Related provisions for SUP App 3.6.1

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PR 3.2.4RRP
A prospectus is deemed to be made available to the public for the purposes of PR 3.2.1 R to PR 3.2.3 R when published either:(1) by insertion in one or more newspapers circulated throughout, or widely circulated in, the EEA States in which the offer is made or the admission to trading is sought; or(2) in a printed form to be made available, free of charge, to the public at the offices of the regulated market on which the transferable securities are being admitted to trading, or
MCOB 4.11.10GRP
The effect of MCOB 4.11.9R is that a SRB agreement provider is expected to carry out its own assessments of affordability and appropriatenessin relation to a particular regulated sale and rent back agreement, unless it is reasonable for it to rely on another firm to have done so in relation to a particular transaction.
DTR 5.4.9RRP
Undertakings whose registered office is in a third country which would have required authorisation in accordance with Article 5 (1) of the UCITS directive or with regard to portfolio management under point 4 of section A of Annex 1 to MiFID if it had its registered office or, only in the case of an investment firm, its head office within the EEA,2 shall be exempted from aggregating holdings with the holdings of its parent undertaking under this rule provide that they comply with
LR 18.2.8RRP
(1) If an application is made for the admission of a class of certificates representing shares of an overseas company, a sufficient number of certificates must, no later than the time of admission, be distributed to the public in one or more EEA States.(2) For the purposes of paragraph (1), account may also be taken of holders in one or more states that are not EEA States, if the certificates are listed in the state or states.(3) For the purposes of paragraph (1), a sufficient
LR 17.3.4RRP
(1) An issuer must publish its annual report and annual accounts as soon as possible after they have been approved.1(2) An issuer must approve and publish its annual report and accounts within six months of the end of the financial period to which they relate.(3) The annual report and accounts must:1(a) have been prepared in accordance with the issuer's national law and, in all material respects, with national accounting standards or IAS; and1(b) have been independently audited
DTR 6.1.15RRP
If only holders of debt securities whose denomination per unit amounts to at least 50,000 Euros(or an equivalent amount) are to be invited to a meeting, the issuer may choose as a venue any EEA State, provided that all the facilities and information necessary to enable such holders to exercise their rights are made available in that EEA State. [Note: article 18(3) of the TD]
PERG 5.7.8GRP
A 'relevant insurer' for the purposes of article 39B means:(1) an authorised person who has permission for effectingand carrying out contracts of insurance; or(2) a member of the Society of Lloyd's or the members of the Society of Lloyd's taken together; or(3) an EEA firm that is an insurer; or(4) a reinsurer, being a person whose main business consists of accepting risks ceded by a person falling under (1), (2) or (3) or a person who is established outside the United Kingdom
SUP 12.9.5RRP
2If a UK MiFID investment firm appoints an EEA tied agent this section applies to that firm as though the EEA tied agent were an appointed representative.
LR 14.2.2RRP
(1) If an application is made for the admission of a class of shares, a sufficient number of shares of that class must, no later than the time of admission, be distributed to the public in one or more EEA States.(2) For the purposes of paragraph (1), account may also be taken of holders in one or more states that are not EEA States, if the shares are listed in the state or states.(3) For the purposes of paragraph (1), a sufficient number of shares will be taken to have been distributed
SYSC 2.1.6GRP

Frequently asked questions about allocation of functions in SYSC 2.1.3 R

This table belongs to SYSC 2.1.5 G

Question

Answer

1

Does an individual to whom a function is allocated under SYSC 2.1.3 R need to be an approved person?

An individual to whom a function is allocated under SYSC 2.1.3 R will be performing the apportionment and oversight function (CF 8, see SUP 10.7.1 R) and an application must be made to the FSA for approval of the individual before the function is performed under section 59 of the Act (Approval for particular arrangements). There are exceptions from this in SUP 10.1 (Approved persons - Application).

5

2

If the allocation is to more than one individual, can they perform the functions, or aspects of the functions, separately?

If the functions are allocated to joint chief executives under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2, they are expected to act jointly. If the functions are allocated to an individual under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2, in addition to individuals under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 3, the former may normally be expected to perform a leading role in relation to the functions that reflects his position. Otherwise, yes.

3

What is meant by "appropriately allocate" in this context?

The allocation of functions should be compatible with delivering compliance with Principle 3, SYSC 2.1.1 R and SYSC 3.1.1 R. The FSA considers that allocation to one or two individuals is likely to be appropriate for most firms.

4

If a committee of management governs a firm or group, can the functions be allocated to every member of that committee?

Yes, as long as the allocation remains appropriate (see Question 3).If the firm also has an individual as chief executive, then the functions must be allocated to that individual as well under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2 (see Question 7).

5

Does the definition of chief executive include the possessor of equivalent responsibilities with another title, such as a managing director or managing partner?

Yes.

6

Is it possible for a firm to have more than one individual as its chief executive?

Although unusual, some firm may wish the responsibility of a chief executive to be held jointly by more than one individual. In that case, each of them will be a chief executive and the functions must be allocated to all of them under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2 (see also Questions 2 and 7).

7

If a firm has an individual as chief executive, must the functions be allocated to that individual?

Normally, yes, under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2.

But if the firm is a body corporate and a member of a group, the functions may, instead of to the firm's chief executive, be allocated to a director or senior manager from the group responsible for the overall management of the group or of a relevant group division, so long as this is appropriate (see Question 3). Such individuals willnevertheless require approval by the FSA (see Question 1).

If the firm chooses to allocate the functions to a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of a relevant group division, the FSA would expect that individual to be of a seniority equivalent to or greater than a chief executive of the firm for the allocation to be appropriate.

See also Question 14.

8

If a firm has a chief executive, can the functions be allocated to other individuals in addition to the chief executive?

Yes. SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 3, permits a firm to allocate the functions, additionally, to the firm's (or where applicable the group's) directors and senior managers as long as this is appropriate (see Question 3).

9

What if a firm does not have a chief executive?

Normally, the functions must be allocated to one or more individuals selected from the firm's (or where applicable the group's) directors and senior managers under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 3.

But if the firm:

(1) is a body corporate and a member of a group; and

(2) the group has a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of the group or of a relevant group division;

then the functions must be allocated to that individual (together, optionally, with individuals from column 3 if appropriate) under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2.2

10

What do you mean by "group division within which some or all of the firm's regulated activities fall"?

A "division" in this context should be interpreted by reference to geographical operations, product lines or any other method by which the group's business is divided.

If the firm's regulated activities fall within more than one division and the firm does not wish to allocate the functions to its chief executive, the allocation must, under SYSC 2.1.4 R, be to:

(1) a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of the group; or

(2) a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of one of those divisions;

together, optionally, with individuals from column 3 if appropriate. (See also Questions 7 and 9.)

11

How does the requirement to allocate the functions in SYSC 2.1.3R apply to an overseas firm which is not an incoming EEA firm, incoming Treaty firm or UCITS qualifier?

The firm must appropriately allocate those functions to one or more individuals, in accordance with SYSC 2.1.4 R, but:

(1) The responsibilities that must be apportioned and the systems and controls that must be overseen are those relating to activities carried on from a UK establishment with certain exceptions (see SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.7 R)6. Note that SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.10 R6 does not extend the territorial scope of SYSC 2 for an overseas firm.

(2) The chief executive of an overseas firm is the person responsible for the conduct of the firm's business within the United Kingdom (see the definition of "chief executive"). This might, for example, be the manager of the firm's UK establishment, or it might be the chief executive of the firm as a whole, if he has that responsibility.

The apportionment and oversight function applies to such a firm, unless it falls within a particular exception from the approved persons regime (see Question 1).

66

12

How does the requirement to allocate the functions in SYSC 2.1.3R apply to an incoming EEA firm or incoming Treaty firm?

SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.1R6and SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.8 R6restrict the application of SYSC 2.1.3 R for such a firm. Accordingly:

(1) Such a firm is not required to allocate the function of dealing with apportionment in SYSC 2.1.3 R (1).

(2) Such a firm is required to allocate the function of oversight in SYSC 2.1.3 R (2). However, the systems and controls that must be overseen are those relating to matters which the FSA, as Host State regulator, is entitled to regulate (there is guidance on this in SUP 13A Annex 2 G3). Those are primarily, but not exclusively, the systems and controls relating to the conduct of the firm's activities carried on from its UK branch.

(3) Such a firm need not allocate the function of oversight to its chief executive; it must allocate it to one or more directors and senior managers of the firm or the firm's group under SYSC 2.1.4 R, row (2).

(4) An incoming EEA firm which has provision only for cross border services is not required to allocate either function if it does not carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom; for example if they fall within the overseas persons exclusions in article 72 of the Regulated Activities Order.

See also Questions 1 and 15.1

663

13

What about a firm that is a partnership or a limited liability partnership?

The FSA envisages that most if not all partners or members will be either directors or senior managers, but this will depend on the constitution of the partnership (particularly in the case of a limited partnership) or limited liability partnership. A partnership or limited liability partnership may also have a chief executive (see Question 5). A limited liability partnership is a body corporate and, if a member of a group, will fall within SYSC 2.1.4 R, row (1) or (2).

14

What if generally accepted principles of good corporate governance recommend that the chief executive should not be involved in an aspect of corporate governance?

The Note to SYSC 2.1.4 R provides that the chief executive or other executive director or senior manager need not be involved in such circumstances. For example, the UK Corporate Governance Code7 recommends that the board of a listed company should establish an audit committee of non-executive directors to be responsible for oversight of the audit. That aspect of the oversight function may therefore be allocated to the members of such a committee without involving the chief executive. Such individuals may require approval by the FSA in relation to that function (see Question 1).

7

15

What about electronic commerce activities carried on from an establishment in another EEA State with or for a person in the United Kingdom?4

4

SYSC does not apply to an incoming ECA provider acting as such.1

4
LR 3.3.2RRP
The following documents must be submitted, in final form, to the FSA by midday two business days before the FSA is to consider the application:(1) a completed Application for Admission of Securities to the Official List;(2) one of:(a) the prospectus, or listing particulars, that has been approved by the FSA; or(b) a copy of the prospectus, a certificate of approval and (if applicable) a translation of the summary of the prospectus, if another EEA State is the home Member State
LR 9.8.7ARRP
(1) 7An overseas company with a premium listing that is not required to comply with requirements imposed by another EEA State that correspond to DTR 7.2 (Corporate governance statements) must comply with DTR 7.2 as if it were an issuer to which that section applies.(2) An overseas company with a premium listing which complies with LR 9.8.7 R will be taken to satisfy the requirements of DTR 7.2.2 R and DTR 7.2.3 R, but (unless it is required to comply with requirements imposed
BIPRU 5.4.65RRP
If under the CRD implementation measure for a particular EEA State with respect to point 58 of Part 3 of Annex VIII of the Banking Consolidation Directive (Conditions for applying the 0% volatility adjustment) the treatment set out in that point is permitted to be applied in the case of repurchase transactions or securities lending or borrowing transactions in securities issued by the domestic government of that EEA State, then a firm may adopt the same approach to the same transactions.[Note:BCD
BIPRU 4.6.20RRP
(1) This rule, in accordance with BIPRU 4.3.57 R (4) (Definition of default), sets the exact number of days past due that a firm must abide by in the case of retail exposures.(2) For retail exposures to counterparts situated within the United Kingdom the number of days past due is 180 days with the exception of retail SME exposures. For these exposures the number is 90 days.(3) For retail exposures to counterparts situated in another EEA State the number of days past due is the
SUP 6.3.3GRP
In applying for a variation of Part IV permission, a branch of a firm from outside the EEA should be mindful of any continuing requirements referred to in the rest of the Handbook.1010
BIPRU 7.2.44RRP

Table: specific risk PRAs

This table belongs to BIPRU 7.2.43R.

Issuer

Residual maturity

PRA

Debt securities issued or guaranteed by central governments, issued by central banks, international organisations, multilateral development banks or EEA States' regional governments or local authorities which would qualify for credit quality step 1 or which would receive a 0% risk weight under the standardised approach to credit risk.

Any

0%

(A) Debt securities issued or guaranteed by central governments, issued by central banks, international organisations, multilateral development banks or EEA States' regional governments or local authorities which would qualify for credit quality step 2 or 3 under the standardised approach to credit risk.

(B) Debt securities issued or guaranteed by institutions which would qualify for credit quality step 1 or 2 under the standardised approach to credit risk.

(C) Debt securities issued or guaranteed by institution which would qualify for credit quality step 3 under BIPRU 3.4.34 R (Exposures to institutions: Credit assessment based method) or which would do so if it had an original effective maturity of three months or less.

(D) Debt securities issued or guaranteed by corporates which would qualify for credit quality step 1 or 2 under the standardised approach to credit risk.

(E) Other qualifying debt securities (see BIPRU 7.2.49R)

Zero to six months

0.25%

over 6 and up to and including 24 months

1%

Over 24 months

1.6%

(A) Debt securities issued or guaranteed by central governments, issued by central banks, international organisations, multilateral development banks or EEA States' regional governments or local authorities or institutions which would qualify for credit quality step 4 or 5 under the standardised approach to credit risk.

(B) Debt securities issued or guaranteed by corporates which would qualify for credit quality step 3 or 4 under the standardised approach to credit risk.

(C) Exposures for which a credit assessment by a nominated ECAI is not available.

Any

8%

(A) Debt securities issued or guaranteed by central governments, issued by central banks, international organisations, multilateral development banks or EEA States' regional governments or local authorities or institution which would qualify for credit quality step 6 under the standardised approach to credit risk.

(B) Debt securities issued or guaranteed by corporate which would qualify for credit quality step 5 or 6 under the standardised approach to credit risk.

(C) An instrument that shows a particular risk because of the insufficient solvency of the issuer of liquidity. This paragraph applies even if the instrument would otherwise qualify for a lower PRA under this table.

Any

12%

Note: The question of what a corporate is and of what category a debt security falls into must be decided under the rules relating to the standardised approach to credit risk.