Related provisions for SUP 7.1.1
41 - 60 of 96 items.
The Act prohibits any person from carrying on, or purporting to carry on, regulated activities in the United Kingdom unless that person is an authorised person or an exempt person. If an overseas investment exchange or overseas clearing house wishes to undertake regulated activities in the United Kingdom, it will need to:(1) obtain a Part IV permission from the FSA; (2) (in the case of an EEA firm or a Treaty firm) qualify for authorisation under Schedule 3 (EEA Passport Rights)
This manual applies to:(1) a person who is considering carrying on activities in the United Kingdom which may fall within the scope of the Act and is seeking guidance on whether he needs to be an authorised person;(2) a person who seeks to become an authorised person under the Act and who is, or is considering, applying to the FSA for Part IV permission to carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom;(3) a person who is seeking guidance on whether any communication he may
FIT applies to:(1) a firm;(2) an applicant for Part IV permission;(3) and EEA firm, a Treaty firm or a UCITS qualifier that wishes to establish a branch into the United Kingdom using EEA rights, Treaty rights or UCITS directive rights (see SUP 10.1.12 G and SUP 10.1.13 R ), or apply for a top-up permission (see SUP 10.1.14 R);(4) an approved person; and(5) a candidate.
This chapter is relevant to an applicant for a Part IV permission, as if that applicant were a firm. Where the chapter refers to usualsupervisory contact, the applicant should read this as being the usual contact in the Permissions Department. Further, this chapter is relevant to a person who is subject to rules made by the FSA and where the chapter refers to a firm, this includes that person5.15
2This
chapter applies to a firm with
a Part IV permission to carry on:(1) insurance
business; or(2) home
financing;111(3) and which uses, or proposes
to use, the services of another person consisting of:(a) insurance mediation; or(b) insurance mediation activity; or(c) home
finance mediation activity.11
A firm must take reasonable steps to ensure that each of its appointed representatives:(1) does not carry on regulated activities in breach of the general prohibition in section 19 of the Act; and(2) carries on the regulated activities for which the firm has accepted responsibility in a way which is, and is held out as being, clearly distinct from any of the appointed representative's other business:(a) which is performed as an appointed representative of another firm; or(b) which:(i)
(1) Some of the controlled functions, as set out in SUP 10.4.1 R, apply to an appointed representative of a firm, other than an introducer appointed representative, just as they apply to a firm (see SUP 10.1.16 R). These are the governing functions and the customer function5. As explained in SUP 10.1.16A R and SUP 10.3.2 G respectively:255(a) the effect of SUP 10.1.16 R is that the directors (or their equivalent) and senior managers (or their equivalent) of an appointed representative,
The FSA will consider the full circumstances of each case when determining whether or not to take action for a financial penalty or public censure. Set out below is a list of factors that may be relevant for this purpose. The list is not exhaustive: not all of these factors may be applicable in a particular case, and there may be other factors, not listed, that are relevant.(1) The nature, seriousness and impact of the suspected breach, including:(a) whether the breach was deliberate
In some cases, it may be appropriate for both the FSAand another authority to be involved, and for both to take action in a particular case arising from the same facts. For example, a breach of RIE rules may be so serious as to justify the FSA varying or cancelling the firm's Part IV permission, or withdrawing approval from approved persons, as well as action taken by the RIE. In such cases, the FSA will work with the relevant authority to ensure that cases are dealt with efficiently
(1) If the firm's,periodic fee for the previous financial year was at least £50,000, the firm must pay:(a) an amount equal to 50% of the periodic fee payable for the previous year, by 30 April in the financial yearto which the sum due under FEES 4.2.1 R relates; and (b) the balance of the periodic fee due for the current financial year by 1 September in the financial yearto which that sum relates.(2) If the firm's,periodic fee for the previous financial year was less than £50,000,
Where a firm has applied to cancel its Part IV permission, or its authorisation or registration under the Payment Services Regulations7or the FSA has exercised its own-initiative powers to cancel a firm's7Part IV permission or the FSA has exercised its powers under regulation 10 (Cancellation of authorisation), including as applied by regulation 14 (Supplementary provisions) of the Payment Services Regulations to cancel a firm's authorisation or registration under the Payment
In BIPRU 8.5.5 R, the relevant proportion is either:(1) (in the case of a participation) the proportion of shares issued by the undertaking held by the UK consolidation group or the non-EEA sub-group; or(2) (in the case of a consolidation Article 12(1) relationship or an Article 134 relationship), such proportion (if any) as stated in the Part IV permission of the firm.
The purpose of this guidance is to help persons consider whether they need authorisation or a variation of their Part IV permission. Businesses new to regulation who act only as introducers of insurance business are directed in particular to PERG 5.6.2 G(article 25(1): arranging (bringing about) deals in investments) to PERG 5.6.9 G (Exclusion: Article 72C (Provision of information on an incidental basis)) and PERG 5.15.6 G (Flow chart: Introducers) to help consider whether they
2This chapter applies to a firm with Part IV permission to carry on any of the activities:(1) insurance mediation activity;(2) home finance mediation activity;1unless any of the following exemptions apply:1(3) in relation to insurance mediation activity, this chapter does not apply to a firm if another authorised person which has net tangible assets of more than £10 million provides a comparable guarantee; for this purpose:(a) if the firm is a member of a group in which there
PRIN applies to every firm, except that:(1) for an incoming EEA firm or an incoming Treaty firm, the Principles apply only in so far as responsibility for the matter in question is not reserved by an EU4 instrument to the firm's Home State regulator;4(2) for an incoming EEA firm which is a BCD credit institution without a top-up permission, Principle 4 applies only in relation to the liquidity of a branch established in the United Kingdom;(3) for an incoming EEA firm which has