Related provisions for SUP 11.4.1

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REC 2.5.1UKRP

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, paragraph 3

2(1)

The [UK RIE] must ensure that the systems and controls used in the performance of its [relevant functions] are adequate, and appropriate for the scale and nature of its business.

(2)

Sub-paragraph (1) applies in particular to systems and controls concerning -

(a)

the transmission of information;

(b)

the assessment, mitigation and management of risks to the performance of the [UK RIE'srelevant functions];

(c)

the effecting and monitoring of transactions on the [UK RIE];

(ca)

the technical operation of the [UK RIE], including contingency arrangements for disruption to its facilities;

(d)

the operation of the arrangements mentioned in paragraph 4(2)(d); and

(e)

(where relevant) the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to users of the [UK RIE's] facilities.
DISP 2.6.4RRP
The Voluntary Jurisdiction covers only complaints about the activities of a VJ participant carried on from an establishment:519(1) in the United Kingdom; or(2) elsewhere in the EEA if the following conditions are met:(a) the activity is directed wholly or partly at the United Kingdom (or part of it);(b) contracts governing the activity are (or, in the case of a potential customer, would have been) made under the law of England and Wales, Scotland or Northern Ireland; and(c) the
BIPRU 3.5.2GRP
The approach in this section is only likely to be relevant for a limited licence firm or a limited activity firm that has only incidental credit exposures and for whom it would be prohibitively costly to establish the systems needed to include the credit assessments of ECAIs and export credit agencies in its regulatory capital calculations. However the approach may be used by other firms if appropriate. A firm should notify the FSA if it adopts the approach in this section.
PR 2.4.1RRP
(1) Information may be incorporated in the prospectus by reference to one or more previously or simultaneously published documents that have been approved by the competent authority of the Home State1 or filed with or notified to it in accordance with the prospectus directive1 or titles IV and V of CARD.11(2) In particular under paragraph (1), information may be incorporated by reference to information contained or referred to in an annual information update.1 [Note: article
COLL 7.4.1GRP
(1) This section deals with the circumstances and manner in which an AUT is to be wound up or a sub-fund of an AUT is to be terminated. Under section 256 of the Act (Requests for revocation of authorisation order), the manager or trustee of an AUT may request the FSA to revoke the authorisation order in respect of that AUT. Section 257 of the Act (Directions) gives the FSA the power to make certain directions.(2) The termination of a sub-fund under this section will be subject
CASS 5.6.5RRP
A primary pooling event occurs:(1) on the failure of the firm; or(2) on the vesting of assets in a trustee in accordance with an 'assets requirement' imposed under section 48(1)(b)of the Act; or(3) on the coming into force of a requirement for all client money held by the firm; or(4) when the firm notifies, or is in breach of its duty to notify, the FSA, in accordance with CASS 5.5.77 R1, that it is unable correctly to identify and allocate in its records all valid claims arising
COLL 6.3.6GRP

Table: This table belongs to COLL 6.3.2 G (2) (a) and COLL 6.3.3 R (Valuation)1.

Valuation and pricing

1

The valuation of scheme property

(1)

Where possible, investments should be valued using a reputable source. The reliability of the source of prices should be kept under regular review.

(2)

For some or all of the investments comprising the scheme property, different prices may quoted according to whether they are being bought (offer prices) or sold (bid prices). The valuation of a single-priced authorised fund should reflect the mid-market value of such investments. In the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, the issue basis of the valuation will be carried out by reference to the offer prices of investments and the cancellation basis by reference to the bid prices of those same investments. The prospectus should explain how investments will be valued for which a single price is quoted for both buying and selling.1

1

3(2A)

Schemes investing in approved money-market instruments5should value such instruments on an amortised cost basis on condition that:5

55

[Note:CESR's UCITS eligible assets guidelines with respect to article 4(2) of the UCITS eligible assets Directive]

(3)

Any part of the scheme property of an authorised fund that is not an investment should be valued at a fair value, but for immovables this is subject to COLL 5.6.20 R (3) (f) (Standing independent valuer and valuation).

(4)

For the purposes of (2) and (3), any fiscal charges, commissions, professional fees or other charges that were paid, or would be payable on acquiring or disposing of the investment or other part of the scheme property should, in the case of a single-priced authorised fund,2 be excluded from the value of an investment or other part of the scheme property. In the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, any such payments should be added to the issue basis of the valuation, or subtracted from the cancellation basis of the valuation, as appropriate. Alternatively, the prospectus of a dual-priced authorised fund may prescribe any other method of calculating unitprices that ensures an equivalent treatment of the effect of these payments.2

(5)

Where the authorised fund manager has reasonable grounds to believe that:

it should value an investment at a price which, in its opinion, reflects a fair and reasonable price for that investment (the fair value price);

(6)

The circumstances which may give rise to a fair value price being used include:

  • no recent trade in the security concerned; or
  • the occurrence of a significant event since the most recent closure of the market where the price of the security is taken.
In (b), a significant event is one that means the most recent price of a security or a basket of securities is materially different to the price that it is reasonably believed would exist at the valuation point had the relevant market been open.

(7)

In determining whether to use such a fair value price , the authorised fund manager should include in his consideration:

4(7A)

Where the authorised fund manager, the depositary or the standing independent valuer have reasonable grounds to believe that the most recent valuation of an immovable does not reflect the current value of that immovable, the authorised fund manager should consult and agree with the standing independent valuer a fair and reasonable value for the immovable.

(8)

The authorised fund manager should document the basis of valuation (including any fair value pricing policy) and, where appropriate, the basis of any methodology and ensure that the procedures are applied consistently and fairly.

(9)

Where a unit price is determined using properly applied fair value prices in accordance with policies in (8), subsequent information that indicates the price should have been different from that calculated will not normally give rise to an instance of incorrect pricing.

2

The pricing controls of the authorised fund manager

(1)

An authorised fund manager needs to be able to demonstrate that it has effective controls over its calculations of unit prices.

(2)

The controls referred to in (1) should ensure that:

  • asset prices are accurate and up to date;
  • investment 1transactions are accurately and promptly reflected in valuations;
  • the components of the valuation (including stock, cash, and units in issue1), are regularly reconciled to their source or prime records and any reconciling items resolved promptly and debtors reviewed for recoverability;
  • the sources of prices not obtained from the main pricing source are recorded and regularly reviewed;
  • compliance with the investment and borrowing powers is regularly reviewed;
  • dividends are accounted for as soon as securities1 are quoted ex-dividend (unless it is prudent to account for them on receipt):
  • fixed interest dividends, interest and expenses are accrued at each valuation point1;
  • tax positions are regularly reviewed and adjusted, if necessary;
  • reasonable tolerances are set for movements in the key elements of a valuation and movements outside these tolerances are investigated;5
  • the fund manager regularly reviews the portfolio valuation for accuracy5; and5
  • the valuation of OTC derivatives is accurate and up to date and in compliance with the methods agreed with the depositary.5

(3)

In exercising its pricing controls, the authorised fund manager may exercise reasonable discretion in determining the appropriate frequency of the operation of the controls and may choose a longer interval, if appropriate, given the level of activity on the authorised fund1or the materiality of any effect on the price.

(4)

Evidence of the exercise of the pricing controls should be retained.

(5)

Evidence of persistent or repetitive errors in relation to these matters, and in particular any evidence of a pattern of errors working in an authorised fund manager's favour, will make demonstrating effective controls more difficult.

(6)

Where the pricing1function is delegated to a third party, COLL 6.6.15 R (1) (Committees and delegation) will apply.

3

The depositary's review of the authorised fund manager's systems and controls

(1)

This section provides details of the types of checks a depositary should carry out to be satisfied that the authorised fund manager adopts systems and controls which are appropriate to ensure that prices of units are calculated in accordance with this section and to ensure that the likelihood of incorrect prices will be minimised. These checks also apply where an authorised fund manager has delegated all or some of its pricing1 functions to one or more third parties5.

5

(2)

A depositary should thoroughly review an authorised fund manager's systems and controls to confirm that they are satisfactory. The depositary's review should include an analysis of the controls in place to determine the extent to which reliance can be placed on them.

(3)

A review should be performed when the depositary is appointed and thereafter as it feels appropriate given its knowledge of the robustness and the stability of the systems and controls and their operation.

(4)

A review should be carried out more frequently where a depositary knows or suspects that an authorised fund manager's systems and controls are weak or are otherwise unsatisfactory.

(5)

Additionally, a depositary should from time to time review other aspects of the valuation of the scheme property of each authorised fund for which it is responsible, verifying, on a sample basis, if necessary, the assets, liabilities, accruals, units in issue1, securities prices (and in particular the prices of OTC derivatives,5unapproved securities and the basis for the valuation of unquoted securities) and any other relevant matters, for example an accumulation factor or a currency conversion factor.

(6)

A depositary should ensure that any issues, which are identified in any such review, are properly followed up and resolved.

4

The recording and reporting of instances of incorrect pricing

(1)

An authorised fund manager should record each instance where the price of a unit is incorrect as soon as the error is discovered, and report the fact to the depositary together with details of the action taken, or to be taken, to avoid repetition as soon as practicable.

(2)

In accordance with COLL 6.6.11 G (Duty to inform the FSA), the depositary should report any breach of the rules in COLL 6.3 immediately to the FSA. However, notification should relate to instances which the depositary considers material only.

(3)

A depositary should also report to the FSA immediately any instance of incorrect pricing1where the error is 0.5% or more of the price of a unit, where a depositary believes that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate and should not be paid by an authorised fund manager.

(4)

In accordance with SUP 16.6.8 R, a depositary should also make a return to the FSA on a quarterly basis which summarises the number of instances of incorrect pricing1 during a particular period.

5

The rectification of pricing breaches

(1)

COLL 6.6.3 R (1) (Functions of the authorised fund manager) places a duty on the authorised fund manager to take action to reimburse affected unitholders, former unitholders, and the scheme itself, for instances of incorrect pricing1, except if it appears to the depositary that the breach is of minimal significance.

(2)

A depositary may consider that the instance of incorrect pricing1is of minimal significance if:

(3)

In determining (2), if the instance of incorrect pricing1 is due to one or more factors or exists over a period of time, each price should be considered separately.

(4)

If a depositary deems it appropriate, it may, in spite of the circumstances outlined in (2), require a payment from the authorised fund manager or from the authorised fund to the unitholders, former unitholders, the authorised fund or the authorised fund manager (where appropriate).

(5)

The depositary should satisfy itself that any payments required following an instance of incorrect pricing1 are accurately and promptly calculated and paid.

(6)

If a depositary considers that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate, it should report the matter to the FSA, together with its recommendation and justification. The depositary should take into account the need to avoid prejudice to the rights of unitholders, or the rights of unitholders in a class of units.

(7)

It may not be practicable, or in some cases legally permissible, for the authorised fund manager to obtain reimbursement from unitholders, where the unitholders have benefited from the incorrect price.

(8)

In all cases where reimbursement or payment is required, amounts due to be reimbursed to unitholders for individual sums which are reasonably considered by the authorised fund manager and depositary to be immaterial, need not normally be paid.
SUP 13A.5.4GRP
(1) Unless the EEA firm other than an EEA pure reinsurer1is passporting under the Insurance Mediation Directive, if the FSA receives a regulator's notice or, where no notice is required (in the case of an EEA firm passporting under the Banking Consolidation Directive), is informed of the EEA firm's intention to provide cross border services into the United Kingdom, the FSA will, under paragraphs 14(2)(b) and 14(3) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, notify the EEA firm of the
FEES 4.2.11RRP

Table of periodic fees

1 Fee payer

2 Fee payable

3 Due date

4 Events occurring during the period leading to modified periodic fee

Any firm (except an ICVC or a UCITS qualifier)

As specified in FEES 4.3.1 R

(1) Unless (2) or (3) apply7, on or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R

(2) Unless (3) applies, if 7an event specified in column 4 occurs during the course of a financial year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event, or if later the dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R.7

(3) Where the permission is for operating a multilateral trading facility, the date specified in FEES 4 Annex 10 (Periodic fees for MTF operators).

77

Firm receives permission, or becomes authorised or registered under the Payment Services Regulations ;9 or firm9extends permission or its payment service activities9

9

Any firm which reports transactions3 to the FSA using the FSA's Direct Reporting System or FSA's Transaction Reporting System (see SUP 17)

3

FEES 4 Annex 3

(1) For transaction charges, the first working day of each month

(2) For licence fees and enrolment charges, by the date set out on the relevant invoice

Not applicable

Persons who hold a certificate issued by the FSA under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order (Advice given in newspapers etc.)

£1,000

(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before 30 April

(2) If an event in column 4

occurs

during the course of a financial year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event

Certificate issued to person by FSA under Article 54 RAO

Any manager of an authorised unit trust;

In relation to each unit trust the amount specified in FEES 4 Annex 4

Authorisation order is made in relation to the relevant scheme

Any ACD of an ICVC; and

In relation to each ICVC the amount specified in FEES 4 Annex 4

Persons who, under the constitution or founding arrangements of a recognised scheme, is responsible for the management of the property held for or within the scheme;

In relation to each recognised scheme the amount specified in FEES 4 Annex 4

The relevant scheme becomes a recognised collective investment scheme

Not applicable

UK recognised body

FEES 4 Annex 6, part 1

(1) Unless (2) applies, by the due dates set out in FEES 4 Annex 6, part 1

(2) If the event in column 4 occurs during the course of a financial year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event

Recognition order is made.Modified periodic fee:

(1) for a UKrecognised investment exchange, 150,000;

(2) for a UKrecognised clearing house, 250,000.

Overseas recognised body

FEES 4 Annex 6, part 2

(1), unless (2) applies, 1 July.

(2) If the event in column 4 occurs during the course of a financial year , 30 days after the occurrence of that event.

Recognition order is made.Modified periodic fee:

(1) for an overseas investment exchange, 10,000;

(2) for a overseas clearing house, 35,000.

Listedissuers (in LR) of shares, depositary receipts and securitised derivatives (in LR), unless the conditions set out below apply.3

The first condition is that the listedissuer, or a related entity, has already paid a periodic fee in respect of the period concerned. The second condition is that the listedissuer is subject to listing rules as a result of a reverse takeover, or that the listedissuer is a newly formed entity, created as a result of a restructuring.3

FEES 4 Annex 7

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

Listedissuer3 (in LR) becomes subject to listing rules

3

Sponsors

12,50010 per year for the period from 1 April to 31 March the following year (see Note)2

10

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

Approval of sponsor

All non-listed issuers (in DTR) of shares, depositary receipts and securitised derivatives.6

6

FEES 4 Annex 8

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

Non-listed issuer (in DTR) becomes subject to disclosure rules and transparency rules6

6All firms reporting transactions in securities derivatives10to the FSA in accordance with SUP 17, and market operators who provide facilities for trading in securities derivatives.10

10

FEES 4 Annex 9 R

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

Not applicable

Note:Sponsors on the list of approved sponsors as at 1 April each year will be liable for the full year's annual fee unless FEES 4.3.13 R applies.2

BIPRU 8.4.18RRP
If a firm has an investment firm consolidation waiver, it must:(1) ensure that each CAD investment firm in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group which is a firm or an EEA firm has in place systems to monitor and control the sources of capital and funding of all the members in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group;(2) notify the FSA of any serious risk that could undermine the financial stability of the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group, as soon as
LR 19.4.11AGRP
1An issuer, whose securities are admitted to trading on a regulated market, should consider its obligations under DTR 4 (Periodic financial reporting), DTR 5 (Vote holder and issuer notification rules) and DTR 6 (Access to information).
LR 1.2.1RRP
(1) The FSA may dispense with or modify the listing rules in such cases and by reference to such circumstances as it considers appropriate (subject to the terms of EU directives and the Act).(2) A dispensation or modification may be either unconditional or subject to specified conditions.(3) If an issuer or sponsor has applied for, or been granted, a dispensation or modification, it must notify the FSA immediately it becomes aware of any matter which is material to the relevance
SUP 3.3.2RRP
A firm to which this section applies (see SUP 3.1) must:(1) appoint an auditor;(2) notify the FSA, without delay, on the form in SUP 15 Ann 2R (Standing data form), in accordance with the instructions on the form, when it is aware that a vacancy in the office of auditor will arise or has arisen, giving the reason for the vacancy;2(3) appoint an auditor to fill any vacancy in the office of auditor which has arisen; (4) ensure that the replacement auditor can take up office at the
RCB 2.3.2GRP
(1) The FSA's application form covers both issuer registration and covered bond registration as the FSA will not normally consider applications for issuer registration in isolation from the application for registration of the covered bond.(2) An issuer which has been admitted to the register of issuers should use the same form to apply for registration of subsequent covered bonds or programmes.(3) The issuer does not need to apply for registration of individual issuances from