Related provisions for PERG 6.7.11
61 - 80 of 635 items.
When considering whether it is satisfied under section 148(6), the FSA is required by section 148(7) of the Act:(1) to take into account whether the waiver relates to a rule contravention of which is actionable under section 150 of the Act (Actions for damages); Schedule 5 identifies such rules;(2) to consider whether its publication would prejudice, to an unreasonable degree, the commercial interests of the firm concerned, or any other member of its immediate group; and(3) to
Waivers can affect the legal rights of third parties, including consumers. In the FSA's view it is important that the fact and effect of such waivers should be transparent. So the fact that a waiver relates to a rule that is actionable under section 150 of the Act (see SUP 8.6.2 G (1)) will tend to argue in favour of publication.
In considering whether commercial interests would be prejudiced to an unreasonable degree (see SUP 8.6.2 G (2)), the FSA will weigh the prejudice to firms' commercial interests against the interests of consumers, markets and other third parties in disclosure. In doing so the FSA will consider factors such as the extent to which publication of the waiver would involve the premature release of proprietary information to commercial rivals, for example relating to a product innovation,
If, after taking into account the matters in SUP 8.3.3 D to SUP 8.6.6 G, a firm believes there are good grounds for the FSA either to withhold publication or to publish the waiver without disclosing the identity of the firm, it should make this clear in its application (see SUP 8.3.3 D (7)). If the FSAproposes to publish a waiver against the wishes of the firm, the FSA will give the firm the opportunity to withdraw its application before the waiver is given.
A decision to withhold a waiver or identity of a firm from publication may be for a limited period only, usually as long as the duration of the relevant grounds for non-publication. If the FSA proposes to publish information about a waiver that had previously been withheld, it will first give the firm an opportunity to make representations.
There is no definition in the Financial Promotion Order of what ‘proper systems and procedures’ are, and the matter will ultimately be for the courts to determine. This is unsurprising as systems and procedures may take many different forms depending upon the precise circumstances in which financial promotions are made. But it is clear that persons seeking conclusive proof that the exemption applies must consciously make arrangements to prevent their dealing with certain recipients
In any case, some but not all of the conditions referred to in PERG 8.12.5G (1) to PERG 8.12.5G (2) and PERG 8.12.7G (1) to PERG 8.12.7G (2) (or the additional condition that the communication is included in a website, newspaper or periodical publication which is principally accessed in or intended for a non-UK market or in a radio or television broadcast or teletext service transmitted principally for reception overseas) may be met. In these cases, those conditions being satisfied
This exemption applies to any financial promotion that is made with a view to or for the purposes of introducing the recipient to certain kinds of person. These are authorised persons who carry on the controlled activity to which the financial promotion relates, or exempt persons where the financial promotion relates to a controlled activity that is also a regulated activity in relation to which he is an exempt person. This is subject to the requirement that:11(1) the person making
The conditions in article 18(2) include a requirement that the person making the financial promotion does not select, modify or otherwise exercise control over its content before it is transmitted or received. Article 18(3) provides that a person is not selecting, modifying or exercising control merely as a result of having power to remove material which is illegal, defamatory or in breach of copyright or at the request of a regulatory body or where the law requires him to do
The conditions in article 18 also require that the person acting as the mere conduit must communicate in the course of an activity1 carried on by him the principal purpose of which is transmitting or receiving material provided to him by others. In the FSA's view, what matters is that the person is carrying on an activity1 which has the required principal purpose. Such an activity1 might represent but a part of a person’s overall business1 activities (however small), so long as
Article 19(4) sets out conditions which, if all are satisfied, offer conclusive proof that a financial promotion is directed only at investment professionals. These conditions relate to indications accompanying the financial promotion and the existence of proper systems and procedures. The guidance about proper systems and procedures in PERG 8.12.6 G applies equally to article 19. Article 19(6) specifically states that a financial promotion may be treated as made only to or directed
With this objective in mind, the exemption in article 20 applies to any non-real time financial promotion the contents of which are devised by a person acting as a journalist where the financial promotion is in:1(1) a newspaper, journal, magazine or other periodical publication;(2) a regularly updated news or information service (such as a website or teletext service); or(3) a television or radio broadcast or transmission.In addition, the publication, service or broadcast must
Provided the conditions in PERG 8.12.25 G are met, the exemption in article 20 applies to any non-real time financial promotion. However, there is an additional condition where the subject matter of the financial promotion is shares or options, futures or contracts for differences relating to shares and the financial promotion identifies directly a person who issues or provides such an investment. In such cases, the exemption is subject to a disclosure requirement which is itself
The effect of PERG 8.12.27G (1) is that a journalist will not breach section 21 by not disclosing a financial interest, providing that the publication, service or broadcast concerned operates proper systems and procedures. As with the exemption in article 12 of the Financial Promotion Order (see PERG 8.12.6 G), what proper systems and procedures are will be a matter ultimately for the courts to determine and may vary according to the medium used. It will depend upon all the circumstances
Persons such as experts or analysts may be approached to contribute at very short notice and may be overseas. In such cases, the systems and procedures referred to in PERG 8.12.29 G may not be practical. It is the FSA's opinion that, where occasional contributors are concerned, proper systems and procedures may include arrangements for ensuring that the need for disclosure (or the avoidance of financial interests) is drawn to the contributor’s attention before the communication
It appears to the FSA, however, that there will be situations when it may not be practical for the persons who are responsible for a publication, service or broadcast to apply proper systems and procedures to every person who may, whilst acting in the capacity of a journalist, communicate a financial promotion. For example where persons are asked to stand in at the last moment. In such cases, it is the FSA's opinion that the benefit of the exclusion will not be lost as respects
The exemption applies where the financial promotion:(1) comprises words which are spoken by the director or employee and not broadcast, transmitted or displayed in writing; or(2) is displayed in writing only because it is part of an interactive dialogue to which the director or employee is a party and in the course of which he is expected to respond immediately to questions put by a recipient of the communication.This is provided that the financial promotion is not part of an
The first part of the exemption (referred to in PERG 8.12.34G (1)) specifically precludes any form of written communication. However, the FSA understands that the Treasury did not intend to prohibit the use of written words in the form of subtitling. These may be an aid to those with hearing difficulties or to interpret a foreign language, or the use of captions which supplement a spoken communication by highlighting aspects of it without introducing anything new. The FSA cannot
In the FSA's view, the matters identified in PERG 8.10.2 G mean that:(1) for a communication to be real time it must be made in course of an interactive dialogue; but that(2) if the interactive dialogue takes place by means of the exchange of letters or e-mails or in a publication, the communication will be deemed to be non-real time. In this case, publications include newspapers, journals, magazines or other periodical publications, websites or similar systems for the electronic
The words ‘personal visit, telephone conversation or other interactive dialogue’ clearly imply that the first two are types of the third. In the FSA's view, it is difficult to envisage circumstances in which a personal visit or telephone conversation would not be interactive. The very fact of a conversation taking place would mean two or more persons were interacting with each other. A telephone call is not the same thing as a conversation. It may be made to, or even by, an intelligent
In the FSA's view, the fact that scope for interaction is essential if a financial promotion is to be real time leads to the following conclusions.(1) Most communications made in written or pictorial form will not offer scope for interaction. The most likely exception to this is where persons are expected to respond immediately. This situation may arise, for example, where the equivalent of a telephone conversation is conducted by e-mail. This is the basis of the exemption in
In the FSA's view, a communication which may exist in enduring form will be a non-real time communication. Examples of this include videos, audio cassettes, bulletin boards, websites and recorded telephone messages. Messages placed on Internet chat-rooms will also be non-real time. Radio or television programmes or teletext services may contain communications that involve an interactive dialogue. For example, a communication made by the broadcaster and addressed to an interviewee
PERG 8.6.9 G explains that article 6 of the Financial Promotion Order has the broad effect that a communication is made to another person where it is addressed to a particular person or persons. It also states that a ‘recipient’ of a communication is the person or persons to who it is made (that is to whom it is addressed). This takes on importance where certain exemptions which apply to real time financial promotions made to a person are concerned. It appears to the FSA that,
In the FSA's view, persons who may be engaging in investment activity jointly include:(1) a married couple;(2) two or more persons, who will invest jointly in a product (for example, a cohabiting couple who are not married or members of a family);(3) the directors of a company or partners in a firm;(4) members of a group of companies;(5) the participants in a joint commercial enterprise;(6) the members of an investment club; and(7) the managers or prospective managers of a company
In the FSA's view, the mere fact of a person accepting an invitation to attend a meeting does not automatically mean that he has initiated any dialogue which may take place during the meeting and which may amount to a financial promotion. This will depend on the facts of each case and such matters as the manner in which the invitations are made, the arrangements for acceptance and how the meeting is conducted. For example, the fact that investments or investment services will
1The FSA will treat a firm as
acting in accordance with SUP 17.2.1 R in circumstances where the firm enters
into a transaction with another person in the course of providing a service
of portfolio management on
behalf of one or more clients, provided it:(1) enters into the transaction in
the exercise of a discretion conferred on it by an investment mandate or does
so having specifically recommended the transaction to
its client;(2) has reasonable grounds to be satisfied
that the
1The FSA will expect a firm which
seeks to rely upon the waiver in SUP 17.2.3 R to take reasonable steps
to verify that transaction reports
will be made in accordance with the standards laid down in this chapter and
in particular should ascertain and remain satisfied that:(1) the provider of the transaction reporting facility maintains
an automated reporting system which the firm is
able to access through the efficient inputting of transactions into
the system;(2) the terms of
(1) 21The operator of , an approved
reporting mechanism2, or the operator of an MTF or a market
operator through whose systems a reportable transaction is
to be completed and which has, pursuant to SUP 17.2.3 R,
agreed to make transactionreports2 to the FSA on behalf of a firm,
must:2(a) make reports to the FSA in respect of each to which
the agreement relates;2(b) ensure such reports 2contain the reporting fields
specified in SUP
17 Annex 1, where applicable; and2(c) ensure
Requests for individual guidance may be made in writing or orally. If oral queries raise complex or significant issues, the FSA will normally expect the details of the request to be confirmed in writing. Simple requests for guidance may often be dealt with orally, although it is open to a person to seek a written confirmation from the FSA of oral guidance given by the FSA.
A firm and its professional advisers should address requests for individual guidance to the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FSA, with the exception of requests for guidance on the Code of Market Conduct (MAR 1) which should be addressed to the specialist team within the Markets and Exchanges Division. A firm may wish to discuss a request for guidance with the relevant contact before making a written request.
The FSA will aim to respond quickly and fully to reasonable requests. The FSA will give high priority to enquiries about areas of genuine uncertainty or about difficulties in relating established requirements to innovative practices or products. What constitutes a 'reasonable request' is a matter for the FSA. It will depend on the nature of the request and on the resources of the firm or other person making it. The FSA will expect the person to have taken reasonable steps to research
The FSA will always need sufficient information and time before it can properly evaluate the situation and respond to a request. If a request is time-critical, the person or its professional adviser should make this clear. The more notice a person can give the FSA, the more likely it is that the FSA will be able to meet the person's timetable. However, the time taken to respond will necessarily depend upon the complexity and novelty of the issues involved. In making a request,
An applicant must submit, in final form, to the FSA by midday two business days before the FSA is to consider the application:1(1) a completed Application for Admission of Securities to the Official List;(2) either:(a) the prospectus, or listing particulars that has been approved by the FSA; or(b) a copy of the prospectus, a certificate of approval and (if applicable) a translation of the summary of the prospectus, if another EEA State is the home Member State for the securities;1(3)
11If confirmation of the number of securities to be issued pursuant to a board resolution cannot be submitted to the FSA by the deadline set out in LR 3.4.4 R or, the number of securities to be admitted is lower than the number notified under LR 3.4.4 R, written confirmation of the number of securities to be issued or admitted must be provided to the FSA by the applicant at least one hour before the admission to listing is to become effective.
An applicant must comply with LR 3.4.4 R to LR 3.4.6 R with the following modifications:1(1) [deleted]11(2) if the FSA approves the application it will admit to listing all debt securities which may be issued under the programme within 12 months after the publication of the base prospectus or listing particulars subject to the FSA:(a) being advised of the final terms of each issue for which a listing is sought; and1(b) receiving and approving for publication any supplementary
(1) The final terms must be submitted in writing to the FSA as soon as possible after they have been agreed and no later than 2 p.m. on the day before listing is to become effective.(2) The final terms may be submitted by:(a) the applicant; or(b) a duly authorised officer of the applicant.11(3) [deleted]11Note: For further details on final terms, see PR 2.2.9 R.1
A public sector issuer that seeks admission of debt securities referred to in paragraphs 2 and 4 of Schedule 11A of the Act must submit to the FSA in final form a completed Application for Admission of Securities to the Official List.Note: The Application for Admission of Securities to the Official List form can be found on the UKLA section of the FSA's website.1
(1) 1The FSA's approach to determining penalties described in DEPP 6.5 to DEPP 6.5C is intended to ensure that financial penalties are proportionate to the breach. The FSA recognises that penalties may affect persons differently, and that the FSA should consider whether a reduction in the proposed penalty is appropriate if the penalty would cause the subject of enforcement action serious financial hardship.(2) Where an individual or firm claims that payment of the penalty proposed
(1) In assessing whether a penalty would cause an individual serious financial hardship, the FSA will consider the individual’s ability to pay the penalty over a reasonable period (normally no greater than three years). The FSA’s starting point is that an individual will suffer serious financial hardship only if during that period his net annual income will fall below £14,000 and his capital will fall below £16,000 as a result of payment of the penalty. Unless the FSA believes
In cases against individuals, including market abuse cases, the FSA may make a prohibition order under section 56 of the Act or withdraw an individual’s approval under section 63 of the Act, as well as impose a financial penalty. Such action by the FSA reflects the FSA’s assessment of the individual’s fitness to perform regulated activity or suitability for a particular role, and does not affect the FSA’s assessment of the appropriate financial penalty in relation to a breach.
(1) The FSA will consider reducing the amount of a penalty if a firm will suffer serious financial hardship as a result of having to pay the entire penalty. In deciding whether it is appropriate to reduce the penalty, the FSA will take into consideration the firm’s financial circumstances, including whether the penalty would render the firm insolvent or threaten the firm’s solvency. The FSA will also take into account its regulatory objectives, for example in situations where
Where the FSA considers that, following commencement of an FSA investigation, an individual or firm has reduced their solvency in order to reduce the amount of any disgorgement or financial penalty payable, for example by transferring assets to third parties, the FSA will normally take account of those assets when determining whether the individual or firm would suffer serious financial hardship as a result of the disgorgement and financial penalty.
(1) Threshold condition 5 (Suitability), requires the firm to satisfy the FSA that it is 'fit and proper' to have Part IV permission having regard to all the circumstances, including its connections with other persons, the range and nature of its proposed (or current) regulated activities and the overall need to be satisfied that its affairs are and will be conducted soundly and prudently (see also PRIN and SYSC).(2) The FSA will also take into consideration anything that could
(1) The emphasis of this threshold condition is on the suitability of the firm itself. The suitability of each person who performs a controlled function will be assessed by the FSA under the approved persons regime (see SUP 10 (Approved persons) and FIT). In certain circumstances, however, the FSA may consider that the firm is not suitable because of doubts over the individual or collective suitability of persons connected with the firm.8(2) When assessing this threshold condition
(1) When determining whether the firm will satisfy and continue to satisfy threshold condition 5, the FSA will have regard to all relevant matters, whether arising in the United Kingdom or elsewhere.(2) Relevant matters include, but are not limited to, whether a firm:(a) conducts, or will conduct, its business with integrity and in compliance with proper standards;(b) has, or will have, a competent and prudent management; and(c) can demonstrate that it conducts, or will conduct,
In determining whether a firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, threshold condition 5 in respect of conducting its business with integrity and in compliance with proper standards, the relevant matters, as referred to in COND 2.5.4 G (2), may include but are not limited to whether:(1) the firm has been open and co-operative in all its dealings with the FSA and any other regulatory body (see Principle 11 (Relations with regulators)) and is ready, willing and organised to comply
(1) 1Where, in accordance with DISP 1.10.1 R, a firm submits a report to the
FSA
reporting 500 or more complaints, it must publish a summary of the complaints data contained in that report (the complaints data summary).(2) Where, in accordance with DISP 1.10.1C R, a firm submits a joint report on behalf of itself and other firms within a group and that report reports 500 or more complaints, it must publish a summary of the complaints data contained in the joint report (the complaints
A UK firm other than a UK pure reinsurer9cannot establish a branch in another EEA State for the first time under an EEA right unless the conditions in paragraphs 19(2), (4) and (5) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act are satisfied. It is an offence for a UK firm which is not an authorised person to contravene this prohibition (paragraph 21 of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act). These conditions are that:(1) the UKfirm has given the FSA, in accordance with the FSArules (see SUP
4If the UK firm is passporting under the Insurance Mediation Directive and the EEA State in which the UK firm is seeking to establish a branch has not notified the European Commission of its wish to be informed of the intention of persons to establish a branch in its territory in accordance with article 6(2) of that directive, SUP 13.3.2 G (2) and SUP 13.3.2 G (3) do not apply. Accordingly, the UK firm may establish the branch to which its notice of intention8 relates as soon
(1) 8If the UK firm'sEEA right derives from the Banking Consolidation Directive, MiFID8 or the UCITS Directive, the FSA will give the Host State regulator a consent notice within three months unless it has reason to doubt the adequacy of a UK firm's resources or its administrative structure.8 The Host State regulator then has a further two months to notify the applicable provisions (if any) and prepare for the supervision, as appropriate, of the UK firm, or in the case of a MiFID
(1) If the FSA gives a consent notice, it will inform the UK firm in writing that it has done so.(2) The consent notice will contain, among other matters, the requisite details or, 8if the firm is passporting under the Insurance Directives, the relevant EEA details8 (see SUP 13 Annex 18) provided by the UK firm in its notice of intention8 (see SUP 13.5 (Notices of intention)).8888
1Section 301A(1) of chapter3 1A of Part XVIII of the Act places an obligation on a person who decides to acquire or increase control (see sections 301D and 301E of the Act) over a UK RIE3to notify the FSA, before making the acquisition3. Furthermore, those persons are required to obtain the FSA's approval before acquiring control 3or increasing the level of control held.33333
A firm must take reasonable steps to ensure that all information it gives to the FSA in accordance with a rule in any part of the Handbook (including Principle 11) is:(1) factually accurate or, in the case of estimates and judgments, fairly and properly based after appropriate enquiries have been made by the firm; and(2) complete, in that it should include anything of which the FSA would reasonably expect notice.
SUP 15.6.1 R applies also in relation to rules outside this chapter, and even if they are not notification rules. Examples of rules and chapters to which SUP 15.6.1 R is relevant, are:(1) Principle 11, and the guidance on Principle 11 in SUP 2 (Information gathering by the FSA on its own initiative);(2) SUP 15 (Notifications to the FSA):(3) SUP 16 (Reporting requirements); (4) SUP 17 (Transaction reporting); 1(5) any notification rule (see Schedule 2 which contains a consolidated
If a firm becomes aware, or has information that reasonably suggests that it has or may have provided the FSA with information which was or may have been false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate, or has or may have changed in a material particular, it must notify the FSA immediately. Subject to SUP 15.6.5 R, the notification must include:(1) details of the information which is or may be false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate, or has or may have changed; (2) an explanation
Firms are reminded that section 398 of the Act (Misleading the Authority: residual cases) makes it an offence for a firm knowingly or recklessly to provide the FSA with information which is false or misleading in a material particular in purported compliance with the FSA'srules or any other requirement imposed by or under the Act. An offence by a body corporate, partnership or unincorporated association may be attributed to an officer or certain other persons (section 400 of the
A listed company must inform the FSA in writing as soon as possible if it has:(1) requested a RIE to admit or re-admit any of its listedequity shares5 to trading; or5(2) requested a RIE to cancel or suspend trading of any of its listedequity shares;5 or(3) been informed by a RIE that trading of any of its listedequity shares5 will be cancelled or suspended.5
A UK firm, other than a UK pure reinsurer,9 cannot start providing cross border services into another EEA State under an EEA right unless it satisfies the conditions in paragraphs 20(1) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act and, if it derives its EEA right from the Insurance Directives, paragraph 20(4B) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act. It is an offence for a UK firm which is not an authorised person to breach this prohibition (paragraph 21 of Part III of Schedule 3 to the
4An exempt professional firm which is included in the record of unauthorised persons carrying on insurance mediation activity maintained by the FSA under article 93 of the Regulated Activities Order may provide cross border services in another EEA State under the Insurance Mediation Directive (see PROF 7.2).
8(1) If8 the UK firm'sEEA right derives from MiFID8, the Banking Consolidation Directive or the UCITS Directive, paragraph 20(3) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act requires the FSA to send a copy of the notice of intention8 to the Host State Regulator within one month8 of receipt.8However, a UK firm passporting under the Banking Consolidation Directive or MiFID may start providing cross border services as soon as it satisfies the relevant conditions (see SUP 13.4.2 G).888888(2)
Examples of when the FSA may cancel the listing of securities include (but are not limited to) situations where it appears to the FSA that:(1) the securities are no longer admitted to trading as required by these rules; or(2) the issuer no longer satisfies its continuing obligations for listing, for example if the percentage of shares in public hands falls below 25% or such lower percentage as the FSA may permit (the FSA may however allow a reasonable time to restore the percentage,
Subject to 41LR 5.2.7 R, LR 5.2.10 R and LR 5.2.12 R, 1an issuer with a premium listing4that wishes the FSA to cancel the listing of any of its 5equity shares1with a premium listing4must:1114(1) send a circular to the holders of the securities. The circular must:(a) comply with the requirements of LR 13.3.1 R and LR 13.3.2 R (contents of all circulars);(b) be submitted to the FSA for approval prior to publication; and(c) include the anticipated date of cancellation (which must
An issuer that wishes the FSA to cancel the listing of listed securities (other than equity shares1with a premium listing41) must notify a RIS, giving at least 20 business days notice of the intended cancellation but is not required to obtain the approval of the holders of those securities contemplated in LR 5.2.5 R (2).1544
A firm authorised under Part IV of the Act (Permission to carry on regulated activity) has a single Part IV permission granted by the FSA. A firm's Part IV permission specifies all or some of the following elements (see PERG 2 Annex 2 (Regulated activities and the permission regime) and the FSA website "How do I get authorised": http://www.fsa.gov.uk/Pages/Doing/how/index.shtml3):3(1) a description of the activities the firm may carry on, including any limitations;(2) the specified
1If a firm intends to transfer its business to a different legal entity (for example, the business is to be transferred from a sole trader to a partnership or the other way around) it will need to apply to the FSA for cancellation of its Part IV permission and the entity to which the business is to be transferred will need to apply for a Part IV permission.
Variation and cancellation of Part IV permission. See ofSUP 6.2.3 G
Question |
Variation of Part IV permission |
Cancellation of Part IV permission |
What does the application apply to? |
Individual elements of a firm's Part IV permission. Variations may involve adding or removing categories of regulated activity or specified investments or varying or removing any limitations or requirements in the firm's Part IV permission. |
A firm's entire Part IV permission and not individual elements within it. |
In what circumstances is it usually appropriate to make an application? |
If a firm: 1. wishes to change the regulated activities it carries on in the United Kingdom under a Part IV permission (SUP 6.3); or 2. has the ultimate intention of ceasing carrying on regulated activities but due to the nature of those regulated activities (for example, accepting deposits, or insurance business) it will require a long term (normally over six months) to wind down (run off) its business (see SUP 6.2.8 G to SUP 6.2.11 G and SUP 6 Annex 4). |
If a firm: 1. has ceased to carry on all of the regulated activities for which it has Part IV permission (SUP 6.4); or 2. wishes or expects to cease carrying on all of the regulated activities for which it has Part IV permission in the short term (normally not more than six months). In this case, the firm may apply to cancel its Part IV permission prior to ceasing the regulated activities (see SUP 6.4.3 G). |
Where do I find a summary of the application procedures? |
See SUP 6 Annex 2 . |
See SUP 6 Annex 3. |
(1) Regulation 15(8)(f) of the OEIC Regulations (Requirements for authorisation) requires independence between the depositary, the ICVC and the ICVC's directors, as does section 243(4) of the Act (Authorisation orders) for the trustee and manager of an AUT. COLL 6.9.3 G to COLL 6.9.5 G give FSA's view of the meaning of independence of these relationships. An ICVC, its directors and depositary or a manager and a trustee of an AUT are referred to as "relevant parties" in this guidance.(2)
(1) Independence is likely to be lost if, by means of executive power, either relevant party could control the action of the other.(2) The board of one relevant party should not be able to exercise effective control of the board of another relevant party. Arrangements which might indicate this situation include quorum provisions and reservations of decision-making capacity of certain directors.(3) For an AUT, the FSA would interpret the concept of directors in common to include
Independence is likely to be lost if either of the relevant parties could control the actions of the other by means of shareholders' votes. The FSA considers this would happen if any shareholding by one relevant party and their respective associates in the other exceeds 15% of the voting share capital, either in a single share class or several share classes. The FSA would be willing, however, to look at cross-shareholdings exceeding 15% on a case-by-case basis to consider if there
(1) Regulation 15(9) of the OEIC Regulations and section 243(8) of the Act require that an authorised fund's name must not be undesirable or misleading. This section contains guidance on some specific matters the FSA will consider in determining whether the name of an authorised fund is undesirable or misleading. It is in addition to the requirements of regulation 19 of the OEIC Regulations (Prohibition on certain names).(2) The FSA will take into account whether the name of the
An ICVC must notify the FSA within 14 days of the occurrence of any of the following:(1) any amendment to the instrument of incorporation;(2) any change in the address of the head office of the ICVC;(3) any change of director;(4) any change of depositary;(5) in respect of any director or depositary, any change in the information mentioned in regulation 12(1)(b) or (c) of the OEIC Regulations (Applications for authorisation);(6) any change of the auditor of the ICVC;(7) any order
The FSA will usually consider revoking a recognition order if:(1) the recognised body is failing or has failed to satisfy the recognition requirements or other obligations in or under the Act or, in the case of a UK RIE, the MiFID implementing requirements 1and that failure has or will have serious consequences; or(2) it would not be possible for the recognised body to comply with a direction under section 296 of the Act (FSA's power to give directions); or (3) for some other
The FSA would be likely to consider the conditions in REC 4.7.3 G (2) or REC 4.7.3 G (3) to be triggered1in the following circumstances:1(1) the recognised body appears not to have the resources or management to be able to organise its affairs so as to satisfy the recognition requirements or other obligations in or under the Act or, in the case of a UK RIE, the MiFID implementing requirements; or1(2) the recognised body does not appear to be willing to satisfy the recognition
In addition to the relevant 1factors set out in REC 4.7.4 G, the FSA will usually consider that it would not be able to secure an overseas recognised body's compliance with the recognition requirements or other obligations in or under the Act by means of a direction under section 296 of the Act, if it appears to the FSA that the overseas recognised body is prevented by any change in the legal framework or supervisory arrangements to which it is subject in its home territory from