Related provisions for INSPRU 1.5.4

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BIPRU 12.5.18GRP
In the FSA's view, Type A wholesale funding is likely to include at least funding which:(1) is accepted from a credit institution, local authority, insurance undertaking, pension fund, money market fund, asset manager (including a hedge fund manager), government-sponsored agency, sovereign government, or sophisticated non-financial corporation; or(2) is accepted through the treasury function of a sophisticated non-financial corporation which may be assumed to respond swiftly to
BIPRU 12.5.38RRP
In relation to an incoming EEA firm or third country BIPRU firm which does not have a whole-firm liquidity modification, that firm must assess the risk that its UKbranch may be exposed to calls on liquidity under its control from its head office:(1) in normal financial conditions; and(2) under the liquidity stresses required by BIPRU 12.5.6 R.
BIPRU 2.2.19GRP
(1) Individual capital guidance may also be given with respect to group capital resources. This paragraph explains how such guidance should be interpreted unless the individual capital guidance specifies another interpretation.(2) If BIPRU 8.2.1 R (General consolidation rule for a UK consolidation group) applies to the firm the guidance relates to its UK consolidation group. If BIPRU 8.3.1 R (General consolidation rule for a non-EEA sub-group) applies to the firm the guidance
BIPRU 2.2.43RRP
If BIPRU 2.2.41 R applies to a firm on a consolidated basis the following adjustments are made to BIPRU 2.2.41 R in accordance with the general principles of BIPRU 8 (Group risk - consolidation):(1) references to capital resources are to the consolidated capital resources of the firm'sUK consolidation group or, as the case may be, its non-EEA sub-group; and(2) references to the capital requirements in GENPRU 2.1 (Calculation of capital resources requirements) are to the consolidated
COLL 5.2.1RRP
This section applies to an ICVC, an ACD, a manager of an AUT, a depositary of an ICVC and a trustee of an AUT, where such ICVC or AUT is a UCITS scheme, in accordance with COLL 5.2.2 R (Table of application).
PERG 2.8.2GRP
Only one exclusion applies to the regulated activity of accepting deposits. Adeposit taker providing its services as an electronic commerce activity from another EEA State into the United Kingdom (see PERG 2.9.18 G) does not carry on a regulated activity. In addition to the situations that are excluded from being 'deposits' (see PERG 2.6.2 G to PERG 2.6.4 G), several persons are exempt persons in relation to the regulated activity of accepting deposits (see PERG 2.10.8G (2)).
INSPRU 1.1.3RRP
For a non-EEA insurer with a branch in the United Kingdom whose insurance business in the United Kingdom is not restricted to reinsurance (other than an EEA-deposit insurer, a Swiss general insurer or a UK-deposit insurer):(1) the part of this section headed "Capital requirements for insurers" (INSPRU 1.1.43 G to INSPRU 1.1.92B G) applies to its world-wide activities;(2) the parts of this section headed:(a) "Establishing technical provisions" (INSPRU 1.1.12 R to INSPRU 1.1.19
INSPRU 1.1.4RRP
For an EEA-deposit insurer or a Swiss general insurer:(1) the parts of this section headed:(a) "Establishing technical provisions" (INSPRU 1.1.12 R to INSPRU 1.1.19 G);(b) "Reinsurance and analogous non-reinsurance financing agreements: risk transfer principle" (INSPRU 1.1.19A R to INSPRU 1.1.19F G);(c) "Assets of a value sufficient to cover technical provisions and other liabilities" (INSPRU 1.1.20 R to INSPRU 1.1.29 G);(d) "Matching of assets and liabilities" (INSPRU 1.1.34
DTR 1.3.6RRP
If an issuer is required to notify information to a RIS at a time when a RIS is not open for business, it must distribute the information as soon as possible to:(1) not less than two national newspapers in the United Kingdom;(2) two newswire services operating in the United Kingdom; and(3) a RIS for release as soon as it opens.
SUP 18.1.1GRP
1This chapter provides guidance in relation to business transfers.(1) SUP 18.2 applies to any firm or to anymember of Lloyd's proposing to transfer the whole or part of its business by an insurance business transfer scheme or to accept such a transfer. SUP 18.2.31 G to SUP 18.2.41 G also applyto the independent expert making the scheme report.(2) SUP 18.3 applies to any firm proposing to accept certain transfers of insurance business taking place outside the United Kingdom.(3)
REC 1.2.1GRP
The purpose of the guidance (other than in REC 6A) 2in this sourcebook is to give information on the recognition requirements, other obligations on recognised bodies in or under the Act and the MiFID implementing requirements. The purpose of the guidance in REC 6A is to give EEA market operators information about their passporting rights in the United Kingdom2. Explanations of the purposes of the rules in this sourcebook are given in the chapters concerned.22
COLL 7.6.1GRP
(1) A proposal that an authorised fund should be involved in a scheme of arrangement is subject to written notice to and approval by the FSA under section 251 of the Act (Alteration of schemes and changes of manager or trustee) or regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations (The Authority's approval for certain changes in respect of a company). Effect cannot be given to such a change except in accordance with that section or regulation.(2) The issue of units in exchange for assets as
SUP 16.4.2AGRP
8This section may be of relevance to non-directive firms.
BIPRU 3.2.29AGRP
(1) 2In relation to BIPRU 3.2.25 R (1)(ba), a subsidiary undertaking should generally be 100% owned and controlled by a single shareholder. However, if a subsidiary undertaking has more than one shareholder, that undertaking may be a member of the core UK group if all its shareholders are also members of the same core UK group. (2) For the purpose of BIPRU 3.2.25R (1)(d) (Incorporation in the UK), if a counterparty is of a type that falls within the scope of the Council Regulation
SUP 3.4.4GRP
An auditor which a firm proposes to appoint should have skills, resources and experience commensurate with the nature, scale and complexity of the firm's business and the requirements and standards under the regulatory system to which it is subject. A firm should have regard to whether its proposed auditor has expertise in the relevant requirements and standards (which may involve access to UK expertise) and possesses or has access to appropriate specialist skill, for example
PERG 5.1.8GRP
Rights conferred on third parties cannot be affected by guidance given by the FSA. This guidance represents the FSA's view, and does not bind the courts, for example, in relation to the enforceability of a contract where there has been a breach of the general prohibition on carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom without authorisation (see sections 26 to 29 of the Act (Enforceability of Agreements)).
SYSC 4.4.6GRP

Frequently asked questions about allocation of functions in SYSC 4.4.5 R

Question

Answer

1

Does an individual to whom a function is allocated under SYSC 4.4.5 R need to be an approved person?

An individual to whom a function is allocated under SYSC 4.4.5 R will be performing the apportionment and oversight function (CF 8, see SUP 10.7.1 R) and an application must be made to the FSA for approval of the individual before the function is performed under section 59 of the Act (Approval for particular arrangements). There are exceptions from this in SUP 10.1 (Approved persons - Application).

2

If the allocation is to more than one individual, can they perform the functions, or aspects of the functions, separately?

If the functions are allocated to joint chief executives under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2, they are expected to act jointly. If the functions are allocated to an individual under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2, in addition to individuals under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 3, the former may normally be expected to perform a leading role in relation to the functions that reflects his position. Otherwise, yes.

3

What is meant by "appropriately allocate" in this context?

The allocation of functions should be compatible with delivering compliance with Principle 3, SYSC 4.4.3 R and SYSC 4.1.1 R. The FSA considers that allocation to one or two individuals is likely to be appropriate for most firms.

4

If a committee of management governs a firm or group, can the functions be allocated to every member of that committee?

Yes, as long as the allocation remains appropriate (see Question 3). If the firm also has an individual as chief executive, then the functions must be allocated to that individual as well under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2 (see Question 7).

5

Does the definition of chief executive include the possessor of equivalent responsibilities with another title, such as a managing director or managing partner?

Yes.

6

Is it possible for a firm to have more than one individual as its chief executive?

Although unusual, some firms may wish the responsibility of a chief executive to be held jointly by more than one individual. In that case, each of them will be a chief executive and the functions must be allocated to all of them under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2 (see also Questions 2 and 7).

7

If a firm has an individual as chief executive, must the functions be allocated to that individual?

Normally, yes, under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2.

But if the firm is a body corporate and a member of a group, the functions may, instead of being allocated to the firm'schief executive, be allocated to a director or senior manager from the group responsible for the overall management of the group or of a relevant group division, so long as this is appropriate (see Question 3). Such individuals will nevertheless require approval by the FSA (see Question 1).

If the firm chooses to allocate the functions to a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of a relevant group division, the FSA would expect that individual to be of a seniority equivalent to or greater than a chief executive of the firm for the allocation to be appropriate.

See also Question 14.

8

If a firm has a chief executive, can the functions be allocated to other individuals in addition to the chief executive?

Yes. SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 3, permits a firm to allocate the functions, additionally, to the firm's (or where applicable the group's) directors and senior managers as long as this is appropriate (see Question 3).

9

What if a firm does not have a chief executive?

Normally, the functions must be allocated to one or more individuals selected from the firm's (or where applicable the group's) directors and senior managers under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 3.

But if the firm:

(1) is a body corporate and a member of a group; and

(2) the group has a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of the group or of a relevant group division;

then the functions must be allocated to that individual (together, optionally, with individuals from column 3 if appropriate) under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2.

10

What do you mean by "group division within which some or all of the firm's regulated activities fall"?

A "division" in this context should be interpreted by reference to geographical operations, product lines or any other method by which the group's business is divided.

If the firm's regulated activities fall within more than one division and the firm does not wish to allocate the functions to its chief executive, the allocation must, under SYSC 4.4.5 R, be to:

(1) a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of the group; or (2) a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of one of those divisions;

together, optionally, with individuals from column 3 if appropriate. (See also Questions 7 and 9.)

11

How does the requirement to allocate the functions in SYSC 4.4.5 R apply to an overseas firm which is not an incoming EEA firm, incoming Treaty firm or UCITS qualifier?

The firm must appropriately allocate those functions to one or more individuals, in accordance with SYSC 4.4.5 R, but:

(1) The responsibilities that must be apportioned and the systems and controls that must be overseen are those relating to activities carried on from a UK establishment with certain exceptions (see

SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.8R). Note that SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.10R does not extend the territorial scope of SYSC 4.4 for an overseas firm.

(2) The chief executive of an overseas firm is the person responsible for the conduct of the firm's business within the United Kingdom (see the definition of "chief executive"). This might, for example, be the manager of the firm'sUK establishment, or it might be the chief executive of the firm as a whole, if he has that responsibility.

The apportionment and oversight function applies to such a firm, unless it falls within a particular exception from the approved persons regime (see Question 1).

12

How does the requirement to allocate the functions in SYSC 4.4.5 R apply to an incoming EEA firm or incoming Treaty firm?

SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.1R(2) and SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.8R restrict the application of SYSC 4.4.5 R for such a firm. Accordingly:

(1) Such a firm is not required to allocate the function of dealing with apportionment in SYSC 4.4.5R (1).

(2) Such a firm is required to allocate the function of oversight in SYSC 4.4.5R (2). However, the systems and controls that must be overseen are those relating to matters which the FSA, as Host State regulator, is entitled to regulate (there is guidance on this in SUP 13A Annex 2). Those are primarily, but not exclusively, the systems and controls relating to the conduct of the firm's activities carried on from its UK branch.

(3) Such a firm need not allocate the function of oversight to its chief executive; it must allocate it to one or more directors and senior managers of the firm or the firm'sgroup under SYSC 4.4.5 R, row (2).

(4) An incoming EEA firm which has provision only for cross border services is not required to allocate either function if it does not carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom; for example if they fall within the overseas persons exclusions in article 72 of the Regulated Activities Order.

See also Questions 1 and 15.

13

What about a firm that is a partnership or a limited liability partnership?

The FSA envisages that most if not all partners or members will be either directors or senior managers, but this will depend on the constitution of the partnership (particularly in the case of a limited partnership) or limited liability partnership. A partnership or limited liability partnership may also have a chief executive (see Question 5). A limited liability partnership is a body corporate and, if a member of a group, will fall within SYSC 4.4.5 R, row (1) or (2).

14

What if generally accepted principles of good corporate governance recommend that the chief executive should not be involved in an aspect of corporate governance?

The Note to SYSC 4.4.5 R provides that the chief executive or other executive director or senior manager need not be involved in such circumstances. For example, the UK Corporate Governance Code5 recommends that the board of a listed company should establish an audit committee of non-executive directors to be responsible for oversight of the audit. That aspect of the oversight function may therefore be allocated to the members of such a committee without involving the chief executive. Such individuals may require approval by the FSA in relation to that function (see Question 1).

5

15

What about incoming electronic commerce activities carried on from an establishment in another EEA State with or for a person in the United Kingdom?

SYSC does not apply to an incoming ECA provider acting as such.

PERG 9.11.1GRP

Table There are some frequently asked questions about the application of the definition of an open-ended investment company in the following table. This table belongs to PERG 9.2.4 G (Introduction).

Question

Answer

1

Can a body corporate be both open-ended and closed-ended at the same time?

In the FSA's view, the answer to this question is 'no'. The fact that the investment condition is applied to BC (rather than to particular shares in, or securities of, BC) means that a body corporate is either an open-ended investment company as defined in section 236 of the Act or it is not. Where BC is an open-ended investment company, all of its securities would be treated as units of a collective investment scheme for the purpose of the Act. A body corporate formed in another jurisdiction may, however, be regarded as open-ended under the laws of that jurisdiction but not come within the definition of an open-ended investment company in section 236 (and vice versa).

2

Can an open-ended investment company become closed-ended (or a closed-ended body become open-ended)?

In the FSA's view, the answer to this question is 'yes'. A body corporate may change from open-ended to closed-ended (and vice versa) if, taking an overall view, circumstances change so that a hypothetical reasonable investor would consider that the investment condition is no longer met (or vice versa). This might happen where, for example, an open-ended investment company stops its policy of redeeming shares or securities at regular intervals (so removing the expectation that a reasonable investor would be able to realise his investment within a period appearing to him to be reasonable). See also PERG 9.7.5 G.

3

Does the liquidation of a body corporate affect the assessment of whether or not the body is an open-ended investment company?

The FSA considers that the possibility that a body corporate that would otherwise be regarded as closed-ended may be wound up has no effect at all on the nature of the body corporate before the winding up. The fact that, on a winding up, the shares or securities of any investor in the body corporate may be converted into cash or money on the winding up (and so 'realised') would not, in the FSA's view, affect the outcome of applying the expectation test to the body corporate when looked at as a whole. The answer to Question 4 explains that investment in a closed-ended fixed term company shortly before its winding up does not, in the FSA's view, change the closed-ended nature of the company. For companies with no fixed term, the theoretical possibility of a winding up at some uncertain future point is not, in the FSA's view, a matter that would generally carry weight with a reasonable investor in assessing whether he could expect to be able to realise his investment within a reasonable period.

4

Does a fixed term closed-ended investment company become an open-ended investment company simply because the fixed term will expire?

In the FSA's view, the answer to this is 'no'. The termination of the body corporate is an event that has always been contemplated (and it will appear in the company's constitution). Even as the date of the expiry of the fixed term approaches, there is nothing about the body corporate itself that changes so as to cause a fundamental reassessment of its nature as something other than closed-ended. Addressing this very point in parliamentary debate, the Economic Secretary to the Treasury stated that the "aim and effect [of the definition] is to cover companies that look, to a reasonable investor, like open-ended investment companies". The Minister added that "A reasonable investor's overall expectations of potential investment in a company when its status with respect to the definition is being judged will determine whether it meets the definition. The matter is therefore, definitional rather than one of proximity to liquidation". (Hansard HC, 5 June 2000 col 124).

5

In what circumstances will a body corporate that issues a mixture of redeemable and non-redeemable shares or securities be an open-ended investment company?

In the FSA's view, the existence of non-redeemable shares or securities will not, of itself, rule out the possibility of a body corporate falling within the definition of an open-ended investment company. All the relevant circumstances will need to be considered (see PERG 9.6.4 G, PERG 9.2.8.8G and PERG 9.8.9 G). So the following points need to be taken into account.

  • The precise terms of the issue of all the shares or securities will be relevant to the question whether the investment condition is met, as will any arrangements that may exist to allow the investor to realise his investment by other means.
  • The proportions of the different share classes will be relevant to the impression the reasonable investor forms of the body corporate. A body corporate that issues only a minimal amount of redeemable shares or securities will not, in theFSA's view, be an open-ended investment company. A body corporate that issues a minimal amount of non-redeemable shares or securities will be likely to be an open-ended investment company. A body corporate that falls within the definition of an open-ended investment company is likely to have (and to be marketed as having) mainly redeemable shares or securities. However, whether or not the body corporate does fall within the definition in any particular case will be subject to any contrary indications there may be in its constitutional documents or otherwise.
  • Where shares or securities are only redeemable after the end of a stated period, this factor will make it more likely that the body corporate is open-ended than if the shares or securities are never redeemable.

6

Does "realised on a basis calculated wholly or mainly by reference to..." in section 236(3)(b) apply to an investor buying investment trust company shares traded on a recognised investment exchange because of usual market practice that the shares trade at a discount to asset value?

In the FSA's view, the answer is 'no' (for the reasons set out in PERG 9.9.4 G to PERG 9.9.6 G).

7

Does the practice of UK investment trust companies buying back shares result in them becoming open-ended investment companies?

In the FSA's view, it does not, because its actions will comply with company law: see section 236(4) of the Act and PERG 9.6.5 G.

8

Would a body corporate holding out redemption or repurchase of its shares or securities every six months be an open-ended investment company?

In the FSA's view a period of six months would generally be too long to be a reasonable period for a liquid securities fund. A shorter period affording more scope for an investor to take advantage of any profits caused by fluctuations in the market would be more likely to be a reasonable period for the purpose of the realisation of the investment (in the context of the 'expectation' test, see PERG 9.8 and, in particular, PERG 9.8.9 G which sets out the kind of factors that may need to be considered in applying the test).

9

Would an initial period during which it is not possible to realise investment in a body corporate mean that the body corporate could not satisfy the investment condition?

In the FSA's view, the answer to that question is 'no'. In applying the investment condition, the body corporate must be considered as a whole (see PERG 9.6.3 G). At the time that the shares or securities in a body corporate are issued, a reasonable investor may expect that he will be able to realise his investment within a reasonable period notwithstanding that there will first be a short-term delay before he can do so. Whether or not the 'expectation test' is satisfied will depend on all the circumstances (see PERG 9.8.9 G).