Related provisions for PERG 6.5.2
441 - 460 of 643 items.
1Under
section 312A of the Act, an EEA market operator may make arrangements
in the United Kingdom to facilitate
access to, or use of, a regulated market or multilateral trading facility operated by
it if:(1) the operator has given its Home State regulator notice of its intention
to make such arrangements; and(2) the Home
State regulator has given the FSA notice of the operator's intention.
This guidance is issued under section 157 of the Act (Guidance). It represents the FSA's views and does not bind the courts. For example, it would not bind the courts in an action for damages brought by a private person for breach of a rule (see section 150 of the Act (Actions for damages)), or in relation to the enforceability of a contract where there has been a breach of sections 19 (The general prohibition) or 21 (Restrictions on financial promotion) of the Act (see sections
In determining whether or not the
conduct of an approved person performing a significant influence function complies with Statements
of Principle 5 to 7, the following are factors which, in the
opinion of the FSA, are to be taken into account:(1) whether
he exercised reasonable care when considering the information available to
him;(2) whether
he reached a reasonable conclusion which he acted on;(3) the
nature, scale and complexity of the firm's business;(4) his
role and responsibility
1A UK RIE must immediately notify the FSA of:(1) significant breaches of its rules; or(2) disorderly trading conditions on any of its markets;[Note: Article 26(2), first sentence (part) and Article 43(2), first sentence (part) of MiFID. The rest of Article 26(2), first sentence (in so far as it relates to market operators operating an MTF) and Article 43(2), first sentence of MiFID is implemented by REC 3.21.1 R (2)]
Where, because of the occurrence of any event or circumstances, a UK recognised body is unable to discharge any regulatory function, it must immediately give the FSA notice of its inability to discharge that function, and inform the FSA:(1) what event or circumstance has caused it to become unable to do so; (2) which of its regulatory functions it is unable to discharge; and(3) what action, if any, it is taking or proposes to take to deal with the situation and, in particular,
An issuer must
ensure that listing particulars for securities referred to in LR 4.1.1 R are approved by the FSA and published in accordance with LR 4.3.5 R.Note:
Under LR 2.2.11 R,
the securities will only be listed if listing
particulars for the securities have
been approved by the FSA and published.
(1) In order to discharge its functions under the Act, the FSA needs timely and accurate information about firms. The provision of this information on a regular basis enables the FSA to build up over time a picture of firms' circumstances and behaviour.(2) Principle 11 requires a firm to deal with its regulators in an open and cooperative way, and to tell the FSA appropriately anythingof which the FSA would reasonably expect notice. The reporting requirements are part of the
Where a UK recognised body's complaints investigator has investigated a complaint arising in connection with the performance of, or failure to perform, any of its regulatory functions, and that complaints investigator has made a recommendation in respect of that complaint that the UK recognised body should:(1) make a compensatory payment to any person; or(2) remedy the matter which was the subject of that complaint;the UK recognised body must immediately notify the FSA of that
A firm should consider whether it should notify the FSA under Principle 11 if:(1) the firm expects or knows its auditor will qualify his report on the audited annual financial statements or add an explanatory paragraph; or (2) the firm receives a written communication from its auditor commenting on internal controls (see also SUP 15.3).
Where a UK recognised body has evidence tending to suggest that any person has:(1) been carrying on any regulated activity in the United Kingdom in contravention of the general prohibition; or(2) been engaged in market abuse; or(3) committed a criminal offence under the Act or subordinate legislation made under the Act; or(4) committed a criminal offence under Part V of the Criminal Justice Act 1993 (Insider dealing); or(5) committed a criminal offence under the Money Laundering
In the FSA's view, the question of whether funds are invested by BC with the aim of spreading investment risk is not affected by the levels of risk involved in particular investments. What matters for these purposes is that the aim is to spread the risk, whatever it may be. For example, the value of each of BC's investments, if taken separately, might be subject to a high level of risk. However, this would not itself result in BC failing to satisfy the property condition as long
Principles 3, 4 and (in so far as it relates to disclosing to the FSA) 11 (and this chapter) also:(1) apply with respect to the carrying on of unregulated activities (for Principle 3 this is only in a prudential context); and(2) take into account any activity of other members of a group of which the firm is a member.
1LR applies as follows:(1) all of LR (other than LR 8.3, LR 8.4, LR 8.6 and LR 8.7) applies to an issuer; and(2) LR 1, LR 8.1, LR 8.3, LR 8.4, LR 8.6 and LR 8.7 apply to a sponsor and a person applying for approval as a sponsor.FSA performing functions as competent authorityNote: In relation to the listing rules, the FSA is performing functions as the competent authority under Part VI of the Act (see section 72(1) of the Act).Note: when exercising its functions as the competent
1The FSA believes that Principle 7 requires charges imposed by a firm on customers to be transparent and that imposing unfair or excessive charges is inconsistent with Principle 6. Note: A firm should also have regard to its obligations under the Unfair Terms Regulations.and may find material on the FSA website concerning the FSA's consumer protection powers useful.