Related provisions for SUP 9.2.4
201 - 220 of 649 items.
Where a listed company or applicant appoints more than one sponsor , the company must:(1) ensure that one of the sponsors that is appointed takes primaryresponsibility for contact with the FSA in respect of the entire application or transaction; and2(2) inform the FSA, in writing, of the name and contact details of the sponsor taking responsibility under LR 8.5.3R (1)22.
(1) The purpose of REC 3.13 is to enable the FSA to monitor any significant instances where UK recognised bodies outsource their functions to other persons (as they are permitted to dounder Regulation 6 of the Recognition Requirements Regulations. See REC 2.2).(2) The FSA does not need to be notified of every instance of outsourcing by a UK recognised body, but only where an activity or activities which form a significant part of a relevant function or which make a significant
Where a UK recognised body makes an offer or agrees to delegate any of its relevant functions to another person, it must immediately give the FSA notice of that event, and:(1) inform the FSA of the reasons for that delegation or proposed delegation;(2) inform the FSA of the reasons why it is satisfied that it will continue to meet the recognition requirements following that delegation;(3) where it makes such an offer by issuing a written invitation to tender to another body or
In the FSA's opinion, however, such information is likely to take on the nature of advice if the circumstances in which it is provided give it the force of a recommendation. Examples of situations where information provided by a person (P) might take the form of advice are given below.(1) P may provide information on a selected, rather than balanced and neutral, basis that would tend to influence the decision of a person. This may arise where P offers to provide information about
The potential for variation in the form, content and manner of pre-purchase questioning is considerable, but there are two broad types. The first type involves providing questions and answers which are confined to factual matters (for example, the amount of the cover). In the FSA's view, this does not itself amount to advising on contracts of insurance, if it involves the provision of information rather than advice. There are various possible scenarios, including the following:(1)
In the case of PERG 5.8.18G (2) and similar scenarios, the FSA considers that it is necessary to look at the process and outcome of pre-purchase questioning as a whole. It may be that the element of advice incorporated in the questioning can properly be viewed as generic advice if it were considered in isolation. But although the actual advice may be generic, the process has ended in identifying one or more particular contracts of insurance. The combination of the generic advice
This is explained in greater detail, together with the provisions on the granting of certificates by the FSA on the application of the proprietor of a periodical publication or news or information service or broadcast, in PERG 7 (Periodical publications, news services and broadcasts: applications for certification).
In
determining whether or not the conduct of an approved
person performing a significant
influence function under APER 4.6.5 E, APER 4.6.6 E and APER 4.6.8 E complies with Statement
of Principle 6 (see APER
2.1.2 P), the following are factors which, in
the opinion of the FSA, are to be taken into account:(1) the
competence, knowledge or seniority of the delegate; and (2) the
past performance and record of the delegate.
An approved person performing a significant influence function will not
always manage the business on a day-to-day basis himself. The extent to which
he does so will depend on a number of factors, including the nature, scale
and complexity of the business and his position within it. The larger and
more complex the business, the greater the need for clear and effective delegation
and reporting lines. The FSA will look to the approved person performing a significant
influence function
(1) An approved person performing a significant influence function may delegate
the investigation, resolution or management of an issue or authority for dealing
with a part of the business to individuals who report to him or to others.(2) The approved person performing a significant influence function should have
reasonable grounds for believing that the delegate has the competence, knowledge,
skill and time to deal with the issue. For instance, if the compliance department
only
3(1) A firm must have robust governance arrangements, which include a clear organisational structure with well defined, transparent and consistent lines of responsibility, effective processes to identify, manage, monitor and report the risks it is or might be exposed to, and internal control mechanisms, including sound administrative and accounting procedures and effective control and safeguard arrangements for information processing systems.8(2) 8A BIPRU firm and a third country
The matters dealt with in a business continuity policy should include:(1) resource requirements such as people, systems and other assets, and arrangements for obtaining these resources;(2) the recovery priorities for the firm's operations; (3) communication arrangements for internal and external concerned parties (including the FSA, clients and the press);(4) escalation and invocation plans that outline the processes for implementing the business continuity plans, together with
A common platform firm must establish, implement and maintain accounting policies and procedures that enable it, at the request of the FSA, to deliver in a timely manner to the FSA financial reports which reflect a true and fair view of its financial position and which comply with all applicable accounting standards and rules.[Note: article 5(4) of the MiFID implementing Directive]
This chapter applies principally to any person who needs to know whether he carries on insurance mediation activities and is thereby subject to FSA regulation. As such it will be of relevance among others to:(1) insurance brokers;(2) insurance advisers;(3) insurance undertakings; and(4) other persons involved in the sale and administration of contracts of insurance, even where these activities are secondary to their main business.
This guidance is issued under section 157of the Act (Guidance). It is designed to throw light on particular aspects of regulatory requirements, not to be an exhaustive description of a person's obligations. If a person acts in line with the guidance and the circumstances contemplated by it, then the FSA will proceed on the footing that the person has complied with aspects of the requirement to which the guidance relates.
Rights conferred on third parties cannot be affected by guidance given by the FSA. This guidance represents the FSA's view, and does not bind the courts, for example, in relation to the enforceability of a contract where there has been a breach of the general prohibition on carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom without authorisation (see sections 26 to 29 of the Act (Enforceability of Agreements)).
2The FSA will seek to deprive an individual of the financial benefit derived directly from the breach (which may include the profit made or loss avoided) where it is practicable to quantify this. The FSA will ordinarily also charge interest on the benefit. Where the success of a firm’s entire business model is dependent on breaching FSArules or other requirements of the regulatory system and the individual’s breach is at the core of the firm’s regulated activities, the FSA will
(1) The FSA will determine a figure which will be based on a percentage of an individual’s “relevant income”. “Relevant income” will be the gross amount of all benefits received by the individual from the employment in connection with which the breach occurred (the “relevant employment”), and for the period of the breach. In determining an individual’s relevant income, “benefits” includes, but is not limited to, salary, bonus, pension contributions, share options and share schemes;
(1) The FSA may increase or decrease the amount of the financial penalty arrived at after Step 2, but not including any amount to be disgorged as set out in Step 1, to take into account factors which aggravate or mitigate the breach. Any such adjustments will be made by way of a percentage adjustment to the figure determined at Step 2.(2) The following list of factors may have the effect of aggravating or mitigating the breach:(a) the conduct of the individual in bringing (or
(1) If the FSA considers the figure arrived at after Step 3 is insufficient to deter the individual who committed the breach, or others, from committing further or similar breaches then the FSA may increase the penalty. Circumstances where the FSA may do this include:(a) where the FSA considers the absolute value of the penalty too small in relation to the breach to meet its objective of credible deterrence;(b) where previous FSA action in respect of similar breaches has failed
The FSA and the individual on whom a penalty is to be imposed may seek to agree the amount of any financial penalty and other terms. In recognition of the benefits of such agreements, DEPP 6.7 provides that the amount of the financial penalty which might otherwise have been payable will be reduced to reflect the stage at which the FSA and the individual concerned reached an agreement. The settlement discount does not apply to the disgorgement of any benefit calculated at Step
A person is exempt if he is an appointed representative of an authorised person. See SUP 12 (Appointed representatives). But where an appointed representative carries on insurance mediation or reinsurance mediation he will not be exempt unless he is included on the register kept by the FSA under article 93 of the Regulated Activities Order (Duty to maintain a record of unauthorised persons carrying on insurance mediation activities) (see PERG 5.13 (Appointed representatives
But under section 316 of the Act (Direction by the FSA) the general prohibition does not apply to a person who is a member of the Society of Lloyds unless the FSA has made a direction that it should apply. The general prohibition is disapplied in relation to any regulated activity carried on by a member relating to contracts of insurance written at Lloyds. Directions can be made by the FSA in relation to individual members or the members of the Society of Lloyds taken together.
Such a person may carry on regulated activities if the conditions outlined below are met, that is the person:(1) is not affected by an order or direction made by the FSA under section 328 or 329 of the Act (Directions and orders in relation to the general prohibition) which has the effect of re-imposing the general prohibition in any particular case;(2) is, or is controlled by, a member of a profession;(3) does not receive any pecuniary reward or other advantage from the regulated
A person carrying on regulated activities under the regime for members of the professions will be subject to rules made by the professional body designated by the Treasury. Such bodies are obliged to make rules governing the carrying on by their members of those regulated activities that they are able to carry on without authorisation under the Act. Where such a person is carrying on insurance mediation or reinsurance mediation, he must also be included on the register kept by
The deterrent effect and impact
on a person of a suspension
or restriction, by itself or in combination with a financial penalty, may
be greater than where only a financial penalty is imposed. The FSA will consider the overall impact and deterrent effect of the
sanctions it imposes when determining the level of penalty and the length
of suspension or restriction.
The FSA expects usually to take the following approach in respect of
the interaction between a suspension or restriction and a financial penalty
or public censure:(1) The FSA will determine which sanction, or combination of sanctions, is
appropriate for the breach.(2) If the FSA, following the approach set out in DEPP 6.2, considers it appropriate
to impose a financial penalty, it will calculate the appropriate level of
the financial penalty, following the approach set out in
The FSA may depart from the approach set out in DEPP 6A.4.2 G.
For example, the FSA may
at the outset consider that a financial penalty is the only appropriate sanction
for a breach but, having determined
the appropriate level of financial penalty, may consider it appropriate to
reduce the amount of the financial penalty for serious financial hardship
reasons. In such a situation, the FSA may consider it appropriate to impose a suspension or restriction
even if the FSA at
the
(1) This chapter sets out the requirements that a person must follow in applying for an authorisation order for a scheme under regulation 12 of the OEIC Regulations (Applications for authorisation) or section 242 of the Act (Applications for authorisation of unit trust schemes).(2) COLLG 3 (The FSA's responsibilities under the Act) and COLLG 4 (The FSA's responsibilities under the OEIC Regulations) provide more information on what the Act and the OEIC Regulations require in
An application for an authorisation order in respect of an authorised fund must be:(1) in writing in the manner directed and contain the information required in the application form available from the FSA;(2) addressed for the attention of a member of FSA staff responsible for collective investment scheme authorisation matters; and(3) delivered to the FSA's address by one of the following methods:(a) posting; or(b) leaving it at the FSA's address and obtaining a time-stamped receipt;
1A common
platform firm must:(1) when relying on a third party for
the performance of operational functions which are critical for the performance
of regulated activities, listed activities or ancillary
services (in this chapter "relevant services and activities")
on a continuous and satisfactory basis, ensure that it takes reasonable steps
to avoid undue additional operational risk; (2) not undertake the outsourcing of important operational functions
in such a way as to impair
A common platform firm must in particular
take the necessary steps to ensure that the following conditions are satisfied:(1) the service provider must have
the ability, capacity, and any authorisation required
by law to perform the outsourced functions,
services or activities reliably and professionally;(2) the service provider must carry
out the outsourced services
effectively, and to this end the firm must
establish methods for assessing the standard of performance of the service
provider;(3)
A common platform firm must make available
on request to the FSA and
any other relevant competent authority all
information necessary to enable the FSA and
any other relevant competent authority to
supervise the compliance of the performance of the outsourced activities
with the requirements of the regulatory system.[Note: article
14(5) of the MiFID implementing Directive]
As SUP
15.3.8 G explains,
a firm should notify the FSA when
it intends to rely on a third party for the performance of operational functions
which are critical or important for the performance of relevant services and
activities on a continuous and satisfactory basis.[Note: recital 20 of theMiFID implementing Directive]2
In the FSA's view, for a person to be carrying on the business of advising on investments or advising on a home finance transaction1 he will usually need to be doing so with a degree of regularity and for commercial purposes – that is to say, he will normally be expecting to gain some kind of a direct or indirect financial benefit. But, in the FSA's view it is not necessarily the case that advice provided free of charge will not amount to a business. Advice is often given 'free'
In other circumstances, advice issued remotely may still be given in the United Kingdom. For example, the FSA considers that advice is given in the United Kingdom if:(1) it is contained in a non-UK periodical that is posted in hard copy to persons in the United Kingdom;(2) it is contained in a non-UK periodical (or given in or by way of a service) which is made available electronically to such persons.
Many people may be involved in the production of a periodical publication, news service or broadcast. But if the regulated activity of advising on investments or advising on a home finance transaction1 is being carried on so that authorisation is required, the FSA's view is that the person carrying on the activity (and who will require authorisation) is the person whose business it is to have the editorial control over the content. In the case of a periodical publication, this
A firm does not have to give notice to the FSA under SUP 15.9.1 R if it or another member of the consolidation group has already given notice of the relevant fact to:(1) the FSA; or(2) (if another competent authority is co-ordinator of the financial conglomerate ) that competent authority; or(3) (in the case of a financial conglomerate that does not yet have a co-ordinator ) the competent authority who would be co-ordinator under Article 10(2) of the Financial Groups Directive
(1) This section deals with the circumstances and manner in which an AUT is to be wound up or a sub-fund of an AUT is to be terminated. Under section 256 of the Act (Requests for revocation of authorisation order), the manager or trustee of an AUT may request the FSA to revoke the authorisation order in respect of that AUT. Section 257 of the Act (Directions) gives the FSA the power to make certain directions.(2) The termination of a sub-fund under this section will be subject
1This table belongs to COLL 7.4.1 G (4) (Explanation of COLL 7.4)
Summary of the main steps in winding up an AUT or terminating a sub-fund under FSArules Notes: N = Notice to be given to the FSA under section 251 of the Act. E = commencement of winding up or termination W/U = winding up FAP = final accounting period (COLL 7.4.5 R (4)) |
|||
Step number |
Explanation |
When |
|
1 |
Receive FSA approval |
N + one month On receipt of notice from the FSA |
Section 251 of the Act |
2 |
Normal business ceases; notify unitholders |
E |
7.4.3R |
3 |
Trustee to realise and distribute proceeds |
ASAP after E |
7.4.4R(1) to (5) |
4 |
Within 4 months of FAP |
7.4.5R(5) |
|
5 |
Request FSA to revoke relevant authorisation order |
On completion of W/U |
7.4.4R(6) |
(1) Where COLL 7.4.3 R (2) (f) applies, the trustee must cancel all units in issue and1 wind up the AUT or terminate the sub-fund in accordance with the approved scheme of arrangement.(2) In any other case falling within COLL 7.4.3 R:(a) once the AUT falls to be wound up or sub-fund terminated, the trustee must realise the scheme property;(b) after paying out or retaining adequate provision for all liabilities payable and for the costs of the winding up or termination, the trustee
(1) For any annual or half-yearly accounting period which begins1 after commencement of the winding up or termination, the manager is not required to prepare a short report (COLL 4.5.13 R (Provision of short report)), provided that it has reasonably determined1 that the report is not required in the interests of the unitholders.11(1A) The manager must consult the trustee before determining that a short report is not required in the interests of unitholders.1(2) Where (1) applies,
(1) There are two specified formats for advice appearing in writing or other legible form.(2) The first is that of a newspaper, journal, magazine or other periodical publication. For these purposes it does not matter what form the periodical publication takes as long as it can be read. This will include, for example, a newspaper appearing as a hard copy or electronically on a website. It will also include any periodical published on an intranet site.(3) The second is that of a
The third specified format is for advice in any service consisting of the broadcast or transmission of television or radio programmes. This will encompass the transmission through cable of interactive television programmes. In the FSA's view, ‘service’ in this context goes beyond any particular series of programmes broadcast or transmitted through a given medium. It refers instead to the administrative system (usually aimed at a particular audience) through which a range of different
For the second disqualifying purpose, the focus switches to assessing whether the principal purpose of a publication or service is to lead a person to engage in a relevant transaction or enable him to do so. This disqualifying purpose is an alternative to the first. So it extends to material not covered by the first. In this respect:(1) material in a publication or service that invites or seeks to procure persons to engage in a relevant transaction can be said to "lead" to those
In the context of the second disqualifying purpose, whether or not the presence of a hypertext link to another website indicates that the purposes of a publication or service include leading to relevant transactions (or enabling them to be entered into) will depend on all the circumstances. It will, in particular, be necessary to consider the form of the link and the content of the destination website. In the FSA's view, the presence on a host publication or service of a hypertext
At least two independent minds should be applied to both the formulation and implementation of the policies of a common platform firm and the UK branch of a non-EEA bank1. Where such1 a firm1 nominates just two individuals to direct its business, the FSA will not regard them as both effectively directing the business where one of them makes some, albeit significant, decisions relating to only a few aspects of the business. Each should play a part in the decision-making process
Where there are more than two individuals directing the business of a common platform firm or the UK branch of a non-EEA bank,1 the FSA does not regard it as necessary for all of these individuals to be involved in all decisions relating to the determination of strategy and general direction. However, at least two individuals should be involved in all such decisions. Both individuals' judgement should be engaged so that major errors leading to difficulties for the firm are less
(1) The report from a trustee of an AUT to the FSA must state, in relation to the manager of each AUT for which it is a trustee, the number of times during the quarter in which facts came to the firm's knowledge from which it appeared, or might have appeared, that the manager had failed (materially or otherwise) to: (a) give correct instructions to the trustee to create or cancel units in the AUT when the manager should have done so, and the error: (i) resulted in the creation
Reports of transactions made in accordance with Articles 25 (3) and (5) of MiFID shall contain the information specified in SUP 17 Annex 1 EU which is relevant to the type of financial instrument in question and which the FSA declares is not already in its possession or is not available to it by other means. |
[Note: article 13(1) of the MiFID Regulation.] |
11A firm must keep at the disposal of the FSA, for at least five years, the relevant
data relating to all transactions in financial instruments which it has carried
out, whether on own account or on behalf of a client.
In the case of transactions carried
out on behalf of clients, the
records shall contain all the information and details of the identity of the client, and the information required under
the money laundering directive.[Note:
article 25(2) of MiFID]
11The
requirement to keep information at the disposal of the FSA means that a firm should
maintain that information in such a form that it can readily be gathered and
transmitted to the FSA upon request. Where more than
one firm has given effect to
a transaction, each firm should be considered to have carried
out the transaction for the
purposes of SUP 17.4.3 R and should keep the records, even where only
one firm makes a transaction report as contemplated in this
Chapter.
Section 250 of the Act and regulation 7 of the OEIC Regulations allow the FSA to waive the application of certain rules in COLL to:10(1) a person, as respects a particular AUT or ICVC, on the application or with the consent of that person; and(2) an AUT or ICVC on the application or with the consent of the manager and trustee (in the case of an AUT) or the ICVC and its depositary (in the case of an ICVC).2