that the shares or securities in a body corporate are issued, a reasonable investor may expect that he will be able to realise his investment within a reasonable period notwithstanding that there will first be a short-term delay before he can do so. Whether or not the 'expectation test' is satisfied will depend on all the circumstances (see PERG 9.8.9 G). |
Location of recognition requirements and guidance
Recognition Requirements Regulations |
Subject |
Section in REC 2 |
Regulation 6 |
Method of satisfying recognition requirements |
2.2 |
Part I of the Schedule |
UK RIE recognition requirements |
|
Paragraph 1 |
Financial resources |
2.3 |
Paragraph 2 |
Suitability |
2.4 |
Paragraph 3 |
Systems and controls |
2.5 |
Paragraphs 4(1) and 4(2)(aa)2 2 |
General safeguards for investors |
2.6 |
Paragraph 4(2)(a) |
Access to facilities |
2.7 |
Paragraph 4(2)(b) |
Proper markets |
2.12 |
Paragraph 4(2)(c) |
Availability of relevant information |
2.12 |
Paragraph 4(2)(d) |
Settlement |
2.8 |
Paragraph 4(2)(e) |
Transaction recording |
2.9 |
2Paragraph 4(2)(ea) |
Conflicts |
2.5 |
Paragraph 4(2)(f) |
Financial crime and market abuse |
2.10 |
Paragraph 4(2)(g) |
Custody |
2.11 |
Paragraph 4(3) |
Definition of relevant information |
2.12 |
2Paragraph 4A |
Provision of pre-trade information about share trading |
2.6 |
2Paragraph 4B |
Provision of post-trade information about share trading |
2.6 |
Paragraph 6 |
Promotion and maintenance of standards |
2.13 |
Paragraph 7 |
Rules and consultation |
2.14 |
2Paragraph 7A |
Admission of financial instruments to trading |
2.12 |
2Paragraph 7B and 7C |
Access to facilities |
2.7 |
2Paragraph 7D |
Settlement |
2.8 |
2Paragraph 7E |
Suspension and removal of financial instruments from trading |
2.6 |
Paragraph 8 |
Discipline |
2.15 |
Paragraph 9 |
Complaints |
2.16 |
2Paragraph 9A |
Operation of a multilateral trading facility |
2.16A |
Part II of the Schedule |
UK RIE default rules in respect of market contracts |
2.17 |
Part III of the Schedule |
UK RCH recognition requirements |
|
Paragraph 16 |
Financial resources |
2.3 |
Paragraph 17 |
Suitability |
2.4 |
Paragraph 18 |
Systems and controls |
2.5 |
Paragraph 19(1) |
General safeguards for investors |
2.6 |
Paragraph 19(2)(a) |
Access to facilities |
2.7 |
Paragraph 19(2)(b) |
Clearing services |
2.8 |
Paragraph 19(2)(c) |
Transactions recording |
2.9 |
Paragraph 19(2)(d) |
Financial crime and market abuse |
2.10 |
Paragraph 19(2)(e) |
Custody |
2.11 |
Paragraph 20 |
Promotion and maintenance of standards |
2.13 |
Paragraph 21 |
Rules |
2.14 |
Paragraph 22 |
Discipline |
2.15 |
Paragraph 23 |
Complaints |
2.16 |
Part IV of the Schedule |
UK RCH default rules in respect of market contracts |
2.17 |
This table belongs to COLL 3.2.4 R (Matters which must be included in the instrument constituting the scheme)
Name of scheme |
||
1 |
A statement of: |
|
(1) |
the name of the authorised fund; and |
|
(2) |
whether the authorised fund is a UCITS scheme or a non-UCITS retail scheme. |
|
Investment powers in eligible markets |
||
2 |
A statement that, subject to any restriction in the rules in this sourcebook or the instrument constituting the scheme, the scheme has the power to invest in any eligible securities market or deal on any eligible derivatives market to the extent that power to do so is conferred by COLL 5 (Investment and borrowing powers). |
|
Unitholder's liability to pay |
||
3 |
A provision that a unitholder is not liable to make any further payment after he has paid the price of his units and that no further liability can be imposed on him in respect of the units which he holds. |
|
Base currency |
||
4 |
A statement of the base currency of the scheme. |
|
Valuation and pricing |
||
5 |
A statement setting out the basis for the valuation and pricing of the scheme. |
|
Duration of the scheme |
||
6 |
If the scheme is to be wound up after a particular period expires, a statement to that effect. |
|
Object of the scheme |
||
7 |
A statement: |
|
(1) |
as to the object of the scheme, in particular the types of investments and assets in which it and each sub-fund (where applicable) may invest; and |
|
(2) |
that the object of the scheme is to invest in property of that kind with the aim of spreading investment risk and giving unitholders the benefits of the results of the management of that property. |
|
27A |
Where the authorised fund is a qualifying money market fund, a statement to that effect and a statement that the authorised fund's investment objectives and policies will meet the conditions specified in the definition of qualifying money market fund. |
|
5Property Authorised Investment Funds |
||
57B |
For a property authorised investment fund, a statement that: |
|
(1) |
it is a property authorised investment fund; |
|
(2) |
no body corporate may seek to obtain or intentionally maintain a holding of more than 10% of the net asset value of the fund; and |
|
(3) |
in the event that the authorised fund manager reasonably considers that a body corporate holds more than 10% of the net asset value of the fund, the authorised fund manager is entitled to delay any redemption or cancellation of units in accordance with 18 if the authorised fund manager reasonably considers such action to be: |
|
(a) necessary in order to enable an orderly reduction of the holding to below 10%; and |
||
(b) in the interests of the unitholders as a whole. |
||
8Funds of alternative investment funds |
||
87C |
For a non-UCITS retail scheme operating as a FAIF, a statement that it is a fund of alternative investment funds.9 |
|
9Feeder UCITS |
||
97D |
For a feeder UCITS, a statement that it is a feeder UCITS and as such will permanently invest at least 85% in value of the scheme property in units of a single master UCITS. |
|
Government and public securities: investment in one issuer |
||
8 |
Where relevant, for a UCITS scheme, a statement in accordance with COLL 5.2.12 R (Spread: government and public securities) as to the individual states or bodies in which over 35% of the value of the scheme may be invested in government and public securities. |
|
Classes of unit |
||
9 |
A statement: |
|
(1) |
specifying the classes of unit that may be issued, and for a scheme which is an umbrella, the classes that may be issued in respect of each sub-fund; and |
|
(2) |
if the rights of any class of unit differ, a statement describing those differences in relation to the differing classes. |
|
Authorised fund manager's charges and expenses |
||
10 |
A statement setting out the basis on which the authorised fund manager may make a charge and recover expenses out of the scheme property. |
|
Issue or cancellation directly through the ICVC or trustee |
||
11 |
Where relevant, a statement authorising the issue or cancellation of units to take place through the ICVC or trustee directly. |
|
In specie issue and cancellation |
||
12 |
Where relevant, a statement authorising payment for the issue or cancellation of units to be made by the transfer of assets other than cash. |
|
Restrictions on sale and redemption |
||
13 |
Where relevant, the restrictions which will apply in relation to the sale and redemption of units under COLL 6.2.16 R (Sale and redemption). |
|
Voting at meetings |
||
14 |
The manner in which votes may be given at a meeting of unitholders under COLL 4.4.8 R (Voting rights). |
|
Certificates |
||
15 |
A statement: |
|
(1) |
authorising the issue of bearer certificates if any, and how such holders are to identify themselves; and |
|
(2) |
authorising the person responsible for the register to charge for issuing any document recording, or for amending, an entry on the register, other than on the issue or sale of units. |
|
Income |
||
16 |
A statement setting out the basis for the distribution or re-investment of income. |
|
Income equalisation |
||
17 |
Where relevant, a provision for income equalisation. |
|
Redemption or cancellation of units on breach of law or rules |
||
18 |
A statement that where any holding of units by a unitholder is (or is reasonably considered by the authorised fund manager to be) an infringement of any law, governmental regulation or rule, those units must be redeemed or cancelled. |
|
ICVCs: larger and smaller denomination shares |
||
19 |
A statement of the proportion of a larger denomination share represented by a smaller denomination share for any relevant unit class. |
|
ICVCs: resolution to remove a director |
||
20 |
A statement that the ICVC may (without prejudice to the requirements of regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations (The Authority's approval for certain changes in respect of a company), by a resolution passed by a simple majority of the votes validly cast for and against the resolution at a general meeting of unitholders, remove a director before his period of office expires, despite anything else in the ICVC's instrument of incorporation or in any agreement between the ICVC and that director. |
|
ICVCs: unit transfers |
||
21 |
A statement that the person designated for the purposes of paragraph 4 of Schedule 4 to the OEIC Regulations (Share transfers) is the person who, for the time being, is the ACD of the ICVC.1 7 |
|
ICVCs: Charges and expenses |
||
22 |
A statement that charges or expenses of the ICVC may be taken out of the scheme property. |
|
AUTs: governing law for a trust deed |
||
23 |
A statement that the trust deed is made under and governed by the law of England and Wales, Wales or Scotland or Northern Ireland. |
|
AUTs: trust deed to be binding and authoritative |
||
24 |
A statement that the trust deed: |
|
(1) |
is binding on each unitholder as if it had been a party to it and that it is bound by its provisions; and |
|
(2) |
authorises and requires the trustee and the manager to do the things required or permitted of them by its terms. |
|
AUTs: declaration of trust |
||
25 |
A declaration that, subject to the provisions of the trust deed and all rules made under section 247 of the Act (Trust scheme rules) and for the time being in force: |
|
(1) |
the scheme property (other than sums standing to the credit of the distribution account) is held by the trustee on trust for the unitholders according to the number of units held by each unitholder or, where relevant, according to the number of undivided shares in the scheme property represented by the units held by each unitholder; and |
|
(2) |
the sums standing to the credit of the distribution account are held by the trustee on trust to distribute or apply them in accordance with COLL 6.8 (Income: accounting, allocation and distribution). |
|
AUTs: trustee's remuneration |
||
26 |
Where relevant, a statement authorising payments to the trustee by way of remuneration for its services to be paid (in whole or in part) out of the scheme property. |
|
AUTs: responsibility for the register |
||
27 |
A statement identifying the person responsible under the rules for the maintenance of the register. |
|
3Investment in overseas4 property through an intermediate holding vehicle |
||
328 |
3If investment in an overseas4 immovable is to be made through an intermediate holding vehicle or a series of intermediate holding vehicles, a statement that the purpose of that intermediate holding vehicle or series of intermediate holding vehicles will be to enable the holding of overseas4 immovables by the scheme. |
Sections 85 and 86 of the Act provide for when a prospectus approved by the FSA will be required:
85 |
(1) |
It is unlawful for transferable securities to which this subsection applies to be offered to the public in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the offer is made. |
|||
(2) |
It is unlawful to request the admission of transferable securities to which this subsection applies to trading on a regulated market situated or operating in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the request is made. |
||||
(3) |
A person who contravenes subsection (1) or (2) is guilty of an offence and liable – |
||||
(a) |
on summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum or both; |
||||
(b) |
on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or a fine or both. |
||||
(4) |
A contravention of subsection (1) or (2) is actionable, at the suit of a person who suffers loss as a result of the contravention, subject to the defences and other incidents applying to actions for breach of statutory duty. |
||||
(5) |
Subsection (1) applies to all transferable securities other than – |
||||
(a) |
those listed in Schedule 11A; |
||||
(b) |
such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.2 R]. |
||||
(6) |
Subsection (2) applies to all transferable securities other than – |
||||
(a) |
those listed in Part 1 of Schedule 11A; |
||||
(b) |
such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.3 R]. |
||||
(7) |
"Approved prospectus" means, in relation to transferable securities to which this section applies, a prospectus approved by the competent authority of the home State in relation to the issuer of the securities. |
||||
86 |
Exempt offers to the public |
||||
(1) |
A person does not contravene section 85(1) if – |
||||
(a) |
the offer is made to or directed at qualified investors only; |
||||
(b) |
the offer is made to or directed at fewer than 100 persons, other than qualified investors, per EEA State; |
||||
(c) |
the minimum consideration which may be paid by any person for transferable securities acquired by him pursuant to the offer is at least 50,000 euros (or an equivalent amount); |
||||
(d) |
the transferable securities being offered are denominated in amounts of at least 50,000 euros (or equivalent amounts); or |
||||
(e) |
the total consideration for the transferable securities being offered cannot exceed 100,000 euros (or an equivalent amount). |
||||
(2) |
Where - |
||||
(a) |
a person who is not a qualified investor ("the client") has engaged a qualified investor falling within Article 2.1(e)(i) of the prospectus directive to act as his agent; and |
||||
(b) |
the terms on which the qualified investor is engaged enable him to make decisions concerning the acceptance of offers of transferable securities on the client's behalf without reference to the client, |
||||
an offer made to or directed at the qualified investor is not to be regarded for the purposes of subsection (1) as also having been made to or directed at the client. |
|||||
(3) |
For the purposes of subsection (1)(b), the making of an offer of transferable securities to – |
||||
(a) |
trustees of a trust, |
||||
(b) |
members of a partnership in their capacity as such, or |
||||
(c) |
two or more persons jointly, |
||||
is to be treated as the making of an offer to a single person. |
|||||
(4) |
In determining whether subsection (1)(e) is satisfied in relation to an offer ("offer A"), offer A is to be taken together with any other offer of transferable securities of the same class made by the same person which – |
||||
(a) |
was open at any time within the period of 12 months ending with the date on which offer A is first made; and |
||||
(b) |
had previously satisfied subsection (1)(e). |
||||
(5) |
For the purposes of this section, an amount (in relation to an amount denominated in euros) is an "equivalent amount" if it is an amount of equal value denominated wholly or partly in another currency or unit of account. |
||||
(6) |
The equivalent is to be calculated at the latest practicable date before (but in any event not more than 3 working days before) the date on which the offer is first made. |
||||
(7) |
"Qualified investor" means – |
||||
(a) |
an entity falling within Article 2.1(e)(i), (ii) or (iii) of the prospectus directive; |
||||
(b) |
an investor registered on the register maintained by the [FSA] under section 87R; |
||||
(c) |
an investor authorised by an EEA State other than the United Kingdom to be considered as a qualified investor for the purposes of the prospectus directive. |