Related provisions for PERG 4.6.8

81 - 100 of 120 items.

SYSC 2.1.6G01/04/2009

Frequently asked questions about allocation of functions in SYSC 2.1.3 R

This table belongs to SYSC 2.1.5 G

	Question	Answer
1	Does an individual to whom a function is allocated under SYSC 2.1.3 R need to be an approved person?	An individual to whom a function is allocated under SYSC 2.1.3 R will be performing the apportionment and oversight function (CF 8, see SUP 10.7.1 R) and an application must be made to the FSA for approval of the individual before the function is performed under section 59 of the Act (Approval for particular arrangements). There are exceptions from this in SUP 10.1 (Approved persons - Application). 5
2	If the allocation is to more than one individual, can they perform the functions, or aspects of the functions, separately?	If the functions are allocated to joint chief executives under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2, they are expected to act jointly. If the functions are allocated to an individual under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2, in addition to individuals under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 3, the former may normally be expected to perform a leading role in relation to the functions that reflects his position. Otherwise, yes.
3	What is meant by "appropriately allocate" in this context?	The allocation of functions should be compatible with delivering compliance with Principle 3, SYSC 2.1.1 R and SYSC 3.1.1 R. The FSA considers that allocation to one or two individuals is likely to be appropriate for most firms.
4	If a committee of management governs a firm or group, can the functions be allocated to every member of that committee?	Yes, as long as the allocation remains appropriate (see Question 3).If the firm also has an individual as chief executive, then the functions must be allocated to that individual as well under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2 (see Question 7).
5	Does the definition of chief executive include the possessor of equivalent responsibilities with another title, such as a managing director or managing partner?	Yes.
6	Is it possible for a firm to have more than one individual as its chief executive?	Although unusual, some firm may wish the responsibility of a chief executive to be held jointly by more than one individual. In that case, each of them will be a chief executive and the functions must be allocated to all of them under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2 (see also Questions 2 and 7).
7	If a firm has an individual as chief executive, must the functions be allocated to that individual?	Normally, yes, under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2. But if the firm is a body corporate and a member of a group, the functions may, instead of to the firm's chief executive, be allocated to a director or senior manager from the group responsible for the overall management of the group or of a relevant group division, so long as this is appropriate (see Question 3). Such individuals willnevertheless require approval by the FSA (see Question 1). If the firm chooses to allocate the functions to a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of a relevant group division, the FSA would expect that individual to be of a seniority equivalent to or greater than a chief executive of the firm for the allocation to be appropriate. See also Question 14.
8	If a firm has a chief executive, can the functions be allocated to other individuals in addition to the chief executive?	Yes. SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 3, permits a firm to allocate the functions, additionally, to the firm's (or where applicable the group's) directors and senior managers as long as this is appropriate (see Question 3).
9	What if a firm does not have a chief executive?	Normally, the functions must be allocated to one or more individuals selected from the firm's (or where applicable the group's) directors and senior managers under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 3. But if the firm: (1) is a body corporate and a member of a group; and (2) the group has a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of the group or of a relevant group division; then the functions must be allocated to that individual (together, optionally, with individuals from column 3 if appropriate) under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2.2
10	What do you mean by "group division within which some or all of the firm's regulated activities fall"?	A "division" in this context should be interpreted by reference to geographical operations, product lines or any other method by which the group's business is divided. If the firm's regulated activities fall within more than one division and the firm does not wish to allocate the functions to its chief executive, the allocation must, under SYSC 2.1.4 R, be to: (1) a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of the group; or (2) a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of one of those divisions; together, optionally, with individuals from column 3 if appropriate. (See also Questions 7 and 9.)
11	How does the requirement to allocate the functions in SYSC 2.1.3R apply to an overseas firm which is not an incoming EEA firm, incoming Treaty firm or UCITS qualifier?	The firm must appropriately allocate those functions to one or more individuals, in accordance with SYSC 2.1.4 R, but: (1) The responsibilities that must be apportioned and the systems and controls that must be overseen are those relating to activities carried on from a UK establishment with certain exceptions (see SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.7 R)6. Note that SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.10 R6 does not extend the territorial scope of SYSC 2 for an overseas firm. (2) The chief executive of an overseas firm is the person responsible for the conduct of the firm's business within the United Kingdom (see the definition of "chief executive"). This might, for example, be the manager of the firm's UK establishment, or it might be the chief executive of the firm as a whole, if he has that responsibility. The apportionment and oversight function applies to such a firm, unless it falls within a particular exception from the approved persons regime (see Question 1). 6 6
12	How does the requirement to allocate the functions in SYSC 2.1.3R apply to an incoming EEA firm or incoming Treaty firm?	SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.1R6and SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.8 R6restrict the application of SYSC 2.1.3 R for such a firm. Accordingly: (1) Such a firm is not required to allocate the function of dealing with apportionment in SYSC 2.1.3 R (1). (2) Such a firm is required to allocate the function of oversight in SYSC 2.1.3 R (2). However, the systems and controls that must be overseen are those relating to matters which the FSA, as Host State regulator, is entitled to regulate (there is guidance on this in SUP 13A Annex 2 G3). Those are primarily, but not exclusively, the systems and controls relating to the conduct of the firm's activities carried on from its UK branch. (3) Such a firm need not allocate the function of oversight to its chief executive; it must allocate it to one or more directors and senior managers of the firm or the firm's group under SYSC 2.1.4 R, row (2). (4) An incoming EEA firm which has provision only for cross border services is not required to allocate either function if it does not carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom; for example if they fall within the overseas persons exclusions in article 72 of the Regulated Activities Order. See also Questions 1 and 15.1 6 6 3
13	What about a firm that is a partnership or a limited liability partnership?	The FSA envisages that most if not all partners or members will be either directors or senior managers, but this will depend on the constitution of the partnership (particularly in the case of a limited partnership) or limited liability partnership. A partnership or limited liability partnership may also have a chief executive (see Question 5). A limited liability partnership is a body corporate and, if a member of a group, will fall within SYSC 2.1.4 R, row (1) or (2).
14	What if generally accepted principles of good corporate governance recommend that the chief executive should not be involved in an aspect of corporate governance?	The Note to SYSC 2.1.4 R provides that the chief executive or other executive director or senior manager need not be involved in such circumstances. For example, the Combined Code developed by the Committee on Corporate Governancerecommends that the board of a listed company should establish an audit committee of non-executive directors to be responsible for oversight of the audit. That aspect of the oversight function may therefore be allocated to the members of such a committee without involving the chief executive. Such individuals may require approval by the FSA in relation to that function (see Question 1).
15	What about electronic commerce activities carried on from an establishment in another EEA State with or for a person in the United Kingdom?4 4	SYSC does not apply to an incoming ECA provider acting as such.1 4

FEES 3.2.7R06/08/2009

Table of application, notification and vetting fees

(1) Fee payer	(2) Fee payable	Due date
(a) Any applicant for Part IV permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission)	(1) Unless (2) applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application. (2) In respect of a particular application which is: (i) a straightforward or moderately complex case for the purposes of FEES 3 Annex 1 part 1, and (ii) only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 1	On or before the application is made
(b) Any Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right, except for a firm providing cross border services only4	(1) Where no certificate has been issued under paragraph 3(4) of Schedule 4 to the Act the fee payable is, in respect of a particular exercise, set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, part 4 (2) Where a certificate in (i) has been issued no fee is payable	On or before the notice of exercise is given
(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order	2,000	On or before the application is made
(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition of, a collective investment scheme	FEES 3 Annex 2, part 1	On or before the application is made
(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body.	10,000	30 days after the order is granted
(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body under section 287 or section 288 of the Act	FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1	On or before the date the application is made
(h) Any applicant for recognition as an overseas recognised body under section 287 or section 288 and section 292 of the Act	FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2	On or before the date the application is made
(i) An applicant for listing (under the listing rules)	FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1	On or before the date the application is made
(j) Applicant for approval as sponsor (under the listing rules)	FEES 3 Annex 4, part 2	On or before the date the application is made
(k) Issuers of tranches from debt issuance programmes and securitised derivative tranches	FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1	An upfront fee is required per tranche for draw downs in the following 12 months
(l) Under the listing rules, an issuer involved in specific events or transactions during the year where documentation is subject to a transaction vetting	FEES 3 Annex 5, part 1, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (v) or super transaction under category 7(q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2	On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA
(m) Under the prospectus rules, an issuer or person requesting approval or vetting of the documents arising in relation to specific events or transactions that it might be involved in during the year	FEES 3 Annex 5, part 2, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (v) or super transaction under category 7(q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2	On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA
(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges	50,000	On or before the date the application is made
2(o) Either:5 (i) a firm applying to the FSA for permission to use one of the advanced prudential calculation approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6 R (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the FSA as EEA consolidated supervisor under the ) any firm making such an application ;5 or (ii) in the case of an application to 5a Home State regulator other than the FSA 5for the use of the Internal Ratings Based approach and the Home State regulator requesting the FSA's assistance in accordance with the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 , any firm to which the FSA would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach.5 1 1 2 5 5 5	(1) Unless5 (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6.5 (2) (a) Unless5 (b) applies a1 firm submitting a second application for the permission or5 guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application (b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission5 based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1 (c) No fee is payable where the Home State regulator has requested the assistance of the FSAas described in paragraph (o)(ii) of column 1 except in the cases specified in 5FEES 3 Annex 6.2 5 2 5 1 2 5 5 5 5 5	Where the firm has made an application directly to the FSA, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the FSA notifies the firm that its EEA parent's Home State regulator has requested the FSA's assistance.2 2
(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part IV permission	(1) Unless (2) or (3)11 applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1 not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in which apply to that application. (2) If the only change is that the1 A.12 activity group tariff applied to the firm's business before the variation and the A.13 activity group will apply after variation, no fee is payable (3) If the firm is in the A.1 fee-block at the date of the application and the variation involves adding any of the regulated activities of meeting of repayment claims or managing dormant account funds (including the investment of such funds), the fee is 50% of the fee in FEES 3 Annex 1 R that applies to that application11 (4) 11 In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250, unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part IV permission in which case no fee is payable.1 1 1 11	On or before the date the application is made
2(q) A super7transaction, being one where: (i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 1.5 billion and it is a new applicant for a primary listing under the listing rules, or involved in a reverse or hostile takeover or a significant restructuring; or (ii) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 5 billion and is involved in a class 1 transaction,7 a transaction requiring vetting of an equity prospectus or equivalent document or a transaction requiring vetting of a prospectus in relation to a Depositary Receipt.7 7 7 7	50,000	On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA.3 3 3
2(r) Providers of reporting or trade matching systems applying for recognition under MiFID as an Approved Reporting Mechanism.	100,0006 6	Having received its application, within 30 days after the FSA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.6 5 6
5(s) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme, a transferor. Note - for the purpose of this paragraph an insurance business transfer scheme consists of a single transferor and a single transferee. Where however such a scheme is part of a single larger scheme, that larger scheme is treated as a single insurance business transfer scheme. If an insurance business transfer scheme includes more than one transferor in accordance with this paragraph, the transferors are liable to pay the fee under column (2) jointly.	Either (1) or (2) as set out below: (1) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme involving long term insurance business, 18,500; or (2) in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme not involving long term insurance business, 10,000.	On or before any application is made to the FSA for the appointment of a person as an independent expert.
6(t) A firm, a third party acting on a firm's behalf, an operator of a regulated market or an operator of an MTF applying to the FSA to report transaction reports directly to the FSA other than through the FSA's Transaction Reporting System (see FEES 4.2.11 R and FEES 4 Annex 3 for the fees payable for firms using the FSA's Transaction Reporting System).	100,000	Having received its application, within 30 days after the FSA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.
7(u) Any of the following: (i) an operator of an approved reporting mechanism; (ii) a firm; (iii) a third party acting on behalf of a firm; (iv) a market operator; or (v) an MTF operator; that satisfies the following conditions: (1) it provides transaction reports directly to the FSA; and (2) having made changes to its reporting systems, it asks the FSA to support the testing of the compatibility of its systems with the FSA's systems.	As set out in FEES 3 Annex 7.	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
(v) A significant transaction, being one where: (i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 500 million and is producing an equity prospectus, a prospectus in relation to a Depository Receipt or a document in relation to a class 1 transaction; or (ii) the issuer is producing a document for vetting in relation to a reverse takeover, a hostile takeover or a significant restructuring. A significant transaction does not include a super transaction.	20,000	On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA.
(w) A listed issuer that requests or whose representative requests the FSA to amend the Official List, or any records held by the FSA in relation to the Official List, otherwise than pursuant to an application for listing.	FEES 3 Annex 4 part 3	On or before the date the request is made.
(x) (i) An issuer or person who: (1) is a fee payer under one or more of the categories set out in (ii); and (2) requests the FSA's approval or vetting of a document that includes a mineral expert's report. (ii) The categories are (1), (m) (q), and (v) of this table. (iii) A fee under this category is payable in addition to any fee payable under the categories set out in (ii).	5,000	On or before the date the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA.8
8(y) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised payment institution under regulation 5 of the Payment Services Regulations	The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8 which apply to that application. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R	On or before the date the application is made.

(z) An application by a small payment institution for authorisation as an authorised payment institution because regulation 15 of the Payment Services Regulations applies	The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.	On or before the date the application is made.
(za) An applicant for registration as a small payment institution under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations	FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (1). Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R.	On or before the date the application is made.
(zb) An authorised payment institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Payment Services Regulations.	(1) If the payment services carried on by the authorised payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) or (h) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application. (2) Where the authorised payment institution:(i) already has authorisation to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other services in (a) to (g); or (ii) has authorisation to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its authorisation to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g)); the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has. (3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.	On or before the date the application is made.
(zc) A small payment institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations	(1) If the payment services carried on by the small payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8Rwhich apply to that application. (2) Where the small payment institution: (i) is already registered to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other of the services in (a) to (g); or (ii) is registered to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its registration to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g));the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has. (2) (3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.	On or before the date the application is made.
A financial institution notifying the FSA in accordance with regulation 121(2)(a) of the Payment Services Regulations.	50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3Annex 8R, paragraphs (2) to (5) which apply to that application.	On or before the date the application is made.
(ze) Any firm in any one or more of the A fee-blocks defined in FEES 4 Annex 1 Part 1, except fee-block A.16.	Special Project Fee for restructuring in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 9 .	30 days of the date of the invoice.9
(zf) An applicant for a ceding insurer's waiver.	20,000	On or before the date the application is made.9

PRIN 3.1.4G01/12/2001

PRIN 3.1.1 R (3) puts incoming EEA firms on an equal footing with unauthorised overseas persons who utilise the overseas persons exclusions in article 72 of the Regulated Activities Order.

COBS 6.4.2G01/11/2007

Under the territorial application rules in COBS 1, the rules in this section apply to:(1) a UK firm's business carried on from an establishment in an EEA State other than the United Kingdom for a retail client in the United Kingdom unless, if the office from which the activity is carried on were a separate person, the activity:(a) would fall within the overseas persons exclusion in article 72 of the Regulated Activities Order; or(b) would not be regarded as carried on in the United

SUP 12.5.2G01/11/2007

(1) Regulations 3(1) 8and (2) of the Appointed Representatives Regulations make it a requirement that the contract between the firm and the appointed representative (unless it prohibits the appointed representative from representing other counterparties) contains a provision enabling the firm to:488(a) impose such a prohibition; or(b) impose restrictions as to the other counterparties which the appointed representative may represent, or as to the types of investment in relation

SUP 3.1.2R06/08/2009

Applicable sections (see SUP 3.1.1 R)

(1) Category of firm		(2) Sections applicable to the firm	(3) Sections applicable to its auditor
(1)	Authorised professional firm which is required by IPRU(INV) 2.1.2R to comply with chapters 3, 5,1019 or 13 of IPRU(INV) and which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act 9 (Note 1) 19	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8,19SUP 3.10 19
(2)	Authorised professional firm not within (1) to which the non-directive custody chapter, non-directive client money chapter, MiFID custody chapter or MiFID client money chapter apply,17 , unless the firm is regulated by The Law Society (England and Wales), The Law Society of Scotland or The Law Society of Northern Ireland (Note 2) 17	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10
(3)	Authorised professional firm not within (1) or (2) which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.7	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8
(4)	Bank, building society or dormant account fund operator 21which in each case carries on designated investment business 21(Note 2A)	SUP 3.1-SUP 3.7	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10
(5)	Bank, building society or a dormant account fund operator which in each case does not carry on designated investment business 21 (Note 2A) 21	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8
(5A)	Credit union	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8
(5B)	ELMI	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8
(6)	Insurer, the Society of Lloyd's, underwriting agent or members' adviser, UK ISPV 11 (Note 5)7	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8
(7)	Investment management firm, (other than an exempt CAD firm),16 personal investment firm (other than a small personal investment firm or exempt CAD firm). 15or securities and futures firm (other than an exempt CAD firm or an exempt BIPRU commodities firm 20)15 which, in each case, has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act 9(Notes 3 and 3A)17 9 17	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8,19SUP 3.10 19
9(7A)	Investment management firm (other than an exempt CAD firm)20, personal investment firm (other than a small personal investment firm or exempt CAD firm 15), or securities and futures firm (other than an exempt CAD firm 15 or an exempt BIPRU commodities firm 20) not within (7) to which the non-directive custody chapter, non-directive client money chapter, MiFID custody chapter or MiFID client money chapter apply17 17	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10
9(7B)	UCITS firm 13 13	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8,19SUP 3.10 19
13(7C)	UK MiFID investment firm, which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act (Note 3B)20 20	SUP 3.1 - 3.7	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.1014
17(7D)	Sole trader or partnership that is a UK 20 MiFID investment firm (other than an exempt CAD firm) (Note 3C)20 20	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10
(8)	Small personal investment firm or service company which, in either case, has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.7	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8
(9)8	Home finance provider 10 which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act 9 10	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.78	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.88
(10)8	Insurance intermediary (other than an exempt insurance intermediary) to which the insurance client money chapter 17 (except for CASS 5.2 (Holding money as agent)) applies (see Note 4)8 17	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.78	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.108
(11)8	Exempt insurance intermediary and insurance intermediary not subject to SUP 3.1.2 R(10) which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.78	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.88
(12)8	Home finance intermediary 10 or home finance administrator 10 which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act. 10 10	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.78	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.88
Note 1 = This chapter applies to an authorised professional firm in row (1) (and its auditor) as if the firm were of the relevant type in the right-hand column of IPRU(INV) 2.1.4R.
Note 2 = In row (2): (a) The non-directive custody chapter 17 is treated as applying only if (i) the firm safeguards and administers investments 17in connection with managing investments (other than when acting as trustee) or (ii) it safeguards and administers17 investments in relation to bonded investments (and, in either case, it has not opted to conduct all business that would fall within the non-directive custody chapter under the MiFID custody chapter).17 (b) The non-directive client money chapter 17 is treated as applying only if the firm receives or holds client money other than under an arrangement where commission is rebated to the client (and assuming that it has not opted to conduct all business that would fall within the non-directive client money chapter under the MiFID client money chapter)17; but, if the custody rules or the client money rules above are17 treated as applying, then SUP 3.10 (Duties of auditors: notification and report on client assets) applies to the whole of the business within the scope of the custody rules or the client money rules above17. 17 17 17 17 17 17 17
Note 2A = For this purpose, designated investment business does not include either or both: (a) dealing which falls within the exclusion in article 15 of the Regulated Activities Order (Absence of holding out etc) (or agreeing to do so); and (b) dealing in investments as principal (or agreeing to do so): (i) by a firm whose permission to deal in investments as principal is subject to a limitation to the effect that the firm, in carrying on this regulated activity, is limited to entering into transactions in a manner which, if the firm was an unauthorised person, would come within article 16 of the Regulated Activities Order (Dealing in contractually based investments); and (ii) in a manner which comes within that limitation; having regard to article 4(4) of the Regulated Activities Order (Specified activities:). 18
Note 3 = This note applies in relation to an oil market participant to which IPRU(INV) 3 does not apply and in relation to an energy market participant to which IPRU(INV) 3 does not apply. In SUP 3: (a) only SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.7 are applicable to such a firm; and (b) only SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.8 are applicable to its auditor; and, in each case, only if it has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act.
17Note 3A = If the firm has elected to comply with the MiFID custody chapter or the MiFID client money chapter also in respect of its non-MiFID business then SUP 3.10 will apply to the whole of the business within the scope of the MiFID custody chapter or the MiFID client money chapter.
20Note 3B = UK MiFID investment firms include exempt CAD firms. An exempt CAD firm that has opted into MiFID can benefit from the audit exemption for small companies in the Companies Act legislation if it meets the relevant criteria in that legislation and fulfils the conditions of regulation 4C(3) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Markets in Financial Instruments) Regulations 2007. If a firm does so benefit then SUP 3 will not apply to it. For further details about exempt CAD firms, see PERG 13, Q58.
17Note 3C20 = A sole trader or a partnership that is a UK MiFID investment firm 20 to which the MiFID custody chapter or MiFID client money chapter apply20 must have its annual accounts audited. 20 20
Note 4 = The client money audit requirement in SUP 3.1.2 R(10) therefore applies to all insurance intermediaries except:8 • those which do not hold client money or other client assets in relation to insurance mediation activities; or 8 • those which only hold up to, but not exceeding, £30,000 of client money under a statutory trust arising under CASS 5.3.8 Insurance intermediaries which, in relation to insurance mediation activities, hold no more than that amount of client money only on a statutory trust are exempt insurance intermediaries.8
Note (5) = In row (6):7
(a)7	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7 applies to a managing agent in respect of its own business and in respect of the insurance business of each syndicate which it manages; and7
(b)7	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.8 apply to the auditors of a managing agent and the auditors of the insurance business of each syndicate which the managing agent manages.1 2 3 4 5 6 7

FEES 4.2.11R01/11/2009

Table of periodic fees

1 Fee payer	2 Fee payable	3 Due date	4 Events occurring during the period leading to modified periodic fee
Any firm (except an ICVC or a UCITS qualifier)	As specified in FEES 4.3.1 R	(1) Unless (2) or (3) apply7, on or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R (2) Unless (3) applies, if 7an event specified in column 4 occurs during the course of a financial year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event, or if later the dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R.7 (3) Where the permission is for operating a multilateral trading facility, the date specified in FEES 4 Annex 10 (Periodic fees for MTF operators). 7 7	Firm receives permission, or becomes authorised or registered under the Payment Services Regulations ;9 or firm 9extends permission or its payment service activities9 9
Any firm which reports transactions3 to the FSA using the FSA's Direct Reporting System or FSA's Transaction Reporting System (see SUP 17) 3	FEES 4 Annex 3	(1) For transaction charges, the first working day of each month (2) For licence fees and enrolment charges, by the date set out on the relevant invoice	Not applicable
Persons who hold a certificate issued by the FSA under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order (Advice given in newspapers etc.)	£1,000	(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before 30 April (2) If an event in column 4 occurs during the course of a financial year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event	Certificate issued to person by FSA under Article 54 RAO
Any manager of an authorised unit trust;	In relation to each unit trust the amount specified in FEES 4 Annex 4		Authorisation order is made in relation to the relevant scheme
Any ACD of an ICVC; and	In relation to each ICVC the amount specified in FEES 4 Annex 4
Persons who, under the constitution or founding arrangements of a recognised scheme, is responsible for the management of the property held for or within the scheme;	In relation to each recognised scheme the amount specified in FEES 4 Annex 4		The relevant scheme becomes a recognised collective investment scheme
		Not applicable
UK recognised body	FEES 4 Annex 6, part 1	(1) Unless (2) applies, by the due dates set out in FEES 4 Annex 6, part 1 (2) If the event in column 4 occurs during the course of a financial year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event	Recognition order is made.Modified periodic fee: (1) for a UK recognised investment exchange, 150,000; (2) for a UK recognised clearing house, 250,000.
Overseas recognised body	FEES 4 Annex 6, part 2	(1), unless (2) applies, 1 July. (2) If the event in column 4 occurs during the course of a financial year , 30 days after the occurrence of that event.	Recognition order is made.Modified periodic fee: (1) for an overseas investment exchange, 10,000; (2) for a overseas clearing house, 35,000.
Listed issuers (in LR) of shares, depositary receipts and securitised derivatives (in LR), unless the conditions set out below apply.3 The first condition is that the listed issuer, or a related entity, has already paid a periodic fee in respect of the period concerned. The second condition is that the listed issuer is subject to listing rules as a result of a reverse takeover, or that the listed issuer is a newly formed entity, created as a result of a restructuring.3	FEES 4 Annex 7	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice	Listed issuer 3 (in LR) becomes subject to listing rules 3
Sponsors	10,00010 per year for the period from 1 April to 31 March the following year (see Note)2	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice	Approval of sponsor
All non-listed issuers (in DTR) of shares, depositary receipts and securitised derivatives.6 6	FEES 4 Annex 8	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice	Non-listed issuer (in DTR) becomes subject to disclosure rules and transparency rules 6
6All firms reporting transactions in securitised derivatives to the FSA in accordance with SUP 17, and market operators who provide facilities for trading in securitised derivatives.	FEES 4 Annex 9 R	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice	Not applicable

Note:Sponsors on the list of approved sponsors as at 1 April each year will be liable for the full year's annual fee unless FEES 4.3.13 R applies.2

SUP 13A.9.5G01/11/2007

(1) The purpose of the precautionary measure rule is to ensure that an incoming EEA firm is subject to the standards of MiFID and the MiFID implementing Directive to the extent that the Home State has not transposed MiFID or the MiFID implementing Directive by 1 November 2007. It is to 'fill a gap'.(2) The rule is made in the light of the duty of the United Kingdom under Article 62 of MiFID to adopt precautionary measures to protect investors. (3) The rule will be effective for

REC 3.15.5G21/06/2001

Specified investments (other than securities or options in relation to securities) falling within the same article in Part III of the Regulated Activities Order will normally be regarded as being assets of the same type. Securities falling within the same article in Part III of the Regulated Activities Order which may be given the same generic description (for example, shares admitted to the UK official list) will normally be regarded as being of the same type. Options in relation

PERG 8.7.2G01/07/2005

Controlled activity and controlled investment are defined in Schedule 1 to the Financial Promotion Order and are listed in PERG 8.36.3 G and PERG 8.36.4 G. Broadly speaking, controlled activities and controlled investments are similar to regulated activities and specified investments under the Regulated Activities Order. However, with controlled activities, the exclusions set out in the Regulated Activities Order do not, in most cases, apply. It is important to note, however,

MIPRU 2.2.2R01/11/2007

The firm may allocate the responsibility for its insurance mediation activity to an approved person (or persons) performing:(1) a governing function (other than the non-executive director function); or(2) the apportionment and oversight function; or(3) the significant management function in so far as it relates to dealing in investments as principal, disregarding article 15 of the Regulated Activities Order (Absence of holding out etc) (or agreeing to do so) or an activity which

REC 2.5.1UK01/11/2007

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, paragraph 3

2(1)	The [UK RIE] must ensure that the systems and controls used in the performance of its [relevant functions] are adequate, and appropriate for the scale and nature of its business.
(2)	Sub-paragraph (1) applies in particular to systems and controls concerning -
	(a)	the transmission of information;
	(b)	the assessment, mitigation and management of risks to the performance of the [UK RIE's relevant functions];
	(c)	the effecting and monitoring of transactions on the [UK RIE];
	(ca)	the technical operation of the [UK RIE], including contingency arrangements for disruption to its facilities;
	(d)	the operation of the arrangements mentioned in paragraph 4(2)(d); and
	(e)	(where relevant) the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to users of the [UK RIE's] facilities.

PERG 8.17.16G01/07/2005

In the FSA's view, the information condition in PERG 8.17.12G (2)(b)(iii) requires the introducer to indicate to the borrower any other advantages accruing to him as a result of ongoing arrangements with N relating to the introduction of borrowers. This may include, for example, indirect benefits such as office space, travel expenses, subscription fees. This and other relevant information may, where appropriate, be provided on a standard form basis to the borrower. The FSA would

CASS 5.1.1R01/11/2007

(1) CASS 5.1 to CASS 5.6 apply, subject to (2), (3) and CASS 5.1.3 R to CASS 5.1.6 R, to a firm that receives or holds money in the course of or in connection with its insurance mediation activity.(2) CASS 5.1 to CASS 5.6 do not, subject to (3), apply:(a) to a firm to the extent that it acts in accordance with the non-directive client money chapter or the MiFID client money chapter4; or4(b) to a firm in carrying on an insurance mediation activity which is in respect of a reinsurance

Related provisions for PERG 4.6.8

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Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, paragraph 3