Related provisions for SUP 18.2.50
81 - 100 of 160 items.
(1) A market is eligible for the purposes of the rules in this sourcebook if it is:(a) a regulated market;(b) a market in an EEA State which is regulated, operates regularly and is open to the public; or(c) any market within (2).(2) A market not falling within (1)(a) and (b) is eligible for the purposes of the rules in this sourcebook if:(a) the authorised fund manager, after consultation with and notification to the depositary (and in the case of an ICVC, any other directors),
(1) Under paragraph 16 of Part 1 of Annex VIII of the Banking Consolidation Directive, a competent authority may only disapply the condition in BIPRU 4.10.6 R (3) if the competent authority has evidence that the relevant market is well-developed and long-established with loss-rates which are sufficiently low to justify such action.(2) If the evidence were to change so that the action was no longer justified the FSA would expect to revoke BIPRU 4.10.7 R.
If a firm wishes to recognise other types of collateral in accordance with BIPRU 4.10.16 R (whether as part of its application for an IRB permission or under a variation of its IRB permission) it should demonstrate to the FSA how the criteria in BIPRU 4.10.16 R (1) - BIPRU 4.10.16 R (3) have been met with respect to that type of collateral.
Article 702 applies to a non-real time financial promotion included in:2(1) listing particulars1; or21(2) supplementary listing particulars1; or21(3) a prospectus or supplementary prospectus approved in line with Prospectus Rules or by the competent authority of another EEA State (provided the requirements of section 87H of the Act are met) – including part of such a prospectus or supplementary prospectus2; or2112(4) any other document required or permitted to be published by
A firm must arrange for orderly records to
be kept of its business and internal organisation, including all services
and transactions undertaken by it, which must be sufficient to enable the FSA or any other
relevant competent authority under MiFID to monitor the firm's compliance
with the requirements under the regulatory
system, and in particular to ascertain that the firm has complied with all obligations with
respect to clients.[Note:
article 13(6) of MiFID and article 5(1)(f)
Actuaries3 act as a valuable source of information to the FSA in carrying out its functions. For example, in determining whether a firm satisfies the threshold conditions, the FSA has regard to whether the firm has appointed an actuary3 with sufficient experience in the areas of business to be conducted by the firm (COND 2.5.7 G (11)).3
LR 8.4.2 R to LR 8.4.4 G2 apply in relation to an application for admission of equity securities if an applicant does not have equity securities already listed and:2(1) the production of a prospectus or equivalent document1is required; or(2) the application is accompanied by a certificate of approval from another competent authority; or(3) the application is accompanied by a summary document as required byPR 1.2.3R (8).
(1) 1PR 2, PR 3, PR 4.2, PR 5.1, PR 5.3.1 UK to PR 5.3.3 G and PR 5.5 only apply (subject to paragraph (2)) in relation to:(a) an offer, or a request for admission to trading of transferable securities, in respect of which section 85 of the Act applies (other than an exempt offer under section 86 of the Act) and in relation to which the United Kingdom is the Home State;(b) an offer, or a request for admission to trading of transferable securities, where under section 87 of the
2Under Article 5(1)(d) of the MiFID Implementing Directive and Article 31 and 32 of MiFID, the requirement to employ personnel with the knowledge, skills and expertise necessary for the discharge of the responsibilities allocated to them is reserved to the firm'sHome State. Therefore, in assessing the fitness and propriety of a person to perform a controlled function solely in relation to the MiFID business of an incoming EEA firm, the FSA will not have regard to that person's
In determining whether a UK recognised body has satisfactory arrangements for recording the transactions effected on, or cleared or to be cleared by means of, its facilities, the FSA may have regard to:(1) whether the UK recognised body has arrangements for creating, maintaining and safeguarding an audit trail of transactions for at least three years (five years in respect of transactions carried out by members who are not incorporated in the United Kingdom if the UK recognised
A firm does not have to give notice to the FSA under SUP 15.9.1 R if it or another member of the consolidation group has already given notice of the relevant fact to:(1) the FSA; or(2) (if another competent authority is co-ordinator of the financial conglomerate ) that competent authority; or(3) (in the case of a financial conglomerate that does not yet have a co-ordinator ) the competent authority who would be co-ordinator under Article 10(2) of the Financial Groups Directive
The purpose of this chapter is to build upon 8Principle 7 (Communications with clients), which requires a firm to pay due regard to the information needs of its clients. This chapter requires the provision of appropriate minimum information about the identity of the regulator that authorised a firm. It also governs the way in which a firm may describe its regulation by the FSA.8 This assists in the achievement of the regulatory objectives of consumer protection, public awareness
(1) This rule applies in respect of the following rules:(a) SYSC 12.1.8R (2);(b) SYSC 12.1.10R (1), so far as it relates to SYSC 12.1.8R (2);(c) SYSC 12.1.10R (2); and(d) SYSC 12.1.11 R to SYSC 12.1.15 R.(2) The rules referred to in (1):(a) only apply with respect to a financial conglomerate if it is an FSA regulated EEA financial conglomerate;(b) (so far as they apply with respect to a group that is not a financial conglomerate) do not apply with respect to a group for which