Related provisions for SUP App 3.3.8
21 - 40 of 228 items.
(1) This chapter applies to a firm which is considering appointing, has decided to appoint or has appointed an appointed representative.1(1A) This chapter applies to a UK MiFID investment firm which is considering appointing, has decided to appoint or has appointed an EEA tied agent.2(2) This chapter does not apply to a UCITS qualifier.1(3) This chapter does not apply in relation to a tied agent acting on behalf of an EEA MiFID investment firm unless that tied agent is established
2This chapter also sets out guidance about section 39A of the Act, which is relevant to a UK MiFID investment firm that is considering appointing an FSA registered tied agent. It also sets out the FSA'srules, and guidance on those rules, in relation to the appointment of an EEA tied agent by a UK MiFID investment firm.
(1) A market is eligible for the purposes of the rules in this sourcebook if it is:(a) a regulated market;(b) a market in an EEA State which is regulated, operates regularly and is open to the public; or(c) any market within (2).(2) A market not falling within (1)(a) and (b) is eligible for the purposes of the rules in this sourcebook if:(a) the authorised fund manager, after consultation with and notification to the depositary (and in the case of an ICVC, any other directors),
(1) 7A UCITS scheme may invest in an approved money-market instrument if it is:(a) issued or guaranteed by any one of the following:(i) a central authority of an EEA State or, if the EEA State is a federal state, one of the members making up the federation;(ii) a regional or local authority of an EEA State;(iii) the Bank of England, the European Central Bank or a central bank of an EEA State;(iv) the European Union or the European Investment Bank;(v) a non-EEA State or, in the
(1) This rule applies to government and public securities ("such securities").(2) Where no more than 35% in value of the scheme property is invested in such securities issued by any one body, there is no limit on the amount which may be invested in such securities or in any one issue.(3) An authorised fund may invest more than 35% in value of the scheme property in such securities issued by any one body provided that:(a) the authorised fund manager has before any such investment
A UCITS scheme must not invest in units in a collective investment scheme ("second scheme") unless the second scheme satisfies all of the following conditions, and provided that no more than 30% of the value of the UCITS scheme is invested in second schemes within (1)(b) to (e):88(1) the second scheme must:(a) satisfy the conditions necessary for it to enjoy the rights conferred by the UCITS Directive; or(b) be recognised under the provisions of section 270 of the Act (Schemes
(1) COLL 9.3 gives further detail as to the recognition of a scheme under section 270of the Act.(2) Article 19 of the UCITS Directive sets out the general investment limits. So, a non-UCITS retail scheme, or its equivalent EEAscheme which has the power to invest in gold or immovables would not meet the criteria set in COLL 5.2.13R (1)(c) and COLL 5.2.13R (1)(d).(3) 8In determining whether a scheme meets the requirements of article 19(1)(e) of the UCITS Directive for the purposes
(1) If the transferee is (or will be) an EEA firm (authorised in its Home State to carry on insurance business under the Insurance Directives) or a Swiss general insurance company, then the FSA has to consult the transferee's Home State regulator, who has 3 months to respond. It will be necessary for the FSA to obtain from the transferee's Home State regulator a certificate confirming that the transferee will meet the Home State's solvency margin requirements (if any) after the
If the transferee is not (and will not be) authorised and will be neither an EEA firm nor a Swiss general insurance company, then the FSA will need to consult itsinsurance supervisor in the place where the business is to be transferred. The FSA will need confirmation from this supervisor that the transferee will meet his solvency margin requirements there (if any) after the transfer.
If the transferor is an UK insurer and the business to be transferred includes business carried on from a branch in another EEA State, then the FSA has to consult the Host State regulator, who has 3 months to respond. The FSA will need to be given the information that the Host State regulator requires from it. This information should identify the parties to the transfer and include the transfer agreement or draft transfer agreement or a summary containing relevant information,
If the transferor is anUK insurer and the business to be transferred includes a long-term insurance contract (other than reinsurance) for which the state of the commitment is an EEA state other than the United Kingdom, then the FSA has to consult the Host State regulator. If the transferor is anUK insurer and the business to be transferred includes a general insurance contract (other than reinsurance) for which the state of the risk is an EEA state other than the United Kingdom,
Where the transferor is anUK-deposit insurer and, following the transfer, it will no longer be carrying on insurance business in the United Kingdom, the FSA will need to collaborate with regulatory bodies in the other EEA States in which it is carrying on business to ensure that effective supervision of the business carried on in the EEA continues. The transferor should cooperate with the FSA and the other regulatory bodies in this process and demonstrate that it will meet the
As the consent (or presumed consent) of the Host State is required for a transfer covering contracts for which another EEA State is the state of the risk (for general insurance business) or the state of the commitment (for long-term insurance business), it is advisable to obtain the consent of regulatory body in the Host State to any waiver of publication in that state. The approval of the court will still be required.
(1) A UK firm which is exercising an EEA right must make and retain a record of:(a) the services or activities it carries on from a branch in, or provides cross-border into, another EEA State under that EEA right; and(b) the details relating to those services or activities (as set out in SUP 13.6 and SUP 13.7)1.11(2) The record in (1) must be kept for five years (for firms passporting under MiFID) or 1three years (for other firms)1from the earlier of the date on which:(a) it was
If transferable securities are admitted to trading in more than one EEA State including the United Kingdom and the United Kingdom is the Home State, regulated information must be disclosed:(1) in English; and(2) either in a language accepted by the competent authorities of each Host State or in a language customary in the sphere of international finance, at the choice of the issuer. [Note: article 20(2) of the TD]
(1) If transferable securities are admitted to trading in one or more EEA States excluding the United Kingdom and the United Kingdom is the Home State, regulated information must be disclosed either:(a) in a language accepted by the competent authorities of those Host States; or(b) in a language customary in the sphere of international finance,at the choice of the issuer.(2) Where the United Kingdom is the Home State, regulated information must be disclosed either in English or
If transferable securities whose denomination per unit amounts to at least 50,000 Euros (or an equivalent amount) are admitted to trading in the United Kingdom or in one or more EEA States, regulated information must be disclosed to the public in either a language accepted by the competent authorities of the Home State and Host States or in a language customary in the sphere of international finance, at the choice of the issuer or of the person who, without the issuer's consent,
(1) Under the Gibraltar Order4 made under section 409 of the Act, a Gibraltar firm is treated as an EEA firm under Schedule 3 to the Act if it is:(a) authorised in Gibraltar under the Insurance Directives; or(b) authorised in Gibraltar under the Banking Consolidation Directive;44(c) authorised in Gibraltar under the Insurance Mediation Directive; or4(d) authorised in Gibraltar under the Investment Services Directive .4(1A) 4Similarly, an EEA firm which:(a) has satisfied the Gibraltar
If a person established in the EEA: (1) does not have an EEA right; (2) does not have permission as a UCITS qualifier; and(3) does not have, or does not wish to exercise, a Treaty right (see SUP 13A.3.4 G to SUP 13A.3.11 G);to carry on a particular regulated activity in the United Kingdom, it must seek Part IV permission from the FSA to do so (see the FSA website "How do I get authorised": http://www.fsa.gov.uk/Pages/Doing/how/index.shtml1). This might arise if the activity itself
Where the FSA grants a top-up permission to an incoming EEA firm to carry on regulated activities for which it has neither an EEA right nor a Treaty right, the FSA is responsible for the prudential supervision of the incoming EEA firm, to the extent that the responsibility is not reserved to the incoming EEA firm'sHome State regulator.
For guidance on how to apply for Part IV permission under the Act, see the FSA website "How do I get authorised": http://www.fsa.gov.uk/Pages/Doing/how/index.shtml.1 If an EEA firm or Treaty firm wishes to make any subsequent changes to its top-up permission, it can make an application for variation of that permission (see SUP 6 (Applications to vary and cancel Part IV permission)).1
638This chapter contains rules and guidance on how respondents should deal promptly and fairly with complaints in respect of business carried on from establishments in the United Kingdom or by certain branches of firms in the EEA. It is also relevant to those who may wish to make a complaint or refer it to the Financial Ombudsman Service.
(1) This chapter applies to a firm in respect of complaints from eligible complainants concerning activities carried on from an establishment maintained by it or its appointed representative in the United Kingdom.(2) For complaints relating to the MiFID business of a firm, the complaints handling rules and the complaints record rule:(a) apply to complaints from retail clients and do not apply to complaints from eligible complainants who are not retail clients; (b) also apply in
Under the Act and the Regulated Activities Order, the activities of effecting and carrying out contracts of insurance are treated as being carried on in the United Kingdom on the basis of legal tests under which the location of the risk is only one factor. If the risk is located in the United Kingdom, then (other relevant factors being taken into account) the activity will, in the vast majority of cases, also be viewed as carried on in the United Kingdom. There are exceptions,
So, the effect of App 3.12.1 is that an insurer may be carrying on insurance business in the United Kingdom which is to be treated as a regulated activity under article 10 to the Regulated Activities Order (Effecting and carrying out contracts of insurance) in circumstances where the risks covered are treated as located in another EEA State. In that event, the insurer is required by Schedule 3 to the Act to passport into the State concerned and may be subject to conduct of business
An insurer authorised in another EEA State who is insuring UK risks and so passports on a services basis under the Insurance Directives into the United Kingdom (see ), may not be carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom. But, if it passports into the United Kingdom, it will qualify for authorisation under paragraph 12 of Schedule 3 to the Act (Firms qualifying for authorisation). Where this is the case, the insurer will be subject to conduct of business requirements
The purpose of this section is to give directions to authorised payment institutions and small payment institutions under regulation 82 (Reporting requirements) of the Payment Services Regulations in relation to:(1) the information in respect of their provision of payment services and their compliance with requirements imposed by or under Parts 2 to 6 of the Payment Services Regulations that they must provide to the FSA; and(2) the time at which and the form in which they must
(1) An authorised payment institution or a small payment institution must submit to the FSA the duly completed return applicable to it as set out in column (2) of the table in SUP 16.13.4D.(2) An authorised payment institution or a small payment institution must submit the return referred to in (1):(a) in the format specified as applicable in column (3) of the table in SUP 16.13.4D;(b) at the frequency and in respect of the periods specified in column (4) of that table;(c) by
The table below sets out the format, reporting frequency and due date for submission in relation to regulatory returns that apply to authorised payment institutions and small payment institutions.
(1) |
(2) |
(3) |
(4) |
(5) |
Type of firm |
Return |
Format |
Reporting Frequency |
Due date |
Authorised Payment Institution Capital Adequacy Return |
FSA056 (Note 1) |
Annual (Note 2) |
30 business days (Note 3) |
|
Payment Services Directive Transactions |
FSA057 (Note 4) |
Annual (Note 5) |
1 month (Note 3) |
|
Note 1 |
When submitting the completed return required, the authorised payment institution must use the format of the return set out in SUP 16 Annex 27A D. Guidance notes for the completion of the return are set out in SUP 16 Annex 27B G. |
|||
Note 2 |
This reporting frequency is calculated from an authorised payment institution'saccounting reference date. |
|||
Note 3 |
The due dates are the last day of the periods given in column (5) of the table above following the relevant reporting frequency period set out in column (4) of the table above. |
|||
Note 4 |
When submitting the completed return required, the small payment institution must use the format of the return set out in SUP 16 Annex 28A D. Guidance notes for the completion of the return are set out in SUP 16 Annex 28B G. |
|||
Note 5 |
This reporting frequency is calculated from 31 December each calendar year. |
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The Compulsory Jurisdiction covers complaints about the activities of a firm (including its appointed representatives) or of a payment service provider (including agents of a payment institution)6 carried on from an establishment in the United Kingdom.519(1) [deleted](2) [deleted](3) [deleted](4) [deleted](5) [deleted](6) [deleted]519
The Voluntary Jurisdiction covers only complaints about the activities of a VJ participant carried on from an establishment:519(1) in the United Kingdom; or(2) elsewhere in the EEA if the following conditions are met:(a) the activity is directed wholly or partly at the United Kingdom (or part of it);(b) contracts governing the activity are (or, in the case of a potential customer, would have been) made under the law of England and Wales, Scotland or Northern Ireland; and(c) the
(1) The amount payable by each firm will depend upon the category (or categories) of regulated activities or payment services7it is engaged in (fee-blocks), and on the amount of business it conducts in each category (tariff base). The fee-blocks and tariffs are identified in in respect of the FCA and in respect of the PRAFEES 4 Annex 1 (and guidance on calculating certain of the tariffs is at FEES 4 Annex 12 G and ) ,8 while FEES 4 Annex 2 sets out the tariff rates for the
(1) A firm which becomes authorised or registered 7during the course of a financial year will be required to pay a proportion of the periodic fee which reflects the proportion of the year for which it will have a permission or the right to provide particular payment services7- see FEES 4.2.5 G and FEES 4.2.6 R.(2) Similarly a firm which extends its permission or its right to provide particular payment services7so that its business then falls within additional fee blocks will be
The FSA recognises that its responsibilities in respect of an incoming EEA firm,7 an incoming Treaty firmor an EEA authorised payment institution7 are reduced compared with a firm which is incorporated in the United Kingdom. Accordingly the periodic fees which would otherwise be applicable to incoming EEA firms,7incoming Treaty firms and EEA authorised payment institutions7 are reduced.77
7For a full credit institution or an e-money issuer which is a fee-paying payment service provider and an EEA firm, or for an EEA authorised payment institution, the calculation required by FEES 4.3.3A R is modified as follows:(1) the tariffs set out in Part 5 of FEES 4 Annex 11 are only applied to the payment services of the firm which are carried on from an establishment in the United Kingdom, including payment services provided through any of its agents established in the United
An EEA parent institution and its subsidiary undertakings or the subsidiary undertakings of its EEA parent financial holding company that wish to use any of the approaches listed in BIPRU 1.3.2 G (1) in respect of its group, including members of its group that are BIPRU firms, may apply for an Article 129 permission.
The Article 129 procedure allows an EEA parent institution and its subsidiary undertakings or the subsidiary undertakings of its EEA parent financial holding company to apply for permission to use the approaches in BIPRU 1.3.2 G (1) without making separate applications to the competent authority of each EEA State where members of a firm's group are authorised.
When an advanced measurement approach is intended to be used by an EEA parent institution and its subsidiary undertakings or the subsidiary undertakings of an EEAparent financial holding company, the application of a firm in accordance with BIPRU 1.3.14 D must include the elements listed in BIPRU 6.5.5 R (Minimum standards for the advanced measurement approach).[Note:BCD Article 105(2)]
When an advanced measurement approach is intended to be used by an EEA parent institution and its subsidiary undertakings or the subsidiary undertakings of an EEA parent financial holding company, the application of a firm must include a description of the methodology used for allocating operational risk capital between the different entities of the group.[Note:BCD annexX Part 3 point 30]
(1) This section applies to a motor vehicle liability insurer.(2) The rules in this section relating to the appointment of claims representatives apply in relation to claims by injured parties resulting from accidents occurring in an EEA State other than the injured party'sEEA State of residence which are caused by the use of vehicles insured through an establishment in, and normally based in, an EEA State other than the injured party'sEEA State of residence.(3) The rules in this
A firm must ensure that each claims representative:(1) is responsible for handling and settling a claim by an injured party;(2) is resident or established in the EEA State where it is appointed;(3) collects all information necessary in connection with the settlement of a claim and takes the measures necessary to negotiate its settlement;(4) possesses sufficient powers to represent the firm in relation to an injured party and to meet an injured party's claim in full; and(5) is
(1) A firm must notify to the information centres of all EEA States:(a) the name and address of the claims representative which they have appointed in each of the EEA States;[Note: article 23(2) of the Consolidated Motor Insurance Directive](b) the telephone number and effective date of appointment; and(c) any material change to information previously notified.(2) Notification must be made within ten business days of an appointment or of a material change.
Section 31 of the Act (Authorised persons) states that an EEA firm is authorised for the purposes of the Act if it qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act (EEA Passport Rights). Under paragraph 12 of Part II of that Schedule, an EEA firm that is an EEA pure reinsurer5qualifies for authorisation without condition. AnEEA firm that is not an EEA pure reinsurer qualifies for authorisation5 if:(1) it is seeking to establish a branch in the United Kingdom in exercise
(1) On qualifying for authorisation, subject to SUP 13A.3.2G (2), an EEA firm will have permission to carry on each permitted activity (see (3) below) which is a regulated activity.(2) (a) Paragraph (1) does not apply to the activity of dealing in units in a collective investment scheme in the United Kingdom where:(i) the firm is an EEA UCITS management company;(ii) the firm satisfies the establishment conditions in SUP 13A.4.1 G; and(iii) the FSA notifies the EEA firm and the
An incoming EEA firm (other than an EEA pure reinsurer) 4or incoming Treaty firm carrying on business in the United Kingdom must comply with the applicable provisions (see SUP 13A.4.4 G and SUP 13A.5.4 G) and other relevant UK legislation. For example where the business includes:(1) business covered by the Consumer Credit Act 1974, then an incoming EEA firm or incoming Treaty firm must comply with the provisions of that Act, as modified by paragraph 15(3) of Schedule 3 to the
Under the EEA Passport Rights Regulations, references in section 60 of the Act (applications for approval for persons to perform controlled functions) to "the authorised person concerned" include:33(1) an EEA MiFID investment firm whose Home State regulator has given a consent notice under paragraph 13 of Schedule 3 to the Act (see SUP 13A.4.1G (1) and SUP 13A.4.2 G) or a regulator's notice under paragraph 14 of that Schedule (see SUP 13A.5.3G (1)), and which will be the authorised
1Under section 312C of the Act, if a UK RIE wishes to make arrangements in an EEA State other than the UK to facilitate access to or use of a regulated market or multilateral trading facility operated by it, it must give the FSAwritten notice of its intention to do so. The notice must:(1) describe the arrangements; and(2) identify the EEA State in which the UK RIE intends to make them.