Related provisions for BIPRU 12.7.7

61 - 80 of 83 items.
Results filter

Search Term(s)

Filter by Modules

Filter by Documents

Filter by Keywords

Effective Period

Similar To

To access the FCA Handbook Archive choose a date between 1 January 2001 and 31 December 2004 (From field only).

FEES 1.1.2RRP
This manual applies in the following way:(1) FEES 1, 2 and 3 apply to the fee payers listed in column 1 of the Table of application, notification and vetting fees in FEES 3.2.7 R. .10(a) [deleted]1010(b) [deleted]1010(c) [deleted]1010(d) [deleted]1010(e) [deleted]10(f) [deleted]1010(g) [deleted]1010(h) [deleted]1010(i) [deleted]1010(j) [deleted]1010(k) [deleted]1010(l) [deleted]1010(m) [deleted]1010(n) [deleted]104(o) 3345410[deleted]10(p) 55410[deleted]10(q) 6510[deleted]10(r)
FEES 4.4.9DRP
3To the extent that an authorised payment institution or an EEA authorised payment institution has provided the information required by FEES 4.4.7 D to the FSA as part of its compliance with another provision of the Handbook, it is deemed to have complied with the provisions of this section.
CASS 5.6.2GRP
(1) The client money (insurance) distribution rules have force and effect on any firm that holds client money in accordance with CASS 5.3 or CASS 5.4. Therefore, they may apply to a UK branch of a non-EEA firm. In this case, the UK branch of the firm may be treated as if the branch itself is a free-standing entity subject to the client money (insurance) distribution rules.(2) Firms that act in accordance with CASS 5.4 (Non-statutory trust) are reminded that the client money (insurance)
COLL 6.3.1RRP
This section applies to an authorised fund manager, a depositary, an ICVC and any other director of an ICVC.
DTR 4.1.11RRP
The management report required by DTR 4.1.8 R must also give an indication of:(1) any important events that have occurred since the end of the financial year;(2) the issuer's likely future development;(3) activities in the field of research and development;(4) the information concerning acquisitions of own shares prescribed by Article 22 (2) of Directive 77/91/EEC;(5) the existence of branches of the issuer; and(6) in relation to the issuer's use of financial instruments and where
SUP 13A.5.2GRP
An EEA firm other than an EEA pure reinsurer1should note that the requirement under the Single Market Directives to give a notice of intention to provide cross border services applies whether or not:(1) it has established a branch in the United Kingdom; or(2) those cross border services are regulated activities.
FEES 4.2.11RRP

Table of periodic fees

1 Fee payer

2 Fee payable

3 Due date

4 Events occurring during the period leading to modified periodic fee

Any firm (except an ICVC or a UCITS qualifier)

As specified in FEES 4.3.1 R

(1) Unless (2) or (3) apply7, on or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R

(2) Unless (3) applies, if 7an event specified in column 4 occurs during the course of a financial year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event, or if later the dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R.7

(3) Where the permission is for operating a multilateral trading facility, the date specified in FEES 4 Annex 10 (Periodic fees for MTF operators).

77

Firm receives permission, or becomes authorised or registered under the Payment Services Regulations ;9 or firm9extends permission or its payment service activities9

9

Any firm which reports transactions3 to the FSA using the FSA's Direct Reporting System or FSA's Transaction Reporting System (see SUP 17)

3

FEES 4 Annex 3

(1) For transaction charges, the first working day of each month

(2) For licence fees and enrolment charges, by the date set out on the relevant invoice

Not applicable

Persons who hold a certificate issued by the FSA under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order (Advice given in newspapers etc.)

£1,000

(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before 30 April

(2) If an event in column 4

occurs

during the course of a financial year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event

Certificate issued to person by FSA under Article 54 RAO

Any manager of an authorised unit trust;

In relation to each unit trust the amount specified in FEES 4 Annex 4

Authorisation order is made in relation to the relevant scheme

Any ACD of an ICVC; and

In relation to each ICVC the amount specified in FEES 4 Annex 4

Persons who, under the constitution or founding arrangements of a recognised scheme, is responsible for the management of the property held for or within the scheme;

In relation to each recognised scheme the amount specified in FEES 4 Annex 4

The relevant scheme becomes a recognised collective investment scheme

Not applicable

UK recognised body

FEES 4 Annex 6, part 1

(1) Unless (2) applies, by the due dates set out in FEES 4 Annex 6, part 1

(2) If the event in column 4 occurs during the course of a financial year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event

Recognition order is made.Modified periodic fee:

(1) for a UKrecognised investment exchange, 150,000;

(2) for a UKrecognised clearing house, 250,000.

Overseas recognised body

FEES 4 Annex 6, part 2

(1), unless (2) applies, 1 July.

(2) If the event in column 4 occurs during the course of a financial year , 30 days after the occurrence of that event.

Recognition order is made.Modified periodic fee:

(1) for an overseas investment exchange, 10,000;

(2) for a overseas clearing house, 35,000.

Listedissuers (in LR) of shares, depositary receipts and securitised derivatives (in LR), unless the conditions set out below apply.3

The first condition is that the listedissuer, or a related entity, has already paid a periodic fee in respect of the period concerned. The second condition is that the listedissuer is subject to listing rules as a result of a reverse takeover, or that the listedissuer is a newly formed entity, created as a result of a restructuring.3

FEES 4 Annex 7

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

Listedissuer3 (in LR) becomes subject to listing rules

3

Sponsors

12,50010 per year for the period from 1 April to 31 March the following year (see Note)2

10

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

Approval of sponsor

All non-listed issuers (in DTR) of shares, depositary receipts and securitised derivatives.6

6

FEES 4 Annex 8

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

Non-listed issuer (in DTR) becomes subject to disclosure rules and transparency rules6

6All firms reporting transactions in securities derivatives10to the FSA in accordance with SUP 17, and market operators who provide facilities for trading in securities derivatives.10

10

FEES 4 Annex 9 R

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

Not applicable

Note:Sponsors on the list of approved sponsors as at 1 April each year will be liable for the full year's annual fee unless FEES 4.3.13 R applies.2

SUP 13.8.1RRP
(1) A notice of a change to a branch referred to in 2SUP 13.6.5 G (1), SUP 13.6.5BG (1), 2SUP 13.6.7 G (1), SUP 13.6.8 G2, SUP 13.6.9B R3 and SUP 13.6.10 G (1) and a notice of a change to cross border services referred to in2SUP 13.7.3 G (1), SUP 13.7.3AG (1), 2SUP 13.7.5 G (1) and SUP 13.7.6 G2 must be:222(a) given to a member of, or addressed for the attention of, the Passport Notifications Unit; and(b) delivered to the FSA by one of the methods in (2).(2) The notice may be
DEPP 2.5.18GRP
Some of the distinguishing features of notices given under enactments other than the Act are as follows: (1) Building Societies Act 1986, section 36A: There is no right to refer a decision to issue a prohibition order under section 36A to the Tribunal. Accordingly, a decision notice under section 36A(5A) is not required to give an indication of whether any such right exists. A decision notice under section 36A(5A) may only relate to the issue of a prohibition order under section
DISP 1.3.1RRP
Effective and transparent procedures for the reasonable and prompt handling of complaints must be established, implemented and maintained by:(1) a respondent; and(2) a branch of a UKfirm in another EEA State.[Note: article 10 of the MiFID implementing Directive]
COND 2.3.3GRP
In assessing this threshold condition, factors which the FSA will take into consideration include, among other things, whether: (1) it is likely that the FSA will receive adequate information from the firm, and those persons with whom the firm has close links, to enable it to determine whether the firm is complying with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system and to identify and assess the impact on the regulatory objectives in section 2 of the Act (The FSA's
SYSC 2.1.6GRP

Frequently asked questions about allocation of functions in SYSC 2.1.3 R

This table belongs to SYSC 2.1.5 G

Question

Answer

1

Does an individual to whom a function is allocated under SYSC 2.1.3 R need to be an approved person?

An individual to whom a function is allocated under SYSC 2.1.3 R will be performing the apportionment and oversight function (CF 8, see SUP 10.7.1 R) and an application must be made to the FSA for approval of the individual before the function is performed under section 59 of the Act (Approval for particular arrangements). There are exceptions from this in SUP 10.1 (Approved persons - Application).

5

2

If the allocation is to more than one individual, can they perform the functions, or aspects of the functions, separately?

If the functions are allocated to joint chief executives under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2, they are expected to act jointly. If the functions are allocated to an individual under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2, in addition to individuals under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 3, the former may normally be expected to perform a leading role in relation to the functions that reflects his position. Otherwise, yes.

3

What is meant by "appropriately allocate" in this context?

The allocation of functions should be compatible with delivering compliance with Principle 3, SYSC 2.1.1 R and SYSC 3.1.1 R. The FSA considers that allocation to one or two individuals is likely to be appropriate for most firms.

4

If a committee of management governs a firm or group, can the functions be allocated to every member of that committee?

Yes, as long as the allocation remains appropriate (see Question 3).If the firm also has an individual as chief executive, then the functions must be allocated to that individual as well under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2 (see Question 7).

5

Does the definition of chief executive include the possessor of equivalent responsibilities with another title, such as a managing director or managing partner?

Yes.

6

Is it possible for a firm to have more than one individual as its chief executive?

Although unusual, some firm may wish the responsibility of a chief executive to be held jointly by more than one individual. In that case, each of them will be a chief executive and the functions must be allocated to all of them under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2 (see also Questions 2 and 7).

7

If a firm has an individual as chief executive, must the functions be allocated to that individual?

Normally, yes, under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2.

But if the firm is a body corporate and a member of a group, the functions may, instead of to the firm's chief executive, be allocated to a director or senior manager from the group responsible for the overall management of the group or of a relevant group division, so long as this is appropriate (see Question 3). Such individuals willnevertheless require approval by the FSA (see Question 1).

If the firm chooses to allocate the functions to a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of a relevant group division, the FSA would expect that individual to be of a seniority equivalent to or greater than a chief executive of the firm for the allocation to be appropriate.

See also Question 14.

8

If a firm has a chief executive, can the functions be allocated to other individuals in addition to the chief executive?

Yes. SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 3, permits a firm to allocate the functions, additionally, to the firm's (or where applicable the group's) directors and senior managers as long as this is appropriate (see Question 3).

9

What if a firm does not have a chief executive?

Normally, the functions must be allocated to one or more individuals selected from the firm's (or where applicable the group's) directors and senior managers under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 3.

But if the firm:

(1) is a body corporate and a member of a group; and

(2) the group has a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of the group or of a relevant group division;

then the functions must be allocated to that individual (together, optionally, with individuals from column 3 if appropriate) under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2.2

10

What do you mean by "group division within which some or all of the firm's regulated activities fall"?

A "division" in this context should be interpreted by reference to geographical operations, product lines or any other method by which the group's business is divided.

If the firm's regulated activities fall within more than one division and the firm does not wish to allocate the functions to its chief executive, the allocation must, under SYSC 2.1.4 R, be to:

(1) a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of the group; or

(2) a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of one of those divisions;

together, optionally, with individuals from column 3 if appropriate. (See also Questions 7 and 9.)

11

How does the requirement to allocate the functions in SYSC 2.1.3R apply to an overseas firm which is not an incoming EEA firm, incoming Treaty firm or UCITS qualifier?

The firm must appropriately allocate those functions to one or more individuals, in accordance with SYSC 2.1.4 R, but:

(1) The responsibilities that must be apportioned and the systems and controls that must be overseen are those relating to activities carried on from a UK establishment with certain exceptions (see SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.7 R)6. Note that SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.10 R6 does not extend the territorial scope of SYSC 2 for an overseas firm.

(2) The chief executive of an overseas firm is the person responsible for the conduct of the firm's business within the United Kingdom (see the definition of "chief executive"). This might, for example, be the manager of the firm's UK establishment, or it might be the chief executive of the firm as a whole, if he has that responsibility.

The apportionment and oversight function applies to such a firm, unless it falls within a particular exception from the approved persons regime (see Question 1).

66

12

How does the requirement to allocate the functions in SYSC 2.1.3R apply to an incoming EEA firm or incoming Treaty firm?

SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.1R6and SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.8 R6restrict the application of SYSC 2.1.3 R for such a firm. Accordingly:

(1) Such a firm is not required to allocate the function of dealing with apportionment in SYSC 2.1.3 R (1).

(2) Such a firm is required to allocate the function of oversight in SYSC 2.1.3 R (2). However, the systems and controls that must be overseen are those relating to matters which the FSA, as Host State regulator, is entitled to regulate (there is guidance on this in SUP 13A Annex 2 G3). Those are primarily, but not exclusively, the systems and controls relating to the conduct of the firm's activities carried on from its UK branch.

(3) Such a firm need not allocate the function of oversight to its chief executive; it must allocate it to one or more directors and senior managers of the firm or the firm's group under SYSC 2.1.4 R, row (2).

(4) An incoming EEA firm which has provision only for cross border services is not required to allocate either function if it does not carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom; for example if they fall within the overseas persons exclusions in article 72 of the Regulated Activities Order.

See also Questions 1 and 15.1

663

13

What about a firm that is a partnership or a limited liability partnership?

The FSA envisages that most if not all partners or members will be either directors or senior managers, but this will depend on the constitution of the partnership (particularly in the case of a limited partnership) or limited liability partnership. A partnership or limited liability partnership may also have a chief executive (see Question 5). A limited liability partnership is a body corporate and, if a member of a group, will fall within SYSC 2.1.4 R, row (1) or (2).

14

What if generally accepted principles of good corporate governance recommend that the chief executive should not be involved in an aspect of corporate governance?

The Note to SYSC 2.1.4 R provides that the chief executive or other executive director or senior manager need not be involved in such circumstances. For example, the UK Corporate Governance Code7 recommends that the board of a listed company should establish an audit committee of non-executive directors to be responsible for oversight of the audit. That aspect of the oversight function may therefore be allocated to the members of such a committee without involving the chief executive. Such individuals may require approval by the FSA in relation to that function (see Question 1).

7

15

What about electronic commerce activities carried on from an establishment in another EEA State with or for a person in the United Kingdom?4

4

SYSC does not apply to an incoming ECA provider acting as such.1

4
BIPRU 12.5.38RRP
In relation to an incoming EEA firm or third country BIPRU firm which does not have a whole-firm liquidity modification, that firm must assess the risk that its UKbranch may be exposed to calls on liquidity under its control from its head office:(1) in normal financial conditions; and(2) under the liquidity stresses required by BIPRU 12.5.6 R.
COLL 5.2.1RRP
This section applies to an ICVC, an ACD, a manager of an AUT, a depositary of an ICVC and a trustee of an AUT, where such ICVC or AUT is a UCITS scheme, in accordance with COLL 5.2.2 R (Table of application).
SUP 6.3.3GRP
In applying for a variation of Part IV permission, a branch of a firm from outside the EEA should be mindful of any continuing requirements referred to in the rest of the Handbook.1010
GENPRU 1.2.34GRP
In the overall Pillar 2 rule , internal capital refers to the financial resources of a firm which it treats as being held against the risks listed in the overall Pillar 2 rule. The obligation in that rule to assess the distribution of such capital refers, in relation to a firm making an assessment on a solo basis, for example, to the need to take account of circumstances where part of a firm's financial resources are held by a branch of that firm which are subject to restrictions
PERG 8.4.22GRP
(1) Introductions may take many forms but typically involve an offer to make an introduction or action taken in response to an unsolicited request. An introduction may be an inducement if the introducer is actively seeking to persuade or incite the person he is introducing to do business with the person to whom the introduction is made. So it may fall under section 21 if its purpose is to lead to investment activity. For example, if a person answers the question ‘do you or can
SUP 16.12.3RRP
(1) Any firm permitted to 5carry5 on any of the activities within each of the RAGs set out in column (1) of the table in SUP 16.12.4 R must:(a) (i) unless (ii) or (iii) 11applies, submit to the FSA the duly completed data items or other items applicable to the firm as set out in the provision referred to in column (2) of that table;(ii) unless (iii) applies, where 11 a firm is required to submit completed data items for 11more than one RAG, that11firm must only submit the data