Related provisions for PERG 6.2.2

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FEES 1.1.1GRP
151FEES applies to all persons required to pay a fee or levy under a provision of the Handbook. The purpose of this chapter is to set out to whom the rules and guidance in FEES apply. FEES 2 (General Provisions) contains general provisions which may apply to any type of fee payer. FEES 3 (Application, Notification and Vetting Fees) covers one-off fees payable on a particular event for example various application fees (including those in relation to authorisation, variation of
PERG 5.6.9GRP
The exclusion will be of assistance to introducers who would otherwise be carrying on the regulated activity of making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments (assuming, as mentioned in PERG 5.6.8 G, that they provide information only to policyholders or potential policyholders, and not to the intermediary or insurance undertaking to whom they introduce these policyholders or potential policyholders). In order to assist such introducers determine whether or not
PERG 5.6.11GRP
In the FSA's view, the crucial element of the exclusion in article 27 is the inclusion of the word 'merely'. When a publisher, broadcaster or internet website operator goes beyond what is necessary for him to provide his service of publishing, broadcasting or otherwise facilitating the issue of promotions, he may well bring himself within the scope of article 25(2). Further detailed guidance relating to the scope of the exclusion in article 27 is contained in PERG 2.8.6G (2) (Arranging
PERG 5.6.13GRP
Market makers in traded endowment policies may be able to rely on this exclusion to avoid the need to be authorised. They must ensure, however, that where they are carrying on the regulated activity of dealing in investments as principal (article 14) they are also able to rely on the exclusions in articles 15 or 16 (see the guidance in PERG 2.8.4 G (Dealing in investments as principal)).
PERG 5.6.18GRP
The effect of PERG 5.6.17G (4) is that some persons who, in making introductions, are making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments under article 25(2) of the Regulated Activities Order, cannot use the introducing exclusion. This is if, in general terms, the arrangements for making introductions relate to contracts of insurance (PERG 5.6.19 G has further guidance on when arrangements for introductions may be regarded as relating to contracts of insurance). However,
FEES 4.4.9DRP
3To the extent that an authorised payment institution or an EEA authorised payment institution has provided the information required by FEES 4.4.7 D to the FSA as part of its compliance with another provision of the Handbook, it is deemed to have complied with the provisions of this section.
PERG 8.17.1GRP
Section 21 applies to financial promotions concerning agreements for qualifying credit. PERG 8.17.1A G to PERG 8.17.18 G has guidance about the treatment of such financial promotions. Section 21 applies not only to financial promotions about regulated mortgage contracts but also to financial promotions about certain other types of credit agreement. This is explained in more detail in PERG 8.17.2 G. to PERG 8.17.3 G.222
PERG 8.17.1AGRP
Section 21 also applies to financial promotions concerning home reversion plans,3home purchase plans and regulated sale and rent back agreements3. Guidance on these activities and related financial promotions is given in PERG 14 (Guidance on home reversion, home purchase and regulated sale and rent back3activities).2
SYSC 3.1.3GRP
Where the UK Corporate Governance Code4 is relevant to a firm, the FSA, in considering whether the firm's obligations under SYSC 3.1.1 R have been met, will give it due credit for following corresponding provisions in the code4and related guidance.44
SYSC 3.1.8GRP
2The Training and Competence sourcebook (TC) contains additional rules and guidance relating to specified retail activities undertaken by a firm.
REC 1.1.1GRP
The rules and guidance in this sourcebook apply to recognised bodies and to applicants for recognition as recognised bodies under Part XVIII of the Act (Recognised Investment Exchanges and Clearing Houses).
REC 1.1.1AGRP
The guidance in REC 6A applies to EEA market operators exercising passporting rights in the United Kingdom. 2
REC 1.1.3GRP
(1) The recognition requirements for UK recognised bodies and the MiFID implementing requirements2are set out, with guidance, in REC 2.(2) The notification rules for UKrecognised bodies are set out in REC 3 together with guidance on those rules.(3) Guidance on the FSA's approach to the supervision of recognised bodies is given in REC 4.(4) Guidance for applicants (and potential applicants) for UK recognised body status is given in REC 5.(5) The recognition requirements, notification
COND 2.3.11AGRP
5Paragraphs 3(2)(e) to (f) of Schedule 6 to the Act reflect legislation initially introduced in the Post-BCCI Directive, which defines close links, in part, by reference to participation. Recital 5 of the Post-BCCI Directive gives further guidance on what is meant by ‘participation’ for the purposes of the directive. It states that the sole fact of having acquired a significant proportion of a company’s capital does not constitute participation for the purposes of the directive
COND 2.3.12GRP
The guidance in COND 2.3 is not comprehensive and is not a substitute for consulting the relevant legislation, for example the Companies Act 2006,4 the Friendly Societies Act 1992 and the Seventh Company Law Directive, or obtaining appropriate professional advice.4
SYSC 2.1.5GRP
SYSC 2.1.3 R and SYSC 2.1.4 R give a firm some flexibility in the individuals to whom the functions may be allocated. It will be common for both the functions to be allocated solely to the firm's chief executive. SYSC 2.1.6 G contains further guidance on the requirements of SYSC 2.1.3 R and SYSC 2.1.4 R in a question and answer form.
SYSC 2.1.6GRP

Frequently asked questions about allocation of functions in SYSC 2.1.3 R

This table belongs to SYSC 2.1.5 G

Question

Answer

1

Does an individual to whom a function is allocated under SYSC 2.1.3 R need to be an approved person?

An individual to whom a function is allocated under SYSC 2.1.3 R will be performing the apportionment and oversight function (CF 8, see SUP 10.7.1 R) and an application must be made to the FSA for approval of the individual before the function is performed under section 59 of the Act (Approval for particular arrangements). There are exceptions from this in SUP 10.1 (Approved persons - Application).

5

2

If the allocation is to more than one individual, can they perform the functions, or aspects of the functions, separately?

If the functions are allocated to joint chief executives under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2, they are expected to act jointly. If the functions are allocated to an individual under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2, in addition to individuals under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 3, the former may normally be expected to perform a leading role in relation to the functions that reflects his position. Otherwise, yes.

3

What is meant by "appropriately allocate" in this context?

The allocation of functions should be compatible with delivering compliance with Principle 3, SYSC 2.1.1 R and SYSC 3.1.1 R. The FSA considers that allocation to one or two individuals is likely to be appropriate for most firms.

4

If a committee of management governs a firm or group, can the functions be allocated to every member of that committee?

Yes, as long as the allocation remains appropriate (see Question 3).If the firm also has an individual as chief executive, then the functions must be allocated to that individual as well under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2 (see Question 7).

5

Does the definition of chief executive include the possessor of equivalent responsibilities with another title, such as a managing director or managing partner?

Yes.

6

Is it possible for a firm to have more than one individual as its chief executive?

Although unusual, some firm may wish the responsibility of a chief executive to be held jointly by more than one individual. In that case, each of them will be a chief executive and the functions must be allocated to all of them under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2 (see also Questions 2 and 7).

7

If a firm has an individual as chief executive, must the functions be allocated to that individual?

Normally, yes, under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2.

But if the firm is a body corporate and a member of a group, the functions may, instead of to the firm's chief executive, be allocated to a director or senior manager from the group responsible for the overall management of the group or of a relevant group division, so long as this is appropriate (see Question 3). Such individuals willnevertheless require approval by the FSA (see Question 1).

If the firm chooses to allocate the functions to a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of a relevant group division, the FSA would expect that individual to be of a seniority equivalent to or greater than a chief executive of the firm for the allocation to be appropriate.

See also Question 14.

8

If a firm has a chief executive, can the functions be allocated to other individuals in addition to the chief executive?

Yes. SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 3, permits a firm to allocate the functions, additionally, to the firm's (or where applicable the group's) directors and senior managers as long as this is appropriate (see Question 3).

9

What if a firm does not have a chief executive?

Normally, the functions must be allocated to one or more individuals selected from the firm's (or where applicable the group's) directors and senior managers under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 3.

But if the firm:

(1) is a body corporate and a member of a group; and

(2) the group has a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of the group or of a relevant group division;

then the functions must be allocated to that individual (together, optionally, with individuals from column 3 if appropriate) under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2.2

10

What do you mean by "group division within which some or all of the firm's regulated activities fall"?

A "division" in this context should be interpreted by reference to geographical operations, product lines or any other method by which the group's business is divided.

If the firm's regulated activities fall within more than one division and the firm does not wish to allocate the functions to its chief executive, the allocation must, under SYSC 2.1.4 R, be to:

(1) a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of the group; or

(2) a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of one of those divisions;

together, optionally, with individuals from column 3 if appropriate. (See also Questions 7 and 9.)

11

How does the requirement to allocate the functions in SYSC 2.1.3R apply to an overseas firm which is not an incoming EEA firm, incoming Treaty firm or UCITS qualifier?

The firm must appropriately allocate those functions to one or more individuals, in accordance with SYSC 2.1.4 R, but:

(1) The responsibilities that must be apportioned and the systems and controls that must be overseen are those relating to activities carried on from a UK establishment with certain exceptions (see SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.7 R)6. Note that SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.10 R6 does not extend the territorial scope of SYSC 2 for an overseas firm.

(2) The chief executive of an overseas firm is the person responsible for the conduct of the firm's business within the United Kingdom (see the definition of "chief executive"). This might, for example, be the manager of the firm's UK establishment, or it might be the chief executive of the firm as a whole, if he has that responsibility.

The apportionment and oversight function applies to such a firm, unless it falls within a particular exception from the approved persons regime (see Question 1).

66

12

How does the requirement to allocate the functions in SYSC 2.1.3R apply to an incoming EEA firm or incoming Treaty firm?

SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.1R6and SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.8 R6restrict the application of SYSC 2.1.3 R for such a firm. Accordingly:

(1) Such a firm is not required to allocate the function of dealing with apportionment in SYSC 2.1.3 R (1).

(2) Such a firm is required to allocate the function of oversight in SYSC 2.1.3 R (2). However, the systems and controls that must be overseen are those relating to matters which the FSA, as Host State regulator, is entitled to regulate (there is guidance on this in SUP 13A Annex 2 G3). Those are primarily, but not exclusively, the systems and controls relating to the conduct of the firm's activities carried on from its UK branch.

(3) Such a firm need not allocate the function of oversight to its chief executive; it must allocate it to one or more directors and senior managers of the firm or the firm's group under SYSC 2.1.4 R, row (2).

(4) An incoming EEA firm which has provision only for cross border services is not required to allocate either function if it does not carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom; for example if they fall within the overseas persons exclusions in article 72 of the Regulated Activities Order.

See also Questions 1 and 15.1

663

13

What about a firm that is a partnership or a limited liability partnership?

The FSA envisages that most if not all partners or members will be either directors or senior managers, but this will depend on the constitution of the partnership (particularly in the case of a limited partnership) or limited liability partnership. A partnership or limited liability partnership may also have a chief executive (see Question 5). A limited liability partnership is a body corporate and, if a member of a group, will fall within SYSC 2.1.4 R, row (1) or (2).

14

What if generally accepted principles of good corporate governance recommend that the chief executive should not be involved in an aspect of corporate governance?

The Note to SYSC 2.1.4 R provides that the chief executive or other executive director or senior manager need not be involved in such circumstances. For example, the UK Corporate Governance Code7 recommends that the board of a listed company should establish an audit committee of non-executive directors to be responsible for oversight of the audit. That aspect of the oversight function may therefore be allocated to the members of such a committee without involving the chief executive. Such individuals may require approval by the FSA in relation to that function (see Question 1).

7

15

What about electronic commerce activities carried on from an establishment in another EEA State with or for a person in the United Kingdom?4

4

SYSC does not apply to an incoming ECA provider acting as such.1

4
FEES 3.2.7RRP

Table of application, notification and vetting fees

(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable

Due date

(a) Any applicant for Part IV permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission)

(1) Unless (2) applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application.

(2) In respect of a particular application which is:

(i) a straightforward or moderately complex case for the purposes of FEES 3 Annex 1 part 1, and

(ii) only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6,

the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11

1

On or before the application is made

(b) Any Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right, except for a firm providing cross border services only4

(1) Where no certificate has been issued under paragraph 3(4) of Schedule 4 to the Act the fee payable is, in respect of a particular exercise, set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, part 4

(2) Where a certificate in (i) has been issued no fee is payable

On or before the notice of exercise is given

(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order

2,000

On or before the application is made

(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition of, a collective investment scheme

FEES 3 Annex 2, part 1

On or before the application is made

(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body.

10,000

30 days after the order is granted

(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body under section 287 or section 288 of the Act

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(h) Any applicant for recognition as an overseas recognised body under section 287 or section 288 and section 292 of the Act

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(i) An applicant for listing (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(j) Applicant for approval as sponsor (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(k) Issuers of tranches from debt issuance programmes and securitised derivative tranches

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

An upfront fee is required per tranche for draw downs in the following 12 months

(l) Under the listing rules, an issuer involved in specific events or transactions during the year where documentation is subject to a transaction vetting

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 1, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (v) or super transaction under category 7(q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA

(m) Under the prospectus rules, an issuer or person requesting approval or vetting of the documents arising in relation to specific events or transactions that it might be involved in during the year

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 2, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (v) or super transaction under category 7(q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA

(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges

50,000

On or before the date the application is made

2(o) Either:5

(i) a firm applying to the FSA for permission to use one of the advanced prudential calculation approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6 R (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the FSA as EEA consolidated supervisor under the ) any firm making such an application ;5 or

(ii) in the case of an application to 5a Home State regulator other than the FSA5for the use of the Internal Ratings Based approach and the Home State regulator requesting the FSA's assistance in accordance with the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 , any firm to which the FSA would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach.5

112555

(1) Unless5 (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6.5

(2) (a) Unless5 (b) applies a1firm submitting a second application for the permission or5guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application

(b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission5 based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1

(c) No fee is payable where the Home State regulator has requested the assistance of the FSAas described in paragraph (o)(ii) of column 1 except in the cases specified in 5FEES 3 Annex 6.2

5251255555

Where the firm has made an application directly to the FSA, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the FSA notifies the firm that its EEA parent's Home State regulator has requested the FSA's assistance.2

2

(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part IV permission

(1) Unless (2) or (3)11 applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1 not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in which apply to that application.

(2) If the only change is that the1 A.12 activity group tariff applied to the firm's business before the variation and the A.13 activity group will apply after variation, no fee is payable

(3) If the firm is in the A.1 fee-block at the date of the application and the variation involves adding any of the regulated activities of meeting of repayment claims or managing dormant account funds (including the investment of such funds), the fee is 50% of the fee in FEES 3 Annex 1 R that applies to that application11

(4) 11 In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250, unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part IV permission in which case no fee is payable.1

1111

On or before the date the application is made

2(q) A super7transaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 1.5 billion and it is a new applicant for a premium listing1379 under the listing rules, or involved in a reverse or hostile takeover or a significant restructuring; or

(ii) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 5 billion and is involved in a class 1 transaction,7 a transaction requiring vetting of an equity prospectus or equivalent document or a transaction requiring vetting of a prospectus in relation to a Depositary Receipt.7

7137977

50,000

On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA.3

33

2(r) Providers of reporting or trade matching systems applying for recognition under MiFID as an Approved Reporting Mechanism.

100,0006

6

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FSA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.6

56

5(s) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme, a transferor.

Note - for the purpose of this paragraph an insurance business transfer scheme consists of a single transferor and a single transferee. Where however such a scheme is part of a single larger scheme, that larger scheme is treated as a single insurance business transfer scheme. If an insurance business transfer scheme includes more than one transferor in accordance with this paragraph, the transferors are liable to pay the fee under column (2) jointly.

Either (1) or (2) as set out below:

(1) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme involving long term insurance business, 18,500; or

(2) in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme not involving long term insurance business, 10,000.

On or before any application is made to the FSA for the appointment of a person as an independent expert.

6(t) A firm, a third party acting on a firm's behalf, an operator of a regulated market or an operator of an MTF applying to the FSA to report transaction reports directly to the FSA other than through the FSA's Transaction Reporting System (see FEES 4.2.11 R and FEES 4 Annex 3 for the fees payable for firms using the FSA's Transaction Reporting System).

100,000

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FSA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.

7(u) Any of the following:

(i) an operator of an approved reporting mechanism;

(ii) a firm;

(iii) a third party acting on behalf of a firm;

(iv) a market operator; or

(v) an MTF operator;

that satisfies the following conditions:

(1) it provides transaction reports directly to the FSA; and

(2) having made changes to its reporting systems, it asks the FSA to support the testing of the compatibility of its systems with the FSA's systems.

As set out in FEES 3 Annex 7.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

(v) A significant transaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 500 million and is producing an equity prospectus, a prospectus in relation to a Depository Receipt or a document in relation to a class 1 transaction; or

(ii) the issuer is producing a document for vetting in relation to a reverse takeover, a hostile takeover or a significant restructuring.

A significant transaction does not include a super transaction.

20,000

On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA.

(w) A listed issuer that requests or whose representative requests the FSA to amend the Official List, or any records held by the FSA in relation to the Official List, otherwise than pursuant to an application for listing.

FEES 3 Annex 4 part 3

On or before the date the request is made.

(x)

(i) An issuer or person who:

(1) is a fee payer under one or more of the categories set out in (ii); and

(2) requests the FSA's approval or vetting of a document that includes a mineral expert's report.

(ii) The categories are (1), (m) (q), and (v) of this table.

(iii) A fee under this category is payable in addition to any fee payable under the categories set out in (ii).

5,000

On or before the date the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA.8

8(y) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised payment institution under regulation 5 of the Payment Services Regulations

The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8 which apply to that application.

Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in

FEES 3 Annex 8R

On or before the date the application is made.

(z) An application by a small payment institution for authorisation as an authorised payment institution because regulation 15 of the Payment Services Regulations applies

The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.

On or before the date the application is made.

(za) An applicant for registration as a small payment institution under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations

FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (1). Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zb) An authorised payment institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Payment Services Regulations.

(1) If the payment services carried on by the authorised payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) or (h) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.

(2) Where the

authorised payment institution:(i) already has authorisation to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other services in (a) to (g); or

(ii) has authorisation to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its authorisation to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g));

the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has.

(3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zc) A small payment institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations

(1) If the payment services carried on by the small payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8Rwhich apply to that application.

(2) Where the small payment institution:

(i) is already registered to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other of the services in (a) to (g); or

(ii) is registered to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its registration to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g));the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has.

(2)

(3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.

On or before the date the application is made.

A financial institution notifying the FSA in accordance with regulation 121(2)(a) of the Payment Services Regulations.

50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3Annex 8R, paragraphs (2) to (5) which apply to that application.

On or before the date the application is made.

(ze) Any person to which the Special Project Fee for restructuring applies under FEES 3 Annex 9.12

12

Special Project Fee for restructuring in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 9 .

30 days of the date of the invoice.9

(zf) An applicant for a ceding insurer's waiver.

20,000

On or before the date the application is made.9

15(zl) An applicant for recognition as an accredited body.

2,500

On or before the date the application is made.

SUP 16.1.1ADRP
22The directions and guidance in SUP 16.13 apply to an authorised payment institution and a small payment institution.
SUP 16.1.3RRP

Application of different sections of SUP 16

88888888811999988888

(1) Section(s)

(2) Categories of firm to which section applies

(3) Applicable rules and guidance

SUP 16.1,SUP 16.2andSUP 16.3

All categories of firm except:

Entire sections

(a)

an ICVC;

(b)

an incoming EEA firm or incoming Treaty firm, which is not:

(i)

a firm of a type to which SUP 16.6 or 20SUP 16.1220 applies; or

(ii)

an insurer with permission to effect or carry outlife policies; or

(iii)3

a with to establish, operate or wind up a stakeholder pension scheme;14a firm with permission to establish, operate or wind up a personal pension scheme or a stakeholder pension scheme;14

(c)

a UCITS qualifier.

SUP 16.4 and SUP 16.52

All categories of firm except:

Entire sections

(-a)

a credit union;2

(a)

an ICVC;

(b)

an incoming EEA firm;

(c)

an incoming Treaty firm;

(d)

a non-directive friendly society;

(e)4

[deleted]4

(f)

a sole trader;

(g)

a service company;

(h)

a UCITS qualifier;8

8

(i)8

a firm with permission to carry on only retail investment activities;8

(j)8

a firm with permission to carry on only insurance mediation activity, home finance mediation activity,16 or both;8

16

(k)8

a firm falling within both (i) and (j)8

SUP 16.6

Bank, ELMI

SUP 16.6.4 R to SUP 16.6.5 R

Depositary of an ICVC

SUP 16.6.6 R to SUP 16.6.9 G

OPS firm

SUP 16.6.6 R to SUP 16.6.8 R

Trustee of an AUT

SUP 16.6.6 R to SUP 16.6.9 G

SUP 16.7

Bank, other than an EEA bank with permission for cross border services only.118

SUP 16.7.7 R to SUP 16.7.15 R18

Building society18

SUP 16.7.16 R to SUP 16.7.19 R18

Service company

SUP 16.7.20 R to SUP 16.7.21 R

UK ISPV15

SUP 16.7.21A R and SUP 16.7.21B R15

Securities and futures firm (other than an oil market participant to which IPRU(INV) 3 does not apply)

SUP 16.7.22 R to SUP 16.7.34 G

Investment management firm

SUP 16.7.35 R to SUP 16.7.41 R

Authorised professional firm (note)

SUP 16.7.54 Rand SUP 16.7.54A R12

Society of Lloyd's

SUP 16.7.55 R to SUP 16.7.56 R and SUP 16.7.59 R (1) and SUP 16.7.59 R (2)

Members' adviser

SUP 16.7.57 R to SUP 16.7.58 R, SUP 16.7.59 R (3), SUP 16.7.60 G and SUP 16.7.61 G17

Credit Union182

SUP 16.7.62 R to SUP 16.7.63 R182

ELMI

SUP 16.7.64 R to SUP 16.7.66 R

UCITS management company6

6SUP 16.7.67 R to SUP 16.7.72 R17

Member of a financial conglomerate1018

SUP 16.7.82 R to SUP 16.7.83 R1018

13Insurer Friendly society

SUP 16.7.73 RtoSUP 16.7.75 R

A firm not subject to other reporting requirements in SUP 16.7.1 G - SUP 16.7.75 R (nor to reporting requirements in IPRU(INS) or IPRU(FSOC)):81112

SUP 16.7.76 R to SUP 16.7.81 G8811

(1)8

with permission to carry on one or more of:8

(a)8

insurance mediation activity; or8

(b)8

home finance mediation activity;16 or8

16

(c)8

home finance providing activity;16 or8

16

(d)8

administering a home finance transaction;16 or8

16

(2)8

which is a personal investment firm811

SUP 16.8

Insurer with permission to effect or carry out life policies, unless it is a non-directive friendly society3

Entire section

3Firm with permission to establish, operate or wind up a personal pension scheme or a stakeholder pension scheme14

14

Entire section3

SUP 16.95

Firm with permission to advise on investments; arrange (bring about) deals in investments; make arrangements with a view to transactions in investments; or arrange safeguarding and administration of assets5

Entire section5

SUP 16.109

All categories of firm except:9

Entire section9

(a)9

an ICVC;9

(b)9

a UCITS qualifier; 21

(c)9

a credit union; and219

21(d)

a dormant account fund operator.

SUP 16.118

A firm, other than a managing agent, which is:8

Entire section8

(1)8

a home finance provider;16 or8

16

(2)8

an insurer; or8

(3)8

the operator of a regulated collective investment scheme or an investment trust savings scheme; or8

(4)8

a person who issues or manages the relevant assets of the issuer of a structured capital-at-risk product8.

17SUP 16.12

A firm undertaking the regulated activities as listed in SUP 16.12.4 R, unless exempted in SUP 16.12.1 G

Sections as relevant to regulated activities as listed in SUP 16.12.4 R

PERG 8.12.22GRP
Article 19(4) sets out conditions which, if all are satisfied, offer conclusive proof that a financial promotion is directed only at investment professionals. These conditions relate to indications accompanying the financial promotion and the existence of proper systems and procedures. The guidance about proper systems and procedures in PERG 8.12.6 G applies equally to article 19. Article 19(6) specifically states that a financial promotion may be treated as made only to or directed
PERG 8.12.25GRP
With this objective in mind, the exemption in article 20 applies to any non-real time financial promotion the contents of which are devised by a person acting as a journalist where the financial promotion is in:1(1) a newspaper, journal, magazine or other periodical publication;(2) a regularly updated news or information service (such as a website or teletext service); or(3) a television or radio broadcast or transmission.In addition, the publication, service or broadcast must
PERG 8.12.32GRP
Article 20A provides a further exemption for certain financial promotionscommunicated by means of a service or broadcast which satisfies the principal purpose test in article 54 of the Regulated Activity Order (see PERG 8.12.25 G and PERG 7). Readers of this section should also refer to the guidance on company statements in PERG 8.21.1
PERG 8.12.34GRP
The exemption applies where the financial promotion:(1) comprises words which are spoken by the director or employee and not broadcast, transmitted or displayed in writing; or(2) is displayed in writing only because it is part of an interactive dialogue to which the director or employee is a party and in the course of which he is expected to respond immediately to questions put by a recipient of the communication.This is provided that the financial promotion is not part of an
PERG 8.3.2GRP
Section 21 of the Act does not itself (other than in its heading and side-note) refer to a ‘financial promotion’ but rather to the communication of ‘an invitation or inducement to engage in investment activity’. References in this guidance to a financial promotion mean an invitation or inducement to engage in investment activity.
PERG 8.3.5GRP
In addition, this guidance deals with other factors such as when the exemptions in the Financial Promotion Order can be applied, including the exemptions relating to territorial scope and one-off financial promotions.
PERG 1.1.1GRP
This manual applies to:(1) a person who is considering carrying on activities in the United Kingdom which may fall within the scope of the Act and is seeking guidance on whether he needs to be an authorised person;(2) a person who seeks to become an authorised person under the Act and who is, or is considering, applying to the FSA for Part IV permission to carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom;(3) a person who is seeking guidance on whether any communication he may
PERG 1.1.2GRP
The purpose of this manual is to give guidance about the circumstances in which authorisation is required, or exempt person status is available, including guidance on the activities which are regulated under the Act and the exclusions which are available.
RCB 4.1.1GRP
1This chapter contains guidance for issuers, and owners and other persons subject to the RCB Regulations.
RCB 4.1.2GRP
The purpose of this chapter is to give guidance on the FSA's approach to the use of its enforcement powers under the RCB Regulations and to set out the FSA's policy on the imposition and amount of financial penalties.
SUP 7.1.3GRP
The Handbook primarily contains provisions which apply to all firms or to certain categories of firm. However, a firm may apply for a waiver or modification of rules in certain circumstances as set out in SUP 8; or it may receive individual guidance on the application of the rules, as set out in SUP 9.
SUP 7.1.4GRP
The FSA, in the course of its supervision of a firm, may sometimes judge it necessary or desirable to impose additional requirements on a firm or in some way amend or restrict the activities which the firm has permission to undertake. The guidance in this chapter describes when and how the FSA will seek to do this.
CASS 1A.1.1RRP
(1) 1This chapter applies to a firm to which either or both of CASS 6 (Custody rules) and CASS 7 (Client money rules) applies.(2) In relation to a firm to which CASS 5 (Client money: insurance mediation activity) and CASS 7 (Client money rules) apply, this chapter does not apply in relation to client money that a firm holds in accordance with CASS 5.
SYSC 13.2.1GRP
SYSC 13 provides guidance on how to interpret SYSC 3.1.1 R and SYSC 3.2.6 R, which deal with the establishment and maintenance of systems and controls, in relation to the management of operational risk. Operational risk has been described by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision as "the risk of loss, resulting from inadequate or failed internal processes, people and systems, or from external events". This chapter covers systems and controls for managing risks concerning any
SYSC 13.2.2GRP
Operational risk is a concept that can have a different application for different firms. A firm should assess the appropriateness of the guidance in this chapter in the light of the scale, nature and complexity of its activities as well as its obligations as set out in Principle 3, to organise and control its affairs responsibly and effectively.
PERG 6.2.1GRP
The purpose of this guidance is to set out:(1) at PERG 6.5 the general principles; and(2) at PERG 6.6 the range of specific factors;that the FSA regards as relevant in deciding whether any arrangement is a contract of insurance.
For complaints about sales that took place prior to 14 January 2005, a firm should take account of the evidential provisions in this appendix as if they were guidance.