Related provisions for LR 8.7.9

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LR 8.3.5ARRP
1A sponsor must in relation to a sponsor service disclose to the FSA in a timely manner any material information relating to the sponsor or to a listed company or applicant of which it has knowledge which concerns non-compliance with the listing rules or disclosure rules and transparency rules2.2
LR 13.4.1RRP
A class 1 circular must also include the following information:(1) the information given in the notification (see LR 10.4.1R);(2) the information required by LR 13 Annex 1;(3) the information required by LR 13.5 (if applicable); and(4) a declaration by its directors in the following form (with appropriate modifications):"The directors of [the company], whose names appear on page [ ], accept responsibility for the information contained in this document. To the best of the knowledge
FEES 6.4.10ARRP
(1) 22This rule deals with the calculation of:(a) a participant firm'sspecific costs levy in the financial year of the FSCS following the FSCS financial year in which it became a participant firm; or(b) a participant firm'sspecific costs levy in the financial year of the FSCS in which it had its permission extended, and the following FSCS financial year; and(c) the tariff base for the class or sub-classes that relate to the relevant permissions or extensions, as the case may be.(2)
PERG 5.12.13GRP
The effect of the IMD is that any EEA-based insurance intermediaries doing business within the Directive’s scope4 must first be registered in their home EEA State before carrying on insurance mediation in that EEA State or other EEA States. For these purposes, an EEA-based insurance intermediary is either:(1) a legal person with its registered office or head office in an EEA State other than the United Kingdom; or(2) a natural person resident in an EEA State other than the United
SYSC 19A.1.7GRP
(1) The Remuneration Code does not contain specific notification requirements. However, general circumstances in which the FSA expects to be notified by firms of matters relating to their compliance with requirements under the regulatory system are set out in SUP 15.3 (General notification requirements). (2) In particular, in relation to remuneration matters such circumstances should take into account unregulated activities as well as regulated activities and the activities of
LR 3.4.5RRP
11If confirmation of the number of securities to be issued pursuant to a board resolution cannot be submitted to the FSA by the deadline set out in LR 3.4.4 R or, the number of securities to be admitted is lower than the number notified under LR 3.4.4 R, written confirmation of the number of securities to be issued or admitted must be provided to the FSA by the applicant at least one hour before the admission to listing is to become effective.
CASS 7A.3.19RRP
On the failure of a third party with which money is held, a firm must notify the FSA:(1) as soon as it becomes aware of the failure of any bank, intermediate broker, settlement agent, OTC counterparty or other entity with which it has placed, or to which it has passed, client money; and(2) as soon as reasonably practical, whether it intends to make good any shortfall that has arisen or may arise and of the amounts involved.
BIPRU 7.1.11GRP
Under BIPRU 1.2.30 R (2) a firm should notify the FSA as soon as is reasonably practicable if its trading book policy statement is subject to significant changes. Therefore if a firm makes a change in accordance with BIPRU 7.1.10R it should consider whether it is necessary to report it to the FSA.
SUP App 3.9.4GRP

Activities set out in Annex I of the BCD1

1

Table 1: BCD activities

Part II RAO Activities

Part III RAO Investments

1.

Acceptance of deposits and other repayable funds from the public

Article 5

Article 74

2.

Lending

Article 61, 64

Article 88

3.

Financial leasing

4.

Money transmission services

5.

Issuing and administering means of payment (eg credit cards, travellers' cheques and bankers' drafts)

6.

Guarantees and commitments

7.

Trading for own account or for account of customers in:

(a) money market instruments

(b) foreign exchange

(c) financial futures and options

(d) exchange and interest rate instruments

(e) transferable securities

Article 14, 21, 25 (see Note 1), 64

Article 14, 21, 25, 64

Article 14, 21, 25, 64

Article 14, 21, 25, 64

Article 14, 21, 25, 64

Article 77, 78, 80, 83-85, 89

Article 83-85, 89

Article 83-85, 89

Article 83-85, 89

Article 76-81, 89

8.

Participation in share issues and the provision of services relating to such issues

Article 14, 21, 25, 53, 64

Article 76-81, 89

9.

Advice to undertakings on capital structure, industrial strategy and related questions and advice and services relating to mergers and the purchase of undertakings

Article 14, 21, 25, 53, 64

Article 76-80, 83-85, 89

10.

Money broking

Article 25, 64

Article 77, 78, 89

11.

Portfolio management and advice

Article 14, 21, 25, 37, 53, 64

Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

12.

Safekeeping and administration of securities

Article 40, 45, 64

Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

13.

Credit reference services

14.

Safe custody services

 1 1

3Note 12: The services and activities provided for in Sections A and B of Annex I of MiFID when referring to the financial instruments provided for in Section C of Annex I of that Directive are subject to mutual recognition according to the BCD from 1 November 2007.See2 the table at SUP App 3.9.5 G below for mapping of MiFIDinvestment services and activities.For further details relating to this residual category, please see the "Banking Consolidation Directive"section of the passporting forms entitled "Notification of intention to establish a branch in another EEA State" and "Notification of intention to provide cross border services in another EEA State".2

2
DTR 1A.2.1RRP
(1) The FSA may dispense with, or modify, the transparency rules in such cases and by reference to such circumstances as it considers appropriate (subject to the terms of directives and the Act).(2) A dispensation or modification may be either unconditional or subject to specified conditions.(3) If an issuer, or other person has applied for, or been granted, a dispensation or modification, it must notify the FSA immediately it becomes aware of any matter which is material to the
COLL 8.6.3RRP
(1) The authorised fund manager may, with the prior agreement of the depositary, and must without delay, if the depositary so requires,1 within any parameters which are fair and reasonable in respect of all the unitholders in the scheme and which are set out in the prospectus, temporarily1 suspend dealings in units of the scheme, a sub-fund or a class.(2) Any suspension within (1) must only be where the authorised fund manager has determined on reasonable grounds that there is
COLL 2.1.3GRP
(1) This chapter sets out the requirements that a person must follow in applying for an authorisation order for a scheme under regulation 12 of the OEIC Regulations (Applications for authorisation) or section 242 of the Act (Applications for authorisation of unit trust schemes).(2) COLLG 3 (The FSA's responsibilities under the Act) and COLLG 4 (The FSA's responsibilities under the OEIC Regulations) provide more information on what the Act and the OEIC Regulations require in
SYSC 8.1.12GRP
As SUP 15.3.8 G explains, a firm should notify the FSA when it intends to rely on a third party for the performance of operational functions which are critical or important for the performance of relevant services and activities on a continuous and satisfactory basis.[Note: recital 20 of theMiFID implementing Directive]2
DTR 5.2.5RRP
(1) A person who is required to make a notification may, without affecting their responsibility, appoint another person to make the notification on his behalf.(2) Where two or more persons are required to make a notification such persons may, without affecting their responsibility, arrange for a single notification to be made.[Note: article 8(3) of the TD implementing Directive.]
SUP App 2.15.15GRP
Significant changes to, or departures from, a firm's run-off plan are likely to trigger one or more of the firm's obligations to notify the FSA. (See, for example, Principle 11 (Relations with regulators). The guidance in SUP 15.3 (General notification requirements) may also be relevant.)
BIPRU 2.3.7RRP
(1) As part of its obligations under GENPRU 1.2.30 R (Processes, strategies and systems for risks) and GENPRU 1.2.36 R (Stress and scenario tests) a firm must carry out an evaluation of its exposure to the interest rate risk arising from its non-trading activities.(2) The evaluation under (1) must cover the effect of a sudden and unexpected parallel change in interest rates of 200 basis points in both directions.(3) A firm must immediately notify the FSA if any evaluation under
GEN 1.3.2RRP
(1) If any emergency arises which:(a) makes it impracticable for a person to comply with a particular rule in the Handbook; (b) could not have been avoided by the person taking all reasonable steps; and(c) is outside the control of the person, its associates and agents (and of its and their employees);the person will not be in contravention of that rule to the extent that, in consequence of the emergency, compliance with that rule is impracticable. (2) Paragraph (1) applies only
LR 18.4.5RRP
(1) An issuer of securities represented by listedcertificates representing certain securities must notify a RIS of any change of depositary.(2) The notification required by paragraph (1) must be made as soon as possible, and in any event by 7.30 a.m. on the business day following the change of depositary, and contain the following information:(a) the name, registered office and principal administrative establishment if different from the registered office of the depositary;(b)
INSPRU 8.4.7GRP
The Society should consult members and underwriting agents before it finalises material changes in the byelaws referred to in INSPRU 8.4.3 R, and should have timely and effective arrangements for notifying them of changes in these byelaws.
DISP 3.6.6RRP
17When the Ombudsman has determined a complaint:(1) the Ombudsman will give both parties a signed written statement of the determination, giving the reasons for it;(2) the statement will require the complainant to notify the Ombudsman in writing, before the date specified in the statement, whether he accepts or rejects the determination;(3) if the complainant notifies the Ombudsman that he accepts the determination within that time limit, it is final and binding on both parties;(4)