Related provisions for INSPRU 1.5.4
21 - 40 of 376 items.
Section 19 of the Act (The general prohibition) provides that the requirement to be authorised under the Act only applies in relation to activities that are carried on 'in the United Kingdom'. In many cases, it will be quite straightforward to identify where an activity is carried on. But when there is a cross-border element, for example because a client is outside the United Kingdom or because some other element of the activity happens outside the United Kingdom, the question
Even with a cross-border element a person may still be carrying on an activity 'in the United Kingdom'. For example, a person who is situated in the United Kingdom and who is safeguarding and administering investments will be carrying on activities in the United Kingdom even though his client may be overseas.
Section 418 of the Act (Carrying on regulated activities in the United Kingdom) takes this one step further. It extends the meaning that 'in the United Kingdom' would ordinarily have by setting out five additional cases. The Act states that, in these five cases, a person who is carrying on a regulated activity but who would not otherwise be regarded as carrying on the activity in the United Kingdom is, for the purposes of the Act, to be regarded as carrying on the activity in
A person who is based outside the United Kingdom but who sets up an establishment in the United Kingdom must therefore consider the following matters. First, he must not, unless he is authorised, carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom. Second, unless he is authorised, the day-to-day management of the carrying on of the regulated activity must not be the responsibility of the UK establishment. This may, for example, affect those UK establishments that in the context
A person based outside the United Kingdom may also be carrying on activities in the United Kingdom even if he does not have a place of business maintained by him in the United Kingdom (for example, by means of the internet or other telecommunications system or by occasional visits). In that case, it will be relevant to consider whether what he is doing satisfies the business test as it applies in relation to the activities in question. In addition, he may be able to rely on the
A firm must include only the following types of undertaking in a UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group for the purposes of this chapter:(1) a BIPRU firm;(2) an institution;(3) a financial institution;(4) an asset management company;(5) a financial holding company; and(6) an ancillary services undertaking.
Although an undertaking falling outside BIPRU 8.5.1 R will not be included in a UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group it may be relevant in deciding whether one undertaking in the banking sector or the investment services sector is a subsidiary undertaking of another with the result that they should be included in the same UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group.
In carrying out the calculations for the purposes of this chapter a firm must only include the relevant proportion of an undertaking that is a member of the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group:(1) by virtue of a consolidation Article 12(1) relationship;(2) by virtue of an Article 134 relationship; or(3) because the group holds a participation in it.
In BIPRU 8.5.5 R, the relevant proportion is either:(1) (in the case of a participation) the proportion of shares issued by the undertaking held by the UK consolidation group or the non-EEA sub-group; or(2) (in the case of a consolidation Article 12(1) relationship or an Article 134 relationship), such proportion (if any) as stated in the Part IV permission of the firm.
A firm may, having first notified the FSA in writing in accordance with SUP 15.7 (Form and method of notification), exclude an institution, asset management company, financial institution or ancillary services undertaking that is a subsidiary undertaking in, or an undertaking in which a participation is held by, the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group if the balance sheet total of that undertaking is less than the smaller of the following two amounts:(1) 10 million Euros;(2)
Article 73(1) of the Banking Consolidation Directive allows the FSA to decide to exclude an institution, financial institution, asset management company or ancillary services undertaking that is a subsidiary undertaking in, or an undertaking in which a participation is held by, the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group for the purposes of this chapter in the following circumstances:(1) where the head office of the undertaking concerned is situated in a country outside the
(1) The operator of a recognised scheme under section 264, section 270 or section 272 of the Act must maintain facilities in the United Kingdom in order to satisfy the requirements of COLL 9.4.2 R to COLL 9.4.6 R. (2) In this section, a facility is a place of business that complies with COLL 9.4.6 R (Place of facilities).
(1) The operator of a recognised scheme must maintain facilities in the United Kingdom for any person, for inspection (free of charge) and for the obtaining (free of charge, in the case of the documents at (c) and (d), and otherwise at no more than a reasonable charge) of copies in English of: (a) the instrument constituting the scheme;(b) any instrument amending the instrument constituting the scheme; (c) the latest prospectus (which must include the address where the facilities
(1) The operator must maintain facilities in the United Kingdom for any person where: (a) information in English can be obtained about prices of units in the scheme; and(b) a participant may redeem or arrange for redemption of units in the scheme and obtain payment. (2) An operator is treated as complying with paragraph (1) if it ensures participants may sell their units on an investment exchange at a price not significantly different from net asset value; and if so, must inform
(1) The operator must maintain facilities in the United Kingdom at which the unitholder of a bearer certificate may obtain free of charge: (a) payment of dividends; and(b) details or copies of any notices which have been given or sent to participants in the scheme. (2) The operator must state:(a) the nature of the right represented by the units in the scheme; and(b) whether persons other than unitholders can vote at meetings of unitholders and, if so, who those persons are.
(1) The address of the facilities maintained by the operator in accordance with this section and the details of the facilities so maintained must be stated in the prospectus of the scheme.(2) The address of the facilities referred to in (1) must be the address of the operator's principal place of business in the United Kingdom, or, if there is no such address,, the alternative address in paragraph (3).(3) The alternative address is such convenient address as the operator determines,
Recognition Requirements Regulations, Regulation 6
2(1) In considering whether a [UK recognised body] or applicant satisfiesrecognition requirements applying to it under these [Recognition Requirements Regulations], the [FSA] may take into account all relevant circumstances including the constitution of the person concerned and its regulatory provisions within the meaning of section 302(1) of the Act. |
(2) Without prejudice to the generality of paragraph (1), a [UK recognised body] or applicant may satisfyrecognition requirements applying to it under these [Recognition Requirements Regulations] by making arrangements for functions to be performed on its behalf by any otherperson. |
(3) Where a [UK recognised body] or applicant makes arrangements of the kind mentioned in paragraph (2), the arrangements do not affect the responsibility imposed by the Act on the [UK recognised body] or applicant to satisfy recognition requirements applying to it under these [Recognition Requirements Regulations ], but it is in addition a recognition requirement applying to the [UK recognised body] or applicant that the person who performs (or is to perform) the functions is a fit and proper person who is able and willing to perform them. |
The FSA will usually expect :(1) the constitution, regulatory provisions and practices of the UK recognised body or applicant;(2) the nature (including complexity, diversity and risk) and scale of the UK recognised body's or applicant's business; (3) the size and nature of the market which is supported by the UK recognised body's or applicant's facilities; (4) the nature and status of the types of investor who use the UK recognised body's or applicant's facilities or have an interest
It is the UK recognised body's responsibility to demonstrate to the FSA that a person who performs a function on behalf of the UK recognised body is fit and proper and able and willing to perform that function. The recognition requirement referred to in Regulation 6(3) applies to the UK recognised body and not to any person who performs any function on its behalf. In this context, for a person to be "fit and proper" does not necessarily imply that he is an authorised person, or
If a person who performs a function on behalf of a UK recognised body is himself carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom , he will, unless he is a person to whom the general prohibition does not apply, need to be either an authorised person or an exempt person . The person to whom a function is delegated is not covered by the UK recognised body's exemption.
In determining whether the UK recognised body meets the recognition requirement in Regulation 6(3), the FSA may have regard to whether that body has ensured that the person who performs that function on its behalf:(1) has sufficient resources to be able to perform the function (after allowing for any other activities);(2) has adequate systems and controls to manage that function and to report on its performance to the UK recognised body;(3) is managed by persons of sufficient
In determining whether a UK recognised body continues to satisfy the recognition requirements where it has made arrangements for any function to be performed on its behalf by any person , the FSA may have regard, in addition to any of the matters described in the appropriate section of this chapter, to the arrangements made to exercise control over the performance of the function, including:(1) the contracts (and other relevant documents) between the UK recognised body and the
1Under section 300B(3) of the Act, the FSA may also by rules under section 293: (1) 1make provision as to the form and contents of the notice required, and(2) 1require the UK recognised body to provide such information relating to the proposal as may be specified in the rules or as the FSA may reasonably require.
1The duty in section 300B(1) of the Act does not apply to any of the following:(1) any regulatory provision which is required under EU2 law or any enactment or rule of law in the United Kingdom; or2(2) (a) the specification of the standard terms of any derivative which a UK RIE proposes to admission to trading, or the amendment of the standard terms of any derivative already admitted to trading; or(b) the specification or any amendment of standard terms relating to the provision
1In determining whether a UK recognised body has provided sufficient supporting information, the FSA may have regard to the extent to which the information includes:(1) 1clearly expressed reasons for the proposed regulatory provision; and(2) 1an appropriately detailed assessment of the likely costs and benefits of the proposed regulatory provision.
A UK firm, other than a UK pure reinsurer,4 wishing to establish a branch in a particular EEA State for the first time under an EEA right must include in itsnotice of intention3 given to the FSA:3(1) (a) the information specified in SUP 13 Annex 1; and2(b) if the UK firm is passporting under the Insurance Directives, the information specified in SUP 13 Annex 2; or 2(2) if the UK firm is passporting under the Insurance Mediation Directive, only a statement that it intends to carry
A UK firm wishing to provide cross border services into a particular EEA State for the first time under an EEA right must include, in its notice of intention3 given to the FSA:3(1) if the UK firm is passporting under 3MiFID or the Insurance Directives, the information specified in SUP 13 Annex 3;3(2) if the UK firm is passporting under the Banking Consolidation Directive, the activities which it intends to carry on.(3) if the UK firm is passporting under the Insurance Mediation
(1) The notice of intention3 under SUP 13.5.1 R and SUP 13.5.2 R, and the notice required under SUP 13.5.1A R,4 must be:3(a) given to a member of, or addressed for the attention of, the Authorisation and Approvals Department (Authorisation teams), if submitted with an application for Part IV permission, or the Passport Notifications Unit in any other circumstances; and(b) delivered to the FSA by one of the methods in (2).(2) The notice of intention3 or notice required under SUP
A notice of intention3 may include activities within the scope of the relevant Single Market Directive which are not regulated activities (paragraphs 19(3) and 20(2) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act), although in the case of a MiFID investment firm a notice of intention may only include ancillary services which are to be carried on with one or more investment services and activities (paragraphs 19(5B) and 20(2A) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act)3. Regulation 19 of the
Where an incoming EEA firm passporting under the MiFID4, UCITS Directive or Insurance Directives is exercising an EEA right and is providing cross border services into the United Kingdom, the EEA Passport Rights Regulations govern any changes to the details of those services. Where an incoming EEA firm has complied with the relevant requirements in the EEA Passport Rights Regulations, then the firm'spermission given under Schedule 3 to the Act is to be treated as varied accor
The relevant requirements in regulation 5(3) are that:(1) the incoming EEA firm has given a notice to the FSA (see SUP 14.4.1 G) and to its Home State regulator stating the details of the proposed change;(2) if the change arises from circumstances beyond the incoming EEA firm's control, that firm has, as soon as practicable, given to the FSA and to its Home State regulator the notice in (1).1
4Where an incoming EEA firm passporting under MiFID is providing cross border services into the United Kingdom, it must not make a change in the details referred to in regulation 5(1) unless it has given at least one month's notice to its Home State regulator stating the details of the proposed change.
(1) The purpose of REC 3.15.2 R to REC 3.15.5 G is to enable the FSA to obtain information where a UK recognised body decides to suspend the provision of its services in relation to particular investments. Planned changes to the provision of services should be notified to the FSA under REC 3.14.(2) REC 3.15.6 R to REC 3.15.7 R provide for notification to the FSA where a UK recognised body is unable to operate or provide its facilities for reasons outside its control or where it
Where a UK recognised body suspends providing clearing services generally in respect of any derivative (other than an option in relation to a security), type of security or type of option in relation to a security, it must immediately give the FSA notice of that event, particulars of that derivative, type of security or type of option in relation to a security, as the case may be, and the reasons for the action taken.
Where a UK recognised body suspends any arrangements it makes for the safeguarding and administration of any type of asset belonging to any other person (other than an undertaking in the same group), that UK recognised body must immediately give the FSA notice of that event, particulars of that type of asset and the reasons for the action taken.
Specified investments (other than securities or options in relation to securities) falling within the same article in Part III of the Regulated Activities Order will normally be regarded as being assets of the same type. Securities falling within the same article in Part III of the Regulated Activities Order which may be given the same generic description (for example, shares admitted to the UK official list) will normally be regarded as being of the same type. Options in relation
Where, because of the occurrence of any event or circumstances, a UK recognised body is unable to operate any of its facilities within its normal hours of operation, it must immediately give the FSA notice of that inability and inform the FSA:(1) which facility it is unable to operate; (2) what event or circumstance has caused it to become unable to operate that facility within those hours; and(3) what action, if any, it is taking or proposes to take to enable it to recommence
Where, because of the occurrence of any event or circumstances, a UK recognised body extends its hours of operation, it must immediately give the FSA notice of that event, and inform the FSA:(1) what event or circumstance has caused it to do so; (2) the new hours of operation; and(3) the date on which it expects to revert to its normal hours of operation.
(1) The purposes of this section are to:(a) provide UK recognised bodies with guidance regarding the provisions of PIDA; and(b) Encourage UK recognised bodies to consider adopting and communicating to workers appropriate internal procedures for handling workers' concerns as part of an effective risk management system.(2) In this section "worker" includes, but is not limited to, an individual who has entered into a contract of employment.
In accordance with section 1 of PIDA:(1) a "protected disclosure" is a qualifying disclosure which meets the relevant requirements set out in that section;(2) a "qualifying disclosure" is a disclosure, made in good faith, of information which, in the reasonable belief of the worker making the disclosure, tends to show that one or more of the following (a "failure") has been, is being, or is likely to be, committed:(a) a criminal offence; or(b) a failure to comply with any legal
(1) UK recognised bodies are encouraged to consider adopting appropriate internal procedures which will encourage their workers with concerns to blow the whistle internally about matters which are relevant to the functions of the FSA.(2) In considering appropriate internal procedures, UK recognised bodiesmay find the guidance provided to firms in SYSC 18.2.2 G (2) and SYSC 18.2.2 G (3)1 helpful.1
Sections 178(1) and 191D(1)10 of the Act require a person (whether or not he is an authorised person) to notify the FSA in writing if he decides 10to acquire, increase or reduce10control or to cease to have control10 over a UK domestic firm . Failure to notify is an offence under section 191F10 of the Act (Offences under this Part).461010101010
If a person decides10 to acquire control or increase control over a UK domestic firm in a way described in SUP 11.4.2 Ror acquire control in a way described in SUP 11.4.2AR (1)4, he must obtain the FSA's approval before doing so. Making an acquisition before the FSA has approved of it10is an offence under section 191F of the Act (Offences under this Part).1010104610
6The FSA may treat as notice given in accordance with sections 178 and 190(1)of the Act a written notification from a firm which contains the following statements:10(1) that the firm proposes to acquire and/or dispose of control, on one or more occasions, of any UK domestic firm whose shares or those of its ultimate parent undertaking are, at the time of the acquisition or disposal of control, listed or which are admitted to listing on a designated investment exchange;;10(2) that
6Where the FSA approves changes in control proposed in a notice given under SUP 11.3.5B D:(1) the controller remains subject to the requirement to notify the FSA when a change in control actually occurs; and(2) the notification of change in control should be made no later than five business days after the end of each month and set out all changes in the controller's control position for each UK domestic firm for the month in question.At that stage, the FSA may seek from the controller
A section 178 notice10 given to the FSA by a person who is acquiring control or increasing his control over a UK domestic firm, in a way described in SUP 11.4.2 R (1) to (4), or acquiring control in a way described in SUP 11.4.2A R, must contain the information and be accompanied by such documents as are required by the controllers form approved by the FSA for the relevant application. 461010
(1) Before an EEA firm other than an EEA pure reinsurer3exercises an EEA right to establish a branch in the United Kingdom other than under the Insurance Mediation Directive, the Act requires it to satisfy the establishment conditions, as set out in paragraph 13(1) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act. (2) For the purposes of paragraph 13(1)(b)(iii) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, the information to be included in the consent notice has been prescribed under regulation 2 of
If an offer is
made, or admission to trading is
sought, in more than one EEA State including
the United Kingdom and the United Kingdom is the Home
State, the prospectus must
be drawn up in English and must also be made available either in a language
accepted by the competent authorities of each Host
State or in a language customary in the sphere of international
finance, at the choice of the issuer, offeror or person requesting
admission (as the case may be). [Note: article
19.3
(1) If an offer is
made, or admission to trading is
sought, in one or more EEA States excluding
the United Kingdom and the United Kingdom is the Home
State, the prospectus must
be drawn up in a language accepted by the competent authorities of those EEA States or in a language customary in
the sphere of international finance, at the choice of the issuer, offeror or person requesting
admission (as the case may be). [ Note: article
19.2 PD ](2) For the purpose of the scrutiny
by
If admission
to trading of non-equity transferable
securities whose denomination per unit amounts to at least 50,000 euros (or an equivalent amount)
is sought in the United Kingdom or
in one or more other EEA States,
the prospectus must be drawn
up in either a language accepted by the competent authorities of the Home State and Host
States or in a language customary in the sphere of international
finance, at the choice of the issuer, offeror or person requesting
admission (as
If:(1) an offer is
made in the United Kingdom;(2) a prospectus relating
to the transferable securities has
been approved by the competent authority of another EEA
State and the prospectus contains
a summary; and(3) the prospectus is drawn up in a language other than English
that is customary in the sphere of international finance;222the offeror must
ensure that the summary is
translated into English. [ Note: article
19.2 PD ]
A firm will not be a member of a non-EEA sub-group unless it is1 also a member of a UK consolidation group. So the first step is to identify each undertaking in the firm'sUK consolidation group that satisfies the following conditions:(1) it isan institution, financial institution or asset management company whose head office is outside the EEA (a third country banking or investment services undertaking);(2) one of the following applies:(a) it is a subsidiary undertaking of a BIPRU
The firm should then identify each undertaking in the firm'sUK consolidation group that satisfies the following conditions:(1) it is an institution, financial institution or asset management company whose head office is outside the EEA (a third country investment services undertaking);(2) one of the following applies:(a) it is a subsidiary undertaking of a financial holding company in that UK consolidation group; or(b) a financial holding company in that UK consolidation group
Having identified potential non-EEA sub-groups for each third country banking or investment services undertaking in its UK consolidation group the firm should then eliminate overlapping potential non-EEA sub-groups in the following way. If:(1) one potential non-EEA sub-group is 1contained within a wider potential non-EEA sub-group; and(2) the third country banking or investment services undertakings in the two potential non-EEA sub-groups are the same;then the smaller potential
If a UK consolidation group is headed by a parent financial holding company in a Member State the result of the elimination process may be that a firm'sUK consolidation group contains only one non-EEA sub-group and that the non-EEA sub-group is the same as the UK consolidation group. In theory that means that there are two sets of consolidation requirements, one in relation to the UK consolidation group and one in relation to the non-EEA sub-group. However as the UK consolidation
Even where the requirements for a non-EEA sub-group are absorbed into those for the UK consolidation group a firm should still make clear in its regulatory reporting that the consolidation figures relate to a UK consolidation group and a non-EEA sub-group and that they both contain the same members.
The examples in this section have so far assumed that the only EEA State involved is the United Kingdom. If a potential non-EEA sub-group that would otherwise be regulated by the FSA contains a potential non-EEA sub-group in another EEA State then the United Kingdom one is eliminated if the third country banking or investment services undertaking in the UK potential non-EEA sub-group and the potential non-EEA sub-group in the other EEA State are the same. The intention here is
3An authorised payment institution, the Post Office Limited, government departments and local authorities or an EEA authorised payment institution must notify to the FSA the value (as at the valuation date specified in Part 4 of FEES 4 Annex 11) of each element of business on which the periodic fee payable by the firm is to be calculated, including any payment services carried on by its agents from an establishment in the United Kingdom.
1Where, in relation to a UK RIE a proposal has been made to appoint or elect a person as a key individual, that UK RIE must at least 30 days before the date of the appointment or election give notice of that event, and give the information specified for the purposes of this rule in REC 3.4.4A R to the FSA. [Note: Article 37(1), paragraph 1, second sentence of MiFID]
(1) Key individuals include the persons who, under the operational or managerial arrangements of the UK recognised body, are appointed to manage the departments responsible for carrying out its relevant functions, whether or not they are members of its governing body. A person appointed to carry out specific tasks, such as to conduct a particular investigation into a specific set of facts, would not usually be a key individual.(2) A key individual need not be an employee of a
1The following information is specified for the purposes of REC 3.4.2A R:(1) that person's name;(2) his date of birth;(3) where applicable, a description of the responsibilities which he will have in the post to which he is to be appointed or elected.[Note: Article 37(1), paragraph 1, second sentence of MiFID]
Where the governing body of a UK recognised body delegates any of its functions (which relate to that UK recognised body'srelevant functions) to a standing committee, or appoints a standing committee to manage or oversee the carrying out of any of that UK recognised body'srelevant functions, that UK recognised body must immediately notify the FSA of that event and give the FSA the following information:(1) the names of the members of that standing committee; and(2) the terms of
Where:(1) there is any change in the composition or the terms of reference of any standing committee referred to in REC 3.4.5 R; or(2) any such committee is dissolved; the UK recognised body must immediately notify the FSA of that event and give particulars of any change referred to in (1) to the FSA.
Where a UK recognised body is to circulate any notice or other document proposing any amendment to its memorandum or articles of association (or other similar agreement or document relating to its constitution) to:(1) its shareholders (or any group or class of them); or(2) its members (or any group or class of them); or(3) any other group or class of persons which has the power to make that amendment or whose consent or approval is required before it may be made;that UK recognised
Where a UK recognised body makes an amendment to its memorandum or articles of association (or other similar agreement or document relating to its constitution), that UK recognised body must immediately give the FSA notice of that event, and give written particulars of that amendment and of the date on which it is to become or became effective.
Where any change is made to an agreement which relates to the constitution or governance of a UK recognised body:(1) between that UK recognised body and another person; or(2) between the owners of that UK recognised body; or(3) between the owners of that UK recognised body and another person; or(4) between other persons; that UK recognised body must give the FSA notice of that event as soon as it is aware of it, and give written particulars of that change and of the date on which
The purpose of REC 3.6.6 R is to ensure that the FSA is informed of changes to agreements which specify the arrangements by which a UK recognised body will be governed or by which important decisions will be taken within that body. It is not intended to cover any agreement by which someone is appointed to be a key individual or which covers the terms and conditions of service in such an appointment.
The FSA will not grant an investment firm consolidation waiver unless:(1) the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group meets the conditions for being a CAD Article 22 group;(2) the FSA is satisfied that each BIPRU firm in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group will be able to meet its capital requirements using the calculation of capital resources in GENPRU 2 Annex 6 (Capital resources table for a BIPRU investment firm with a waiver from consolidated supervision);
If a firm has an investment firm consolidation waiver with respect to its UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group but that UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group ceases to meet the definition of a CAD Article 22 group the firm must comply with the rest of this chapter rather than this section notwithstanding the investment firm consolidation waiver.
(1) A CAD Article 22 group means a UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group that meets the conditions in this rule.(2) There must be no bank, building society or credit institution in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group .(3) Each CAD investment firm in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group which is an EEA firm must use the definition of own funds given in the CRD implementation measure of its EEA State for Article 16 of the Capital Adequacy Directive.(4)
GENPRU 2.2 (Capital resources) says that a BIPRU investment firm with an investment firm consolidation waiver should calculate its capital resources on a solo basis using GENPRU 2 Annex 6 (Capital resources table for a BIPRU investment firm with a waiver from consolidated supervision). GENPRU 2 Annex 6 requires a BIPRU investment firm to deduct contingent liabilities in favour of other members of the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group. Therefore BIPRU 8.4.9R (5)(b) only
If a firm has an investment firm consolidation waiver, it must ensure that any financial holding company in the UK consolidation group or the non-EEA sub-group that is the UKparent financial holding company in a Member State of a CAD investment firm in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group has capital resources, calculated under BIPRU 8.4.12 R, in excess of the sum of the following (or any higher amount specified in the investment firm consolidation waiver):(1) the sum
If a firm has an investment firm consolidation waiver, it must:(1) ensure that each CAD investment firm in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group which is a firm or an EEA firm has in place systems to monitor and control the sources of capital and funding of all the members in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group;(2) notify the FSA of any serious risk that could undermine the financial stability of the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group, as soon as
Although an investment firm consolidation waiver switches off most of this chapter, a firm should still carry out the capital adequacy calculations in BIPRU 8.3 to BIPRU 8.8 as if those parts of this chapter still applied to the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group and report these to the FSA. It should also still monitor large exposure risk on a consolidated basis.
UK recognised bodies which, under their rules, have market contracts are required to have default rules enabling them (among other things) to take action in relation to a member who appears to be unable to meet his obligations in respect of one or more unsettled market contracts. The detailed recognition requirements relating to the default rules are set out in REC 2.17.
The Companies Act 1989 also gives the FSA powers to supervise the taking of action under default rules. Under section 166 of the Companies Act 1989 (Powers of the FSA to give directions) (see REC 4.5.4 G), the FSA may direct a UK recognised body to take, or not to take, action under its default rules. Before exercising these powers the FSA must consult the recognised body concerned. The FSA may also exercise these powers if a relevant office-holder applies to it under section
The Companies Act 1989: section 166
The FSA may issue a "positive" direction (to take action) under section 166(2)(a) of the Companies Act 1989: |
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Where in any case a [UK RIE] or [UK RCH] has not taken action under itsdefault rules- if it appears to [the FSA] that it could take action, [the FSA may direct it to do so, |
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but under section 166(3)(a) of the Companies Act 1989: |
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Before giving such a direction the [FSA] shall consult the [UK RIE] or [UK RCH] in question; and [the FSA] shall not give a direction unless [the FSA] is satisfied, in the light of that consultation that failure to take action would involve undue risk to investors or other participants in the market, |
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The FSA may issue a "negative" direction (not to take action) under section 166(2)(b) of the Companies Act 1989: |
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Where in any case a [UK RIE] or [UK RCH] has not taken action under its default rules - if it appears to the [FSA] that it is proposing to take or may take action, [the FSA] may direct it not to do so. |
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but under section 166(3)(b) of the Companies Act 1989: |
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Before giving such a direction the [FSA] shall consult the [UK RIE] or [UK RCH] in question; and the [FSA] shall not give a direction unless [the FSA] is satisfied, in the light of that consultation that the taking of action would be premature or otherwise undesirable in the interests of investors or other participants in the market. |
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Under section 166(7) of the Companies Act 1989, where a UK recognised body has taken action either of its own accord or in response to a direction, the FSA may direct it to do or not to do specific things subject to these being within the powers of the UK recognised body concerned under its default rules. However, the FSA cannot give such a direction unless it is satisfied that this will not impede or frustrate the proper and efficient conduct of the default proceedings.
Where, in relation to a member (or designated non-member) of a UK RIE or a member of a UK RCH:(1) a bankruptcy order; or(2) an award of sequestration of his estate; or(3) an order appointing an interim receiver of his property; or(4) an administration or winding-up order; or(5) a resolution for a voluntary winding-up; or(6) an order appointing a provisional liquidator; has been made or passed and the UK recognised body has not taken action under its default rules as a result of
The procedure is that the FSA must notify the UK recognised body of the application and, unless within three business days after receipt of that notice, the UK recognised body: (1) takes action under its default rules; or(2) notifies the FSA that it proposes to take action forthwith; or(3) is directed to take action by the FSA under section 166(2)(a) of the Companies Act 1989; the provisions of sections 158 to 165 of the Companies Act 1989 do not apply in relation to market contracts
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 9A
1(1) |
[A UK RIE] operating a multilateral trading facility must also operate a regulated market. |
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(2) |
[A UK RIE] operating a multilateral trading facility must comply with those requirements of- |
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(a) |
Chapter I of Title II of [MiFID], and |
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(b) |
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which are applicable to a market operator ... operating such a facility. |
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(3) |
The requirements of this paragraph do not apply for the purposes of section 292(3)(a) of the Act (requirements for overseas investment exchanges and overseas clearing houses). |
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1In determining whether a UK RIE operating a multilateral trading facility complies with those requirements of Chapter I of Title II of MiFID and the MiFID implementing Directive which are applicable to a market operator operating such a facility, the FSA will have regard to the compliance of the UK RIE with equivalent recognition requirements.