Related provisions for SUP 18.2.50
41 - 60 of 164 items.
A firm is required to notify the FSA of changes to its close links (see SUP 11.9). Threshold condition 3 (Close links) provides that, if a firm has close links with another person, the FSA must be satisfied that:(1) those close links are not likely to prevent the FSA's effective supervision of the firm; and(2) where it appears to the FSA that the person is subject to the laws, regulations or administrative provisions of a territory which is not an EEA State, neither the foreign
The purposes of the rules and guidance in this section are:(1) to ensure that, in addition to such notifications, the FSA receives regular and comprehensive information about the identities of all persons with whom a firm has close links, which is relevant to a firm's continuing to satisfy the threshold condition 3 (Close links) (see SUP 2.3) and to the protection of consumers; and(2) to implement certain requirements relating to the provision of information on close links which
(1) A firm must submit a report to the FSA annually by completing the Close Links Notification Form (see SUP 11.9.3 AG) and must include5 the information in (3) or (4) (as applicable) and (5)5.(2) A firm must submit the report in (1) to the FSA within four months of the firm'saccounting reference date.(3) If a firm is not aware: (a) that it has any close links; or (b) of any material changes to the details in (4) (a) to (c) in respect of its close links since the submission of
(1) Actuaries appointed under this chapter made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (Information given by auditor or actuary to the Authority). Section 343 and the regulations also apply to an actuary of an authorised person in his capacity as an actuary of a person with close links with the authorised person.4(2) These regulations oblige actuaries to report certain matters to the FSA. Sections 342(3) and 343(3) of the Act provide that an actuary does not
An actuary2 who has ceased to be appointed under this chapter2, or who has been formally notified that he will cease to be so 2appointed, must notify the FSA without delay:222(1) of any matter connected with the cessation which he thinks ought to be drawn to the FSA's attention; or(2) that there is no such matter.
This chapter gives guidance to UK firms. In most cases UK firms will be authorised persons under the Act. However, under the Banking Consolidation Directive, a subsidiary of a firm which is a credit institution which meets the criteria set out in that Directive also has an EEA right. Such an unauthorised subsidiary is known as a financial institution. References in this chapter to a UK firm include a financial institution.
In discharging its obligations under this section, a firm should also consider, together with any other relevant matters:(1) once a
safe custody asset2
has been lodged by the firm with the third party, the third party's performance of its services to the firm;2(2) the arrangements that the third party has in place for holding and safeguarding the safe custody asset;22(3) current industry standard reports, for example Financial Reporting and Auditing Group (FRAG) 21 report or
(1) In assessing whether a penalty would cause an individual serious financial hardship, the FSA will consider the individual’s ability to pay the penalty over a reasonable period (normally no greater than three years). The FSA’s starting point is that an individual will suffer serious financial hardship only if during that period his net annual income will fall below £14,000 and his capital will fall below £16,000 as a result of payment of the penalty. Unless the FSA believes
(1) The FSA will consider reducing the amount of a penalty if a firm will suffer serious financial hardship as a result of having to pay the entire penalty. In deciding whether it is appropriate to reduce the penalty, the FSA will take into consideration the firm’s financial circumstances, including whether the penalty would render the firm insolvent or threaten the firm’s solvency. The FSA will also take into account its regulatory objectives, for example in situations where
A common platform firm must in particular
take the necessary steps to ensure that the following conditions are satisfied:(1) the service provider must have
the ability, capacity, and any authorisation required
by law to perform the outsourced functions,
services or activities reliably and professionally;(2) the service provider must carry
out the outsourced services
effectively, and to this end the firm must
establish methods for assessing the standard of performance of the service
provider;(3)
A common platform firm must make available
on request to the FSA and
any other relevant competent authority all
information necessary to enable the FSA and
any other relevant competent authority to
supervise the compliance of the performance of the outsourced activities
with the requirements of the regulatory system.[Note: article
14(5) of the MiFID implementing Directive]
Under section 148(4) of the Act, the FSA may not give a waiver unless it is satisfied that:(1) compliance by the firm with the rules, or with the rules as unmodified, would be unduly burdensome, or would not achieve the purpose for which the rules were made; and(2) the waiver would not result in undue risk to persons whose interests the rules are intended to protect.
1This chapter applies to every firm and with respect to every regulated activity, except that:(1) for an incoming ECA provider, this chapter does not apply when the firm is acting as such;(2) for an incoming EEA firm which has permission only for cross-border services and which does not carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom, this chapter does not apply;(3) for an incoming firm not falling under (1) or (2), this chapter does not apply to the extent that the firm is
3GEN 4.5 (Statements about authorisation and regulation by the FSA) applies in relation to activities carried on from an establishment maintained by the firm (or by its appointed representative) in the United Kingdom, provided that, in the case of the MiFID business of an EEAMiFID investment firm, it only applies to business conducted within the territory of the United Kingdom.
This chapter does not apply to:(1) an EEA firm that wishes to carry on in the United Kingdom activities which are outside the scope of its EEA right and the scope of a permission granted under Schedule 4 to the Act; in this case the EEA firm requires a "top-up permission" under Part IV of the Act (see the FSA website "How do I get authorised":http://www.fsa.gov.uk/Pages/Doing/how/index.shtml3); or 3(2) an EEA firm that carries on any insurance activity:(a) by the provision of
(1) EEA firms should note that this chapter only addresses the procedures which the FSA will follow under the Act.So, an EEA firm should consider this guidance in conjunction with the requirements with which it will have to comply in its Home State. 6(2) The guidance in this chapter represents the FSA's interpretation of the Single Market Directives, the Act and the secondary legislation made under the Act. The guidance is not exhaustive and should not be seen as a substitute
A firm is required under GENPRU 2.1.52 R (Calculation of the market risk capital requirement) to calculate its market risk capital requirement using the rules in BIPRU 7. However, the FSA may at the firm's request modify GENPRU 2.1.52 R to allow the firm to calculate all or part of the PRR for the positions covered by that model by using a CAD 1 model (for options risk aggregation and/or interest rate pre-processing) or a VaR model (value at risk model) instead. BIPRU 7.10 (Use
The purpose of BIPRU 7.9 is to provide guidance on the FSA's policy for granting CAD 1 model waivers under section 148 of the Act (Modification or waiver of rules). The policy recognises that CAD 1 models may vary across firms but, as a minimum, the FSA will need to be satisfied:(1) about the quality of the internal controls and risk management relating to the model (see BIPRU 7.9.19G - BIPRU 7.9.23G for further details);(2) about the quality of the model standards; and(3) that
No changes should be made to a CAD 1 model unless the change is not material. Material changes to a CAD 1 model will require a renewed waiver to be issued. Materiality is measured from the time that the waiver is granted or, if the waiver has been varied in accordance with section 148 of the Act, any later time that may be specified in the waiver for these purposes. If a firm is considering making material changes to its CAD 1 model, then it should notify the FSA at once. If a
(1) The authorised fund manager may, with the prior agreement of the depositary, and must without delay, if the depositary so requires, temporarily1 suspend the issue, cancellation, sale and redemption of units in an authorised fund (referred to in this chapter as "dealings in units"), where due to exceptional circumstances it is in the interest of all the unitholders in the authorised fund. (1A) The authorised fund manager and the depositary must ensure that the suspension is
Breaching Principle 11, or the rules in this chapter, makes a firm liable to regulatory sanctions, including discipline under Part XIV of the Act (Disciplinary Measures), and may be relevant to the use of the FSA's other powers, including the statutory information gathering and investigation powers (see further PRIN 1.1.7 G to PRIN 1.1.9 G). But, unlike a breach of a requirement imposed under the statutory powers listed in SUP 2.1.5 G, a breach of Principle 11 or a rule:(1) is
2If a firm requires employees who are not subject to an examination requirement to pass a relevant examination from the list of recommended examinations maintained by the Financial Services Skills Council, the FSA will take that into account when assessing whether the firm has ensured that the employee satisfies the knowledge component of the competent employees rule.
Where
the approved person is, or is
one of the approved persons who
is, responsible within the firm for
reporting matters to the FSA, failing promptly to inform the FSA of information of which he is aware
and which it would be reasonable to assume would be of material significance
to the FSA, whether in response to questions or
otherwise, falls within APER 4.4.3 E.
(1) Before an EEA firm other than an EEA pure reinsurer1 exercises an EEA right to provide cross border services into the United Kingdom, the Act requires it to satisfy the service conditions, as set out in paragraph 14 of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act. (2) For the purposes of paragraph 14(1)(b) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, the information to be contained in the regulator's notice has been prescribed under regulation 3 of the EEA Passport Rights Regulations.
(1) Unless the EEA firm other than an EEA pure reinsurer1is passporting under the Insurance Mediation Directive, if the FSA receives a regulator's notice or, where no notice is required (in the case of an EEA firm passporting under the Banking Consolidation Directive), is informed of the EEA firm's intention to provide cross border services into the United Kingdom, the FSA will, under paragraphs 14(2)(b) and 14(3) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, notify the EEA firm of the