Related provisions for PERG 8.3.4
381 - 400 of 625 items.
If it appears to the FSA that an appropriate actuary has failed to comply with a duty imposed on him under the Act, it may disqualify him under section 345 of the Act. For more detail about what happens when the disqualification of an actuary is being considered or put into effect, see EG 153 (Disqualification of auditors and actuaries)2. A list of actuaries who have been disqualified by the FSA may be found on the FSA website (www.fsa.gov.uk).3
A primary pooling event occurs:(1) on the failure of the firm;(2) on the vesting of assets in a
trustee
in accordance with an 'assets requirement' imposed under section 48(1)(b)of the Act;(3) on the coming into force of a requirement for all client money held by the firm; or(4) when the firm notifies, or is in breach of its duty to notify, the FSA, in accordance with
CASS 7.6.16 R
(Notification requirements), that it is unable correctly to identify and allocate in its records
(1) COBS 11.8.8R (2) includes conversations and communications relating to specific transactions which are intended to lead to the conclusion of an agreement by the firm to deal with or on behalf of the client as principal or agent, even if those conversations or communications do not lead to the conclusion of such an agreement. It does not include conversations or communications which are not intended to lead to the conclusion of such an agreement, such as general conversations
A firm must take reasonable steps to retain all records made by it under COBS 11.8.5 R:(1) for a period of at least 6 months from the date the record was created;(2) in a medium that allows the storage of the information in a way accessible for future reference by the FSA, and so that the following conditions are met:(a) the FSA must be able to access the records readily;(b) it must be possible for any corrections or other amendments, and the contents of the records prior to such
The FSA's penalty-setting regime is based on the following principles:(1) Disgorgement - a firm or individual should not benefit from any breach;(2) Discipline - a firm or individual should be penalised for wrongdoing; and(3) Deterrence - any penalty imposed should deter the firm or individual who committed the breach, and others, from committing further or similar breaches.
(1) The total amount payable by a person subject to enforcement action may be made up of two elements: (i) disgorgement of the benefit received as a result of the breach; and (ii) a financial penalty reflecting the seriousness of the breach. These elements are incorporated in a five-step framework, which can be summarised as follows:(a) Step 1: the removal of any financial benefit derived directly from the breach;(b) Step 2: the determination of a figure which reflects the seriousness
This manual applies in the following way:(1) FEES 1, 2 and 3 apply to:(a) every applicant for Part IV permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission);(b) every Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights), except those providing cross border services only,2 in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right; (c) every applicant for a certificate under article
The following rules in FEES apply to VJ participants as part of the standard terms, but substituting 'VJ participant' for 'firm':(1) FEES 2.2.1 R (late payment) but substituting 'FOS Ltd' for 'the FSA';(2) FEES 2.3.1 R and 2.3.2 R (remission of fees);(3) FEES 4.2.6 R (1)(b) (periodic fees);(4) FEES 5.3.6 R (general levy) but substituting:(a) 'Voluntary Jurisdiction' for 'Compulsory Jurisdiction' ; and(b) 'FOS Ltd' for 'the FSA';(5) FEES 5.3.8 R (calculation of general levy) but
An applicant for the admission of securitised derivatives must either:(1) have permission under the Act to carry on its activities relating to securitised derivatives and be either a bank or a securities and futures firm;(2) if the applicant is an overseas company:(a) be regulated by an overseas regulator responsible for the regulation of banks, securities firms or futures firms and which has a lead regulation agreement for financial supervision with the FSA; and(b) be carrying
This guidance is issued under section 157of the Act (Guidance). It is designed to throw light on particular aspects of regulatory requirements, not to be an exhaustive description of a person's obligations. If a person acts in line with the guidance in the circumstances it contemplates, the FSA will proceed on the footing that the person has complied with aspects of the requirement to which the guidance relates. Rights conferred on third parties cannot be affected by guidance
The only kind of body corporate of an open-ended kind that may currently be formed under the law of the United Kingdom is one that is authorised by the FSA. A person intending to form an open-ended body corporate that has its head office in Great Britain should refer to the Open-ended Investment Companies Regulations 2001 (SI 2001/1228). Bodies corporate formed under these Regulations are referred to in the Handbook as investment companies with variable capital (or ' ICVCs ').
In determining whether a UK recognised body has effective arrangements for the investigation and resolution of complaints arising in connection with the performance of, or failure to perform, any of its regulatory functions, the FSA may have regard to the extent to which the UK recognised body's resources and procedures enable it to:(1) acknowledge complaints promptly;(2) make an objective, prompt and thorough initial investigation of complaints;(3) provide a timely reply to the
In determining whether a UK recognised body's arrangements for the investigation of complaints include appropriate arrangements for the complaint to be fairly and impartially investigated by an independent person (a "complaints investigator"), the FSA may have regard to:(1) the arrangements made for appointing (and removing) a complaints investigator, including the terms and conditions of such an appointment and the provision for remuneration of a complaints investigator; (2)
25Nothing in this appendix relieves firms of the obligation to consider the particular facts and circumstances of each complaint and to consider whether the assessment of loss and compensation should, in the light of those facts and circumstances, be carried out on a different basis. If, however, the facts and circumstances make it appropriate to do so, the FSA's expectation is that firms will apply the approach and standards set out in this appendix, and where they do not, the
The FSA maintains a published list of non-EEA State which, for the purpose of article 23.1 of the TD, are judged to have laws which lay down requirements equivalent to those imposed upon issuers by this chapter. Such issuers remain subject to the following requirements of DTR 6:(1) the filing of information with the FSA;(2) the language provisions; and(3) the dissemination of information provisions.
(1) Recognised bodies are exempt persons under section 285 of the Act (Exemption for recognised investment exchanges and clearing houses).(2) UK recognised bodies must satisfy recognition requirements prescribed by the Treasury (in certain cases with the approval of the Secretary of State) in the Recognition Requirements Regulations. UK RIEs must also satisfy the MiFID implementing requirements in the MiFID Regulation.2Overseas recognised bodies must satisfy recognition requirements
(1) The recognition requirements for UK recognised bodies and the MiFID implementing requirements2are set out, with guidance, in REC 2.(2) The notification rules for UKrecognised bodies are set out in REC 3 together with guidance on those rules.(3) Guidance on the FSA's approach to the supervision of recognised bodies is given in REC 4.(4) Guidance for applicants (and potential applicants) for UK recognised body status is given in REC 5.(5) The recognition requirements, notification
The FSA may modify LR 14.2.2 R to accept a percentage lower than 25% if it considers that the market will operate properly with a lower percentage in view of the large number of shares of the same class and the extent of their distribution to the public. For that purpose, the FSA may take into account shares of the same class that are held (even though they are not listed) in states that are not EEA States.1[Note: Article 48 CARD]
The FSA will not admit shares of a company incorporated in a non-EEA State that are not listed either in its country of incorporation or in the country in which a majority of its shares are held, unless the FSA is satisfied that the absence of the listing is not due to the need to protect investors. [Note: Article 51 CARD]
(1) The FSA expects that the majority of requests it will receive for the winding up of an authorised fund (under regulation 21(1) of the OEIC Regulations or under section 256 of the Act) or termination of a sub-fund will be from authorised fund managers and depositaries who consider that the AUT, ICVC or sub-fund in question is no longer commercially viable.(2) It is in consumers' interests to minimise, as far as possible, the period between which the FSA receives such requests
The information referred to in COLL 7.5.1 G is listed below:(1) the name of the authorised fund or sub-fund;(2) the size of the authorised fund or sub-fund;(3) the number of unitholders; (4) whether dealing in units has been suspended;(5) why the request is being made; (6) what consideration has been given to the authorised fund or sub-fund entering into a scheme of arrangement with another regulated collective investment scheme and the reasons why a scheme of arrangement is not