Related provisions for REC 6.5.1

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PERG 7.7.4GRP
The fact of a person holding a certificate granted under article 54(3) is information which may be of relevance to other persons (including investors or potential investors). For this reason, the FSA considers it appropriate that details of certificates granted under article 54(3) should be included in a list on the public record which the FSA is required to maintain under section 347 of the Act (The record of authorised persons, etc).
PR 1.1.6GRP
The following documents need to be considered together todetermine the effect of the prospectus directive:(1) Part 6 of the Act;(2) the PD Regulation;(3) these rules; and(4) the CESR recommendations.
PR 1.1.8GRP
In determining whether Part 6 of the Act, these rules andthe PD Regulation has been complied with, the FSA will take into account whether a person has complied with the CESR recommendations.
PR 3.4.1UKRP

Section 87G of the Act provides that:

(1)

Subsection (2) applies if, during the relevant period, there arises or is noted a significant new factor, material mistake or inaccuracy relating to the information included in a prospectus approved by the [ FSA].

(2)

The person on whose application the prospectus was approved must, in accordance with prospectus rules, submit a supplementary prospectus containing details of the new factor, mistake or inaccuracy to the [FSA] for its approval.

(3)

The relevant period begins when the prospectus is approved by the [FSA] and ends –

(a)

with the closure of the offer of the transferable securities to which the prospectus relates; or

(b)

when trading in those securities on a regulated market begins.

(4)

"Significant" means significant for the purposes of making an informed assessment of the kind mentioned in section 87A(2).

(5)

Any person responsible for the prospectus who is aware of any new factor, mistake or inaccuracy which may require the submission of a supplementary prospectus in accordance with subsection (2) must give notice of it to –

(a)

the issuer of the transferable securities to which the prospectus relates, and

(b)

the person on whose application the prospectus was approved.

(6)

A supplementary prospectus must provide sufficient information to correct any mistake or inaccuracy which gave rise to the need for it.

(7)

Subsection (1) applies also to information contained in any supplementary prospectus published under this section.
PR 3.4.3RRP
1In the event that a requirement for a supplement is triggered, then as soon as practicable after the new factor, mistake or inaccuracy arises or is noted, a3person referred to in section 87G(2) of the Act must submit a supplementary prospectus referred to in that section to the FSA for approval.33
REC 6.3.1GRP
Before making a recognition order, the FSA will need to be satisfied that the recognition requirements in section 292(3) of the Act (Overseas investment exchanges and clearing houses) have been met. These requirements are the only recognition requirements applicable to overseas recognised bodies.
REC 6.3.2UKRP

Sections 292(3) and 292(4) state:

2Section 292(3)

The requirements are that-

(a)

investors are afforded protection equivalent to that which they would be afforded if the body concerned were required to comply withrecognition requirements;

(b)

there are adequate procedures for dealing with a person who is unable, or likely to become unable, to meet his obligations in respect of one or more market contracts connected with the [ROIE] or [ROCH];

(c)

the applicant is able and willing to co-operate with the[FSA] by the sharing of information and in other ways; and

(d)

adequate arrangements exist for co-operation between the[FSA] and those responsible for the supervision of the applicant in the country or territory in which the applicant's head office is situated.

Section 292(4)

In considering whether it is satisfied as to the requirements mentioned in subsections (3)(a) and (b), the[FSA] is to have regard to-

(a)

the relevant law and practice of the country or territory in which the applicant's head office is situated;

(b)

the rules and practices of the applicant.
SUP 4.3.8GRP
The FSA is concerned to ensure that every actuary appointed by a firm under this section1 has the necessary skill and experience to provide the firm with appropriate actuarial advice. SUP 4.3.9 R to SUP 4.3.10 G set out the FSA's rules and guidance aimed at achieving this.1
SUP 4.3.11RRP
A firm must not appoint under SUP 4.3.1 R1 or an actuary who is disqualified by the FSA under section 345 of the Act (Disqualification) from acting as an actuary either for that firm or for a relevant class of firm. 1
SUP 4.3.12GRP
If it appears to the FSA that an actuary1 has failed to comply with a duty imposed on him under the Act, it may disqualify him under section 345 of the Act. For more detail about what happens when the disqualification of an actuary is being considered or put into effect, see EG 155 (Disqualification of auditors and actuaries)1. A list of actuaries who are disqualified by the FSA may be found on the FSA website (www.fsa.gov.uk).15
PERG 9.1.3GRP
This guidance is issued under section 157of the Act (Guidance). It is designed to throw light on particular aspects of regulatory requirements, not to be an exhaustive description of a person's obligations. If a person acts in line with the guidance in the circumstances it contemplates, the FSA will proceed on the footing that the person has complied with aspects of the requirement to which the guidance relates. Rights conferred on third parties cannot be affected by guidance
COLL 6.5.10RRP
(1) The depositary of an authorised fund may not retire voluntarily except upon the appointment of a new depositary.(2) The depositary of an authorised fund must not retire voluntarily unless, before its retirement, it has ensured that the new depositary has been informed of any circumstance of which the retiring depositary has informed the FSA.(3) When the depositary of an authorised fund wishes to retire or ceases to be an authorised person, the authorised fundmanager may, subject
PR 1.2.1UKRP

Sections 85 and 86 of the Act provide for when a prospectus approved by the FSA will be required:

85

(1)

It is unlawful for transferable securities to which this subsection applies to be offered to the public in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the offer is made.

(2)

It is unlawful to request the admission of transferable securities to which this subsection applies to trading on a regulated market situated or operating in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the request is made.

(3)

A person who contravenes subsection (1) or (2) is guilty of an offence and liable –

(a)

on summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum or both;

(b)

on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or a fine or both.

(4)

A contravention of subsection (1) or (2) is actionable, at the suit of a person who suffers loss as a result of the contravention, subject to the defences and other incidents applying to actions for breach of statutory duty.

(5)

Subsection (1) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.2 R].

(6)

Subsection (2) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Part 1 of Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.3 R].

(7)

"Approved prospectus" means, in relation to transferable securities to which this section applies, a prospectus approved by the competent authority of the home State in relation to the issuer of the securities.

86

Exempt offers to the public

(1)

A person does not contravene section 85(1) if –

(a)

the offer is made to or directed at qualified investors only;

(b)

the offer is made to or directed at fewer than 100 persons, other than qualified investors, per EEA State;

(c)

the minimum consideration which may be paid by any person for transferable securities acquired by him pursuant to the offer is at least 50,000 euros (or an equivalent amount);

(d)

the transferable securities being offered are denominated in amounts of at least 50,000 euros (or equivalent amounts); or

(e)

the total consideration for the transferable securities being offered cannot exceed 100,000 euros (or an equivalent amount).

(2)

Where -

(a)

a person who is not a qualified investor ("the client") has engaged a qualified investor falling within Article 2.1(e)(i) of the prospectus directive to act as his agent; and

(b)

the terms on which the qualified investor is engaged enable him to make decisions concerning the acceptance of offers of transferable securities on the client's behalf without reference to the client,

an offer made to or directed at the qualified investor is not to be regarded for the purposes of subsection (1) as also having been made to or directed at the client.

(3)

For the purposes of subsection (1)(b), the making of an offer of transferable securities to –

(a)

trustees of a trust,

(b)

members of a partnership in their capacity as such, or

(c)

two or more persons jointly,

is to be treated as the making of an offer to a single person.

(4)

In determining whether subsection (1)(e) is satisfied in relation to an offer ("offer A"), offer A is to be taken together with any other offer of transferable securities of the same class made by the same person which –

(a)

was open at any time within the period of 12 months ending with the date on which offer A is first made; and

(b)

had previously satisfied subsection (1)(e).

(5)

For the purposes of this section, an amount (in relation to an amount denominated in euros) is an "equivalent amount" if it is an amount of equal value denominated wholly or partly in another currency or unit of account.

(6)

The equivalent is to be calculated at the latest practicable date before (but in any event not more than 3 working days before) the date on which the offer is first made.

(7)

"Qualified investor" means –

(a)

an entity falling within Article 2.1(e)(i), (ii) or (iii) of the prospectus directive;

(b)

an investor registered on the register maintained by the [FSA] under section 87R;

(c)

an investor authorised by an EEA State other than the United Kingdom to be considered as a qualified investor for the purposes of the prospectus directive.
PR 1.2.2RRP
In accordance with section 85(5)(b) of the Act, section 85(1) of the Act does not apply to offers of the following types of transferable securities:(1) shares issued in substitution for shares of the same class already issued, if the issue of the new shares does not involve any increase in the issued capital;(2) transferable securities offered in connection with a takeover by means of an exchange offer, if a document is available containing information which is regarded by the
PR 1.2.3RRP
In accordance with section 85(6)(b) of the Act, section 85(2) of the Act does not apply to the admission to trading of the following types of transferable securities:(1) shares representing, over a period of 12 months, less than 10 per cent of the number of shares of the same class already admitted to trading on the same regulated market;(2) shares issued in substitution for shares of the same class already admitted to trading on the same regulated market, if the issue of the
COLL 2.1.3GRP
(1) This chapter sets out the requirements that a person must follow in applying for an authorisation order for a scheme under regulation 12 of the OEIC Regulations (Applications for authorisation) or section 242 of the Act (Applications for authorisation of unit trust schemes).(2) COLLG 3 (The FSA's responsibilities under the Act) and COLLG 4 (The FSA's responsibilities under the OEIC Regulations) provide more information on what the Act and the OEIC Regulations require in
REC 4.1.2GRP
This chapter sets out the FSA's approach to the supervision of recognised bodies and contains guidance on: (1) the arrangements for investigating complaints about recognised bodies made under section 299 of the Act (Complaints about recognised bodies) (REC 4.4); (2) the FSA's approach to the exercise of its powers under:(a) section 296 of the Act (FSA's power to give directions) to give directions to recognised bodies (REC 4.6);(b) section 297 of the Act (Revoking recognition)
REC 4.1.4GRP
In applying these principles of risk based supervision to the supervision of recognised bodies, the FSA has had particular regard to the special position of recognised bodies under the Act as well as to its general duties set out in section 2 of the Act (The FSA'sgeneral duties).
SUP 12.1.5GRP
2This chapter also sets out guidance about section 39A of the Act, which is relevant to a UK MiFID investment firm that is considering appointing an FSA registered tied agent. It also sets out the FSA'srules, and guidance on those rules, in relation to the appointment of an EEA tied agent by a UK MiFID investment firm.
SUP 9.2.1GRP
Requests for individual guidance may be made in writing or orally. If oral queries raise complex or significant issues, the FSA will normally expect the details of the request to be confirmed in writing. Simple requests for guidance may often be dealt with orally, although it is open to a person to seek a written confirmation from the FSA of oral guidance given by the FSA.
DEPP 6.7.6GRP
2The settlement discount scheme which applies to the amount of a financial penalty, described in DEPP 6.7.2 G to DEPP 6.7.5 G, also applies to the length of the period of a suspension or restriction, having regard to the FSA's statement of policy as set out in DEPP 6A.3.
REC 4.5.8GRP
Under section 166(7) of the Companies Act 1989, where a UK recognised body has taken action either of its own accord or in response to a direction, the FSA may direct it to do or not to do specific things subject to these being within the powers of the UK recognised body concerned under its default rules. However, the FSA cannot give such a direction unless it is satisfied that this will not impede or frustrate the proper and efficient conduct of the default proceedings.