Related provisions for SUP 9.2.4

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GEN 1.3.1GRP
The FSA recognises that there may be occasions when, because of a particular emergency, a person (generally a firm, but in certain circumstances, for example in relation to price stabilising rules or small e-money issuerrules, an unauthorised person) may be unable to comply with a particular rule in the Handbook. The purpose of GEN 1.3.2 R is to provide appropriate relief from the consequences of contravention of such a rule in those circumstances.1
GEN 1.3.2RRP
(1) If any emergency arises which:(a) makes it impracticable for a person to comply with a particular rule in the Handbook; (b) could not have been avoided by the person taking all reasonable steps; and(c) is outside the control of the person, its associates and agents (and of its and their employees);the person will not be in contravention of that rule to the extent that, in consequence of the emergency, compliance with that rule is impracticable. (2) Paragraph (1) applies only
GEN 1.3.3GRP
A firm should continue to keep the FSA informed of the steps it is taking under GEN 1.3.2 R (3), in order to comply with its obligations under Principle 11 (Relations with regulators).
GEN 1.3.5GRP
GEN 1.3.2 R operates on the FSA's rules. It does not affect the FSA's powers to take action against a firm in an emergency, based on contravention of other requirements and standards under the regulatory system. For example, the FSA may exercise its own-initiative power in appropriate cases to vary a firm's Part IV permission based on a failure or potential failure to satisfy the threshold conditions (see SUP 7 (Applying the FSA's requirements to individual firms) and EG 8
LR 10.8.1GRP
(1) A listed company in severe financial difficulty may find itself with no alternative but to dispose of a substantial part of its business within a short time frame to meet its ongoing working capital requirements or to reduce its liabilities. Due to time constraints it may not be able to prepare a circular and convene an extraordinary general meeting to obtain prior shareholder approval.(2) The FSA may modify the requirements in LR 10.5 to prepare a circular and to obtain shareholder
LR 10.8.2GRP
The listed company should demonstrate to the FSA that it could not reasonably have entered into negotiations earlier to enable shareholder approval to be sought.
LR 10.8.3GRP
The following documents should be provided in writing to the FSA:(1) confirmation from the listed company that:(a) negotiation does not allow time for shareholder approval;(b) all alternative methods of financing have been exhausted and the only option remaining is to dispose of a substantial part of their business;(c) by taking the decision to dispose of part of the business to raise cash, the directors are acting in the best interests of the company and shareholders as a whole
LR 10.8.4GRP
An announcement should be notified to a RIS no later than the date the terms of the disposal are agreed and should contain:(1) all relevant information required to be notified under LR 10.4.1 R;(2) the name of the acquirer and the expected date of completion of the disposal;(3) full disclosure about the continuing groups prospects for at least the current financial year;(4) a statement that the directors believe that the disposal is in the best interests of the company and shareholders
LR 10.8.6GRP
(1) The FSA will wish to examine the documents referred to in LR 10.8.3 G (including the RIS announcement) before it grants the modification and before the announcement is released.(2) The documents should ordinarily be lodged with the FSA:(a) in draft form at least five clear business days before the terms of the transaction are agreed; and(b) in final form on the day on which approval is sought.
PR 5.3.1UKRP

Sections 87H and 87I of the Act provide:

Prospectus approved in another EEA State

87H

(1)

A prospectus approved by the competent authority of an EEA State other than the United Kingdom is not an approved prospectus for the purposes of section 85 unless that authority has provided the competent authority with –

(a)

a certificate of approval;

(b)

a copy of the prospectus as approved; and

(c)

if requested by the [FSA], a translation of the summary of the prospectus.

(2)

A document is not a certificate of approval unless it states that the prospectus –

(a)

has been drawn up in accordance with the prospectus directive; and

(b)

has been approved, in accordance with that directive, by the competent authority providing the certificate.

(3)

A document is not a certificate of approval unless it states whether (and, if so, why) the competent authority providing it authorised, in accordance with the prospectus directive, the omission from the prospectus of information which would otherwise have been required to be included.

(4)

“Prospectus” includes a supplementary prospectus.

Provision of information to host Member State

87I

(1)

The [FSA] must, if requested to do so, supply the competent authority of a specified EEA State with –

(a)

a certificate of approval;

(b)

a copy of the specified prospectus (as approved by the [FSA]); and

(c)

a translation of the summary of the specified prospectus (if the request states that one has been requested by the other competent authority).

(2)

Only the following may make a request under this section –

(a)

the issuer of the transferable securities to which the specified prospectus relates;

(b)

a person who wishes to offer the transferable securities to which the specified prospectus relates to the public in an EEA State other than (or as well as) the United Kingdom;

(c)

a person requesting the admission of the transferable securities to which the specified prospectus relates to a regulated market situated or operating in an EEA State other than (or as well as) the United Kingdom.

(3)

A certificate of approval must state that the prospectus –

(a)

has been drawn up in accordance with this Part and the prospectus directive; and

(b)

has been approved, in accordance with those provisions, by the [FSA].

(4)

A certificate of approval must state whether (and, if so, why) the [FSA] authorised, in accordance with section 87B, the omission from the prospectus of information which would otherwise have been required to be included.

(5)

The [FSA] must comply with a request under this section –

(a)

if the prospectus has been approved before the request is made, within 3 working days beginning with the date of the request; or

(b)

if the request is submitted with an application for the approval of the prospectus, on the first working day after the date on which it approves the prospectus.

(6)

“Prospectus” includes a supplementary prospectus.

(7)

“Specified” means specified in a request made for the purposes of this section.
PR 5.3.2RRP
(1) This rule applies to a request by a person to the FSA to supply information referred to in section 87I of the Act to the competent authority of a relevant Host State.(2) The request must be in writing and must include:(a) the relevant prospectus as approved (if it has already been approved); and(b) a translation of the summary if required by the competent authority of a relevant host State.
PR 5.3.3GRP
The FSA will inform the person who made the request as soon as practicable after it has supplied the information to the other competent authority.
PR 5.3.4GRP
If the FSA receives information referred to in section 87H from another competent authority it will as soon as practicable give notice on the FSA website that it has received the information.11
REC 2.2.1UKRP

Recognition Requirements Regulations, Regulation 6

2(1) In considering whether a [UK recognised body] or applicant satisfiesrecognition requirements applying to it under these [Recognition Requirements Regulations], the [FSA] may take into account all relevant circumstances including the constitution of the person concerned and its regulatory provisions within the meaning of section 302(1) of the Act.

(2) Without prejudice to the generality of paragraph (1), a [UK recognised body] or applicant may satisfyrecognition requirements applying to it under these [Recognition Requirements Regulations] by making arrangements for functions to be performed on its behalf by any otherperson.

(3) Where a [UK recognised body] or applicant makes arrangements of the kind mentioned in paragraph (2), the arrangements do not affect the responsibility imposed by the Act on the [UK recognised body] or applicant to satisfy recognition requirements applying to it under these [Recognition Requirements Regulations ], but it is in addition a recognition requirement applying to the [UK recognised body] or applicant that the person who performs (or is to perform) the functions is a fit and proper person who is able and willing to perform them.
REC 2.2.2GRP
The FSA will usually expect :(1) the constitution, regulatory provisions and practices of the UK recognised body or applicant;(2) the nature (including complexity, diversity and risk) and scale of the UK recognised body's or applicant's business; (3) the size and nature of the market which is supported by the UK recognised body's or applicant's facilities; (4) the nature and status of the types of investor who use the UK recognised body's or applicant's facilities or have an interest
REC 2.2.3GRP
It is the UK recognised body's responsibility to demonstrate to the FSA that a person who performs a function on behalf of the UK recognised body is fit and proper and able and willing to perform that function. The recognition requirement referred to in Regulation 6(3) applies to the UK recognised body and not to any person who performs any function on its behalf. In this context, for a person to be "fit and proper" does not necessarily imply that he is an authorised person, or
REC 2.2.6GRP
In determining whether the UK recognised body meets the recognition requirement in Regulation 6(3), the FSA may have regard to whether that body has ensured that the person who performs that function on its behalf:(1) has sufficient resources to be able to perform the function (after allowing for any other activities);(2) has adequate systems and controls to manage that function and to report on its performance to the UK recognised body;(3) is managed by persons of sufficient
REC 2.2.7GRP
In determining whether a UK recognised body continues to satisfy the recognition requirements where it has made arrangements for any function to be performed on its behalf by any person , the FSA may have regard, in addition to any of the matters described in the appropriate section of this chapter, to the arrangements made to exercise control over the performance of the function, including:(1) the contracts (and other relevant documents) between the UK recognised body and the
SUP 16.8.2GRP
1The purpose of this section is to enable information on the persistency of life policies and data on stakeholder pensions to be prepared and provided to the FSA in a standard format. This information is used in the monitoring of firms both individually and collectively.
SUP 16.8.3RRP
(1) 1An insurer with permission to effect orcarry outlife policies must submit to the FSA a persistency report in respect of life policies by 30 April each year in accordance with this section.(2) A firm with permission to establish, operate or wind up a stakeholder pension scheme must submit to the FSA:(a) a data report on stakeholder pensions by 30 April each year prepared in accordance with this section; and(b) two extra data reports on stakeholder pensions prepared in accordance
SUP 16.8.4RRP
1In this section, and Forms 1R(2) to (4) in SUP 16 Annex 6R:(1) '12 month report' means the part of a persistency report or data report reporting on life policies or stakeholder pensions effected in Y-2, '24 month report' means the part of a persistency report or data report reporting on life policies or stakeholder pensions effected in Y-3, and so on;(2) 'CC' means the number of life policies or stakeholder pensions which: (a) were effected during the period to which the calculation
SUP 16.8.23RRP
1A firm must make and retain such records as will enable it to:(1) monitor regularly the persistency of life policies and stakeholder pensions effected through each of its representatives; and (2) make persistency reports or data reports to the FSA in accordance with SUP 16.8.3R.
PERG 9.3.2GRP
Each of these aspects of the definition is considered in greater detail in PERG 9.4 (Collective investment scheme (section 235 of the Act)) to PERG 9.9 (The investment condition: the 'satisfaction test' (section 236(3)(b) of the Act)). Although the definition has a number of elements, the FSA considers that it requires an overall view to be taken of the body corporate. This is of particular importance in relation to the investment condition (see PERG 9.6.3 G and PERG 9.6.4 G (The
PERG 9.3.4GRP
In the FSA's view, all of the elements of the definition are clearly objective tests. In applying the definition to any particular case, a person would need to have regard to all the circumstances. This includes any changes in the way that the body corporate operates.
PERG 9.3.5GRP
The FSA understands that the aim of the definition in section 236 of the Act is to include any body corporate which, looked at as a whole, functions as an open-ended investment vehicle. The definition operates against a background that there is a wide range of different circumstances in which any particular body corporate can be established and operated. For example, the definition applies to bodies corporate wherever they are formed. So, in the application of the definition to
PERG 9.3.6GRP
For a body corporate formed outside the United Kingdom, there is an additional issue as to how the applicable corporate law and the definition of open-ended investment company in the Act relate to one another. The FSA understands this to operate as follows. The term 'body corporate' is defined in section 417(1) of the Act (Interpretation) as including 'a body corporate constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom'. So, whether or not any particular
REC 3.2.2RRP
Unless otherwise stated in the notification rule, a written notification required from a recognised body under any notification rule must be:(1) given to, or addressed for the attention of, the recognised body's usual supervisory contact at the FSA;(2) delivered to the FSA by one of the methods in REC 3.2.3 R.
REC 3.2.3RRP

Methods of notification

Method of delivery

(1)

Post to the address in REC 3.2.4 R

(2)

Leaving the notification at the address in REC 3.2.4 R and obtaining a time-stamped receipt

(3)

Electronic mail to an address for the recognised body's usual supervisory contact at the FSA and obtaining an electronic confirmation of receipt

(4)

Hand delivery to the recognised body's usual supervisory contact at the FSA

(5)

Fax to a fax number for the recognised body's usual supervisory contact at the FSA, provided that the FSA receives a copy of the notification by one of methods (1) - (4) in this table within five business days after the date of the faxed notification
REC 3.2.4RRP
The address for a written notification to the FSA is:The Financial Services Authority25 The North ColonnadeCanary WharfLondon E14 5HS
REC 3.2.5RRP
If a notification rule requires notification within a specified period:(1) the recognised body must give the notification so as to be received by the FSA no later than the end of that period; and (2) if the end of that period falls on a day which is not a business day, the notification must be given so as to be received by the FSA no later than the first business day after the end of that period.
REC 6A.2.1GRP
1Under section 312B of the Act, the FSA may prohibit an EEA market operator from making or, as the case may be, continuing arrangements in the United Kingdom, to facilitate access to, or use of, a regulated market, or multilateral trading facility, operated by the operator if:(1) the FSA has clear and demonstrable grounds for believing that the operator has contravened a relevant requirement, and(2) the FSA has first complied with sections 312B(3) to (9) of the Act.
REC 6A.2.3GRP
The procedure the FSA will follow if it is to exercise this prohibition power is set out in sections 313B(3) to (9) of the Act.
REC 6A.2.4GRP
If the FSA exercises this prohibition power it must at the earliest opportunity notify the Commission of the action taken in relation to the operator.
REC 6A.2.5GRP
The operator's exempt person status ceases to apply if the FSA exercises this prohibition power.
REC 6A.2.6GRP
The operator's right to make arrangements in the United Kingdom, to facilitate access to, or use of, a regulated market, or multilateral trading facility, operated by the operator may be reinstated (together with its exempt person status) if the FSA is satisfied that the contravention which led the FSA to exercise its prohibition power has been remedied.
LR 14.3.2RRP
(1) A company2 must comply with LR 14.2.2 R at all times.2(2) A company2 that no longer complies with LR 14.2.2 R must notify the FSA as soon as possible of its non-compliance.2
LR 14.3.6RRP
A company2 must forward to the FSA, for publication through the document viewing facility, two copies of:2(1) all circulars, notices, reports or other documents to which the listingrules apply, at the same time as any such documents are issued; and(2) all resolutions passed by the company other than resolutions concerning ordinary business at an annual general meeting, as soon as possible after the relevant general meeting.
LR 14.3.7RRP
(1) A company2 must notify a RIS as soon as possible when a document has been forwarded to the FSA under LR 14.3.6 R unless the full text of the document is provided to the RIS.2(2) A notification made under (1) must set out where copies of the relevant document can be obtained.2
LR 14.3.8RRP
A company2 must ensure that the FSA is provided with up to date contact details of appropriate persons nominated by it to act as the first point of contact with the FSA in relation to the company's compliance with the listing rules and the disclosure rules and transparency rules, as applicable.22
LR 11.1.5AGRP
2In assessing whether a transaction is in the ordinary course of business under this chapter, the FSA will have regard to the size and incidence of the transaction and also whether the terms and conditions of the transaction are unusual.
COLL 7.3.1GRP
(1) The winding up of an ICVC may be carried out under this section instead of by the court provided the ICVC is solvent and the steps required under regulation 21 the OEIC Regulations (The Authority's approval for certain changes in respect of a company) are fulfilled. This section lays down the procedures to be followed and the obligations of the ACD and any other directors of the ICVC. (2) The termination of a sub-fund under this section will be subject to the conditions set
COLL 7.3.3GRP

This table belongs to COLL 7.3.3 G

Summary of the main steps in winding up a solvent ICVC or terminating a sub-fund under FSA rules, assuming FSA approval.

Notes: N = Notice to be given to the FSA under regulation 21 of OEIC Regulations

E = commencement of winding up or termination

W/U = winding up

FAP = final accounting period (COLL 7.3.8 R(4))

Step number

Explanation

When

COLL rule (unless stated otherwise)

1

Commence preparation of solvency statement

N-28 days

7.3.5 (2)

2

Send audited solvency statement to the FSA with copy to depositary

By N + 21 days

7.3.5 (4) and (5)

3

Receive the FSA approval

N + one month

Regulation 21 of OEIC Regulations

4

Normal business ceases; publish notices

E

7.3.6

5

Realise proceeds, wind up, instruct depositary accordingly

ASAP after E

7.3.7

6

Prepare final account or termination account & have account audited

On completion of W/U or termination

7.3.8

7

Send final account or termination account and auditor's report to the FSA & unitholders

Within 2 months of FAP

7.3.8(6)

8

Request FSA to revoke relevant authorisation order

On completion of W/U

7.3.7(9)
COLL 7.3.4RRP
(1) An ICVC must not be wound up except under this section or as an unregistered company under Part V of the Insolvency Act 1986.(2) An ICVC must not be wound up under this section if there is a vacancy in the position of ACD. (3) An ICVC must not be wound up or a sub-fund terminated under this section: (a) unless and until effect may be given, under regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations, to proposals to wind up the affairs of the ICVC or to proposals to make the alterations to
COLL 7.3.5RRP
(1) Before notice is given to the FSA under regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations of the proposals referred to in COLL 7.3.4 R (3), the directors must make a full enquiry into the ICVC's affairs to determine whether the ICVC will be able to meet all its liabilities. (2) The ACD must then, based on the results of this enquiry, prepare a statement either: (a) confirming that the ICVC will be able to meet all its liabilities within twelve months of the date of the statement; or(b)
COLL 7.3.7RRP
(1) Paragraphs (2) to (9) of this rule apply to winding up an ICVC and termination of a sub-fund, paragraph (10) only applies to the winding up of an ICVC and paragraphs (11) to (15) only apply to the termination of a sub-fund of an ICVC.(2) The ACD must, as soon as practicable after winding up or termination has commenced, cause the scheme property to be realised and the liabilities of the ICVC or the sub-fund to be met out of the proceeds.(3) The ACD must instruct the depositary
COLL 7.3.8RRP
(1) Once the ICVC's affairs are fully wound up or termination of the sub-fund has been completed (including distribution or provision for distribution in accordance with COLL 7.3.7 R (5), the ACD must prepare an account of the winding up or termination showing: (a) how it has been conducted; and(b) how the scheme property has been disposed of. (2) The account in (1) must be, if there is: (a) more than one director, approved by the board of directors and be signed on their behalf
COLL 7.3.13RRP
(1) If: (a) during the course, or as a result, of the enquiry referred to in COLL 7.3.5 R (1) (Solvency statement), the directors become of the opinion that it will not be possible to provide the confirmation referred to in (2)(a) of that rule; or(b) after winding up or termination has commenced, the ACD becomes of the opinion that the ICVC will be unable to meet all its liabilities within twelve months of the date of the statement provided under (a) of COLL 7.3.5 R (2); the directors
REC 2.13.1UKRP

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 6

2(1) The [UK RIE] must be able and willing to promote and maintain high standards of integrity and fair dealing in the carrying on of regulated activities by persons in the course of using the facilities provided by the [UK RIE].

(2) The [UK RIE] must be able and willing to cooperate by the sharing of information or otherwise, with the [FSA],with any other authority, body or person having responsibility in the United Kingdom for the supervision or regulation of any regulated activity or other financial service, or with an overseas regulator within the meaning of section 195 of the Act.
REC 2.13.3GRP
In determining whether a UK recognised body is able and willing to promote and maintain high standards of integrity and fair dealing in the carrying on of regulated activities, the FSA may have regard to the extent to which the UK recognised body seeks to promote and encourage, through its rules, practices and procedures, conduct in regulated activities which is consistent with the Code of Market Conduct (see MAR 1) and with any other codes of conduct, rules or principles relating
REC 2.13.4GRP
In assessing the ability of a UK recognised body to cooperate with the FSA and other appropriate bodies, the FSA may have regard to the extent to which the constitution and rules of the UK recognised body and its agreements with its members enable it to obtain information from members and to disclose otherwise confidential information to the FSA and other appropriate bodies.
REC 2.13.5GRP
In assessing the willingness of a UK recognised body to cooperate with the FSA and other appropriate bodies, the FSA may have regard to:(1) the extent to which the UK recognised body is willing to provide information about it and its activities to assist the FSA in the exercise of its functions;(2) the extent to which the UK recognised body is open with the FSA or other appropriate bodies in regulatory matters;(3) how diligently the UK recognised body investigates or pursues enquiries
SUP 2.4.2GRP
The FSA uses mystery shopping to help it protect consumers. This may be by seeking information about a particular practice across a range of firms (SUP 2.4.3 G (1)) or the practices of a particular firm (SUP 2.4.3 G (2)). One of the risks consumers face is that they may be sold financial products which are inappropriate to them. A problem in protecting consumers from this risk is that it is very difficult to establish after the event what a firm has said to a 'genuine' consumer
SUP 2.4.3GRP
The FSA may carry out mystery shopping:(1) together with a programme of visits to obtain information about a particular practice, looking at a particular issue across a range of firms, when the FSA may advise the firms of the issues beforehand; the practice being scrutinised may be that of firms or a class of firms in carrying on regulated activities or ancillary activities or in communicating or approving financial promotions; (2) together with focused visits (concentrating on
SUP 2.4.4GRP
Telephone calls and meetings held during mystery shopping will be recorded. The FSA expects that any mystery shopping it arranges will be conducted in accordance with the Market Research Society Code of Practice.
SUP 2.4.5GRP
1The FSA may use the information it obtains from mystery shopping in support of both its supervisory functions and its enforcement functions. This includes sharing any information so obtained with firms and approved persons.
SUP 15.2.1GRP
A firm is required to provide the FSA with a wide range of information to enable the FSA to meet its responsibilities for monitoring the firm's compliance with requirements imposed by or under the Act. Some of this information is provided through regular reports, including those set out in SUP 16 (Reporting requirements) and SUP 17 (Transaction reporting). In addition, other chapters in the Handbook set out specific notification and reporting requirements. Principle 11 includes
SUP 15.2.3GRP
Rules and guidance have also been included to set out how firms should make a notification and to determine when it may be appropriate to discuss matters with their usual supervisory contact by telephone (SUP 15.7).
RCB 4.2.1GRP
The FSA's approach to the exercise of its enforcement powers will be consistent with its approach in DEPP and EG so far as appropriate.
RCB 4.2.2GRP
The FSA's exercise of its powers under the RCB Regulations is without prejudice to the use of its powers under the Act or under other legislation.
RCB 4.2.3GRP
(1) When deciding whether to take enforcement action under Part 7 of the RCB Regulations, and what form that enforcement action should take, the FSA will consider all relevant factors, including:(a) the relevant factors on decisions to take action set out in DEPP 6.2.1 G;(b) whether any contractual or other arrangements agreed between the parties can be used effectively to address any perceived failure under the RCB Regulations; and(c) the interests of investors in the relevant
RCB 4.2.4GRP
The FSA's policy on imposing financial penalties (including the amount of any such penalties) under the RCB Regulations will be consistent with the policy as set out in DEPP and EG with appropriate modifications.
RCB 4.2.5GRP
When considering whether to impose a financial penalty, the amount of penalty, and whether to impose the penalty on the issuer or the owner, the FSA will have regard, where relevant,1 to:(1) the statement on determining the appropriate level of a financial penalty set out 1in DEPP 6.5 to DEPP 6.5D1;(2) the particular arrangements between the issuer and the owner; (3) the likely impact of the penalty on the interests of investors in a regulated covered bond; and(4) the conduct
PERG 9.6.2GRP
Under the investment condition, the reasonable investor is looking to satisfy two criteria. Both of these are fundamental to his decision to invest. But the thresholds referred to in PERG 9.6.1 G (1) and PERG 9.6.1 G (2) are different. In the FSA's view, a person expects something where he regards it as likely to happen or anticipates that events will turn out in a particular way. A person is satisfied of something where he has made up his mind or is persuaded that it is the case.
PERG 9.6.3GRP
Section 236(3) of the Act states clearly that the investment condition must be met 'in relation to BC'. In the FSA's view, this means that the investment condition should not be applied rigidly in relation to specific events such as particular issues of shares or securities or in relation to particular points in time. The requirements of the investment condition must be satisfied in relation to the overall impression of the body corporate itself, having regard to all the circ
PERG 9.6.4GRP
In the FSA's view, and within limits, the investment condition allows for the possibility that a body corporate that is an open-ended investment company may issue shares or securities with different characteristics. Some shares or securities may clearly satisfy the condition whereas others may not. The FSA considers that a reasonable investor contemplating investment in such a body corporate may still take the view, looking at the body corporate overall, that the investment condition
PERG 9.6.6GRP
The FSA considers that the reference in PERG 9.6.5 G (3) to corresponding provisions in force in another EEA State will include provisions that derive from the maintenance of capital requirements of the Second Council Directive on co-ordination of safeguards which, for the protection of the interests of members and others, are required by Member States of companies (77/91/EEC).
PERG 9.6.7GRP
The FSA's views on the following three elements of the investment condition are explained separately:(1) the 'reasonable investor' (see PERG 9.7 (The investment condition: the 'reasonable investor'));(2) the 'expectation' test (see PERG 9.8 (The investment condition: the 'expectation test' (section 236(3)(a) of the Act))); and(3) the 'satisfaction' test (see PERG 9.9 (The investment condition: the 'satisfaction test' (section 236(3)(b) of the Act)).
FEES 5.3.1GRP
Each financial year, the FSA and FOS Ltd will consult on the amount of the annual budgetof the Financial Ombudsman Service which is to be raised by the general levy.
FEES 5.3.3GRP
The FSA will determine, following consultation, the amount to be raised from each industry block. This will be based on the budgeted costs and numbers of Financial Ombudsman Service staff required to deal with the volume of complaints which the Financial Ombudsman Service expects to receive about the firms in each industry block. Modified arrangements have been made for certain types of small firms (see FEES 5.5.3 R to FEES 5.5.5 G).
FEES 5.3.5GRP
The FSA will specify a minimum levy for firms in each industry block.
FEES 5.3.6RRP
A firm must pay to the FSA a general levy towards the costs of operating the Compulsory Jurisdiction of the Financial Ombudsman Service.
COBS 11.6.6GRP
An example of goods or servicesrelating to the execution of trades that the FSA does not regard as meeting the requirements of the rule on use of dealing commission (COBS 11.6.3 R) is post-trade analytics.
COBS 11.6.7GRP
Examples of goods or services that relate to the provision of research that the FSA does not regard as meeting the requirements of the rule on use of dealing commission (COBS 11.6.3 R) include price feeds or historical price data that have not been analysed or manipulated to reach meaningful conclusions.
COBS 11.6.8GRP
Examples of goods or services that relate to the execution of trades or the provision of research that the FSA does not regard as meeting the requirements of either evidential provisions COBS 11.6.4 E or COBS 11.6.5 E include:(1) services relating to the valuation or performance measurement of portfolios;(2) computer hardware; (3) connectivity services such as electronic networks and dedicated telephone lines; (4) seminar fees;(5) subscriptions for publications;(6) travel, accommodation
COBS 11.6.9GRP
The reference to research in the rule on use of dealing commission (COBS 11.6.3 R) is not confined to investment research as defined in the Glossary. The FSA's view is that research can include, for example, the goods or services encompassed by investment research, provided that they are directly relevant to and are used to assist in the management of investments on behalf of customers. In addition, any goods or services that relate to the provision of research that the FSA regards
COBS 11.6.17GRP
In assessing the adequacy of prior and periodic disclosures made by an investment manager under this section, the FSA will have regard to the extent to which the investment manager adopts disclosure standards developed by industry associations such as the Investment Management Association, the National Association of Pension Funds and the London Investment Banking Association.
LR 5.3.1RRP
A request by an issuer for the listing of its securities to be suspended or cancelled must be in writing and must include:(1) the issuer's name;(2) details of the securities to which it relates and the RIEs on which they are traded;(3) a clear explanation of the background and reasons for the request;(4) the date on which the issuer requests the suspension or cancellation to take effect;(5) for a suspension, the time the issuer wants the suspension to take effect;(6) if relevant,
LR 5.3.4GRP
A written request by an issuer to have the listing of its securities suspended should be made as soon as practicable. Suspension requests received for the opening of the market should allow sufficient time for the FSA to deal with the request before trading starts.
LR 5.3.6GRP
Cancellations will only be specified to take effect when the market opens on a specified day. An issuer should therefore ensure that all accompanying information has been provided to the FSA well before the date on which the issuer wishes the cancellation to take effect and at the very latest by 3 p.m. on the business day before it is to take effect. If the information is received after 3:00 p.m. on the day before the issuer wishes the cancellation to take effect, it will normally
LR 5.3.7GRP
(1) If an issuer requests the FSA to suspend or cancel the listing of its securities, it may withdraw its request at any time before the suspension or cancellation takes effect. The withdrawal request should initially be made by telephone and then confirmed in writing as soon as possible, with an explanation of the reasons for the withdrawal.(2) Even if an issuer withdraws its request, the FSA may still suspend or cancel the listing of the securities if it considers it is necessary
FEES 4.2.3GRP
The FSA will issue invoices to firms and other fee payers and expects to do so at least 30 days before the dates on which payments fall due under FEES 4.2.1 R.
FEES 4.2.5GRP
The FSA expects a recognised body or a designated professional body will generally pay their respective fees by electronic credit transfer.
FEES 4.2.9GRP
The FSA will not refund periodic fees if, after the start of the period to which they relate:(1) a fee payer ceases to have the status set out in column (1) of the table in FEES 4.2.11 R; or(2) a firm reduces its permission or payment services activities 9so that it then falls out of the fee-block previously applied to it;99(but see FEES 2.3 (Relieving Provisions) and FEES 4.3.13 R (Firms Applying to Cancel or Vary Permission Before Start of Period)).
FEES 4.2.10RRP
A person need not pay a periodic fee on the date on which it is due under the relevant provision in FEES 4.2.1 R, if:(1) that date falls during a period during which circumstances of the sort set out in GEN 1.3.2 R (Emergencies) exist, and that person has reasonable grounds to believe that those circumstances impair its ability to pay the fee, in which case he must pay it on or before the fifth business day after the end of that period; or(2) unless FEES 4.3.6R (3), 9FEES 4.3.6R
FEES 4.2.11RRP

Table of periodic fees

1 Fee payer

2 Fee payable

3 Due date

4 Events occurring during the period leading to modified periodic fee

Any firm (except an ICVC or a UCITS qualifier)

As specified in FEES 4.3.1 R

(1) Unless (2) or (3) apply7, on or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R

(2) Unless (3) applies, if 7an event specified in column 4 occurs during the course of a financial year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event, or if later the dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R.7

(3) Where the permission is for operating a multilateral trading facility, the date specified in FEES 4 Annex 10 (Periodic fees for MTF operators).

77

Firm receives permission, or becomes authorised or registered under the Payment Services Regulations ;9 or firm9extends permission or its payment service activities9

9

Any firm which reports transactions3 to the FSA using the FSA's Direct Reporting System or FSA's Transaction Reporting System (see SUP 17)

3

FEES 4 Annex 3

(1) For transaction charges, the first working day of each month

(2) For licence fees and enrolment charges, by the date set out on the relevant invoice

Not applicable

Persons who hold a certificate issued by the FSA under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order (Advice given in newspapers etc.)

£1,000

(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before 30 April

(2) If an event in column 4

occurs

during the course of a financial year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event

Certificate issued to person by FSA under Article 54 RAO

Any manager of an authorised unit trust;

In relation to each unit trust the amount specified in FEES 4 Annex 4

Authorisation order is made in relation to the relevant scheme

Any ACD of an ICVC; and

In relation to each ICVC the amount specified in FEES 4 Annex 4

Persons who, under the constitution or founding arrangements of a recognised scheme, is responsible for the management of the property held for or within the scheme;

In relation to each recognised scheme the amount specified in FEES 4 Annex 4

The relevant scheme becomes a recognised collective investment scheme

Not applicable

UK recognised body

FEES 4 Annex 6, part 1

(1) Unless (2) applies, by the due dates set out in FEES 4 Annex 6, part 1

(2) If the event in column 4 occurs during the course of a financial year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event

Recognition order is made.Modified periodic fee:

(1) for a UKrecognised investment exchange, 150,000;

(2) for a UKrecognised clearing house, 250,000.

Overseas recognised body

FEES 4 Annex 6, part 2

(1), unless (2) applies, 1 July.

(2) If the event in column 4 occurs during the course of a financial year , 30 days after the occurrence of that event.

Recognition order is made.Modified periodic fee:

(1) for an overseas investment exchange, 10,000;

(2) for a overseas clearing house, 35,000.

Listedissuers (in LR) of shares, depositary receipts and securitised derivatives (in LR), unless the conditions set out below apply.3

The first condition is that the listedissuer, or a related entity, has already paid a periodic fee in respect of the period concerned. The second condition is that the listedissuer is subject to listing rules as a result of a reverse takeover, or that the listedissuer is a newly formed entity, created as a result of a restructuring.3

FEES 4 Annex 7

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

Listedissuer3 (in LR) becomes subject to listing rules

3

Sponsors

10,00010 per year for the period from 1 April to 31 March the following year (see Note)2

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

Approval of sponsor

All non-listed issuers (in DTR) of shares, depositary receipts and securitised derivatives.6

6

FEES 4 Annex 8

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

Non-listed issuer (in DTR) becomes subject to disclosure rules and transparency rules6

6All firms reporting transactions in securitised derivatives to the FSA in accordance with SUP 17, and market operators who provide facilities for trading in securitised derivatives.

FEES 4 Annex 9 R

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

Not applicable

Note:Sponsors on the list of approved sponsors as at 1 April each year will be liable for the full year's annual fee unless FEES 4.3.13 R applies.2