Related provisions for BIPRU 2.3.6
101 - 120 of 337 items.
4For each transaction for which it provides sponsor services, a sponsor must:(1) notify the FSA as soon as practicableof the name and contact details of the maincontactperson or persons in the sponsor for that transaction; and(2) ensure that thecontact person or persons: (a) have sufficient knowledge about the listed company or applicant and the proposed transactionto be able to answer queries from the FSA about it; and(b) are available to answer queries from the FSA on any business
(1) Given the complexity of issues raised by passporting, UK firms are advised to consult legislation and also to obtain legal advice at earliest opportunity. Firms are encouraged to contact their usual supervisory contact at the FSA to discuss their proposals. However, a UK firm which is seeking guidance on procedural or notification issues relating to passporting should contact the Passport Notifications Unit.(2) An applicant for Part IV permission which is submitting a notice
Article 53 does not apply to advice given on any of the following:(1) deposit or other bank or building society accounts (but note that providing basic advice on a stakeholder product including stakeholder deposit accounts is a separate regulated activity under article 52A of the Regulated Activities Order - see the guidance in PERG 2.7.14A G (Providing basic advice on stakeholder products));(2) interests under the trusts of an occupational pension scheme (but rights under an
12Redress should in most cases be provided by meeting the cost of rearranging the policy, by way of a lump sum payment into the policy in respect of the higher rate of premium due from its inception. It may be appropriate in individual cases to take account of the lower premiums that the complainant will have paid to date. The guidance in DISP App 1.2, as to the circumstances in which this will be appropriate, will be relevant here.
(1) The purpose of the precautionary measure rule is to ensure that an incoming EEA firm is subject to the standards of MiFID and the MiFID implementing Directive to the extent that the Home State has not transposed MiFID or the MiFID implementing Directive by 1 November 2007. It is to 'fill a gap'.(2) The rule is made in the light of the duty of the United Kingdom under Article 62 of MiFID to adopt precautionary measures to protect investors. (3) The rule will be effective for
116This chapter applies to:(1) every firm which is subject to the Compulsory Jurisdiction and (apart from FEES 5.3, 5.4 and 5.8) every licensee which is subject to the Consumer Credit Jurisdiction17of the Financial Ombudsman Service; and(2) every other person who is subject to the Compulsory Jurisdiction in relation to relevant complaints.
The FSA will consider the full circumstances of each case when determining whether or not to take action for a financial penalty or public censure. Set out below is a list of factors that may be relevant for this purpose. The list is not exhaustive: not all of these factors may be applicable in a particular case, and there may be other factors, not listed, that are relevant.(1) The nature, seriousness and impact of the suspected breach, including:(a) whether the breach was deliberate
The FSA's rules on systems and controls against money laundering are set out in SYSC 3.2 and SYSC 6.3. The FSA, when considering whether to take action for a financial penalty or censure in respect of a breach of those rules, will have regard to whether a firm has followed relevant provisions in the Guidance for the UK financial sector issued by the Joint Money Laundering Steering Group.
Professional firms (broadly firms of solicitors, accountants and actuaries) may carry on insurance mediation activities in the course of their professional activities. Exempt professional firms carrying on insurance mediation activities may continue to be able to use the Part XX exemption to avoid any need for authorisation. PROF 2 (Status of exempt professional firm) contains guidance on the Part XX exemption. They will, however, need to be shown on the FSA Register as carrying
Professional firms with practices that involve acting for claimants in litigation against insurance undertakings are likely to be carrying on the regulated activity of assisting in the administration and performance of a contract of insurance. Exempt professional firms whose practices contain a material element of such activity should consider whether they can continue to take advantage of the Part XX exemption to avoid any need for authorisation, having regard to the relevant
If, exceptionally under the guidance at DISP App 1.5.13 G to DISP App 1.5.21 G, cash or shares derived from a corporate event are to be taken into account when assessing loss and redress, cash should be valued at the amount actually received and shares should be valued at their issue price. In both cases there should be no addition for interest.3434
Controlled activity and controlled investment are defined in Schedule 1 to the Financial Promotion Order and are listed in PERG 8.36.3 G and PERG 8.36.4 G. Broadly speaking, controlled activities and controlled investments are similar to regulated activities and specified investments under the Regulated Activities Order. However, with controlled activities, the exclusions set out in the Regulated Activities Order do not, in most cases, apply. It is important to note, however,
In the FSA's opinion, section 21 will apply to a communication (made in the course of business) if it contains an invitation or inducement to engage in investment activity which is addressed to a particular person or to persons generally. Where this is the case, it will not matter that the communication may be physically delivered to someone other than the person who is intended to engage in investment activity. PERG 8.6.10 G gives more guidance on this.
(General notification requirements) contains rules and guidance on matters that should be notified to the FSA. Such matters include, but are not limited to, any circumstance that the depositary becomes aware of whilst undertaking its functions or duties in COLL 6.6.4 R (1) (General duties of the depositary) that the FSA would reasonably view as significant.
(1) Directors of an ICVC, authorised fund managers and depositaries should also have regard to SYSC 8 (Outsourcing).66SYSC 8.1.6 R4 states that a firm remains fully responsible for discharging 6all of its obligations under the regulatory system6 if it outsources crucial or important operational functions4 or any relevant services and activities.6646644(2) SUP 15.8.6 R (Delegation by UCITS management companies) requires anauthorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme to inform the
(1) The effect of COBS TP 2.12R is that3COB 7.1 (Conflict of interest and material interest) (as it was in force on 31 October 2007) continues to apply3 for scheme management activity and contains rules on the fair treatment of customers where a firm has a conflict of interest in relation to a transaction. COLL 6.6.17 R (1) provides rules for specific circumstances where COB 7.1 would not be appropriate for an authorised fund.(2) Regulation 44 of the OEIC Regulations (Invalidity