Related provisions for PERG 8.3.4
1 - 20 of 610 items.
A firm must notify the FSA immediately it becomes aware, or has information which reasonably suggests, that any of the following has occurred, may have occurred or may occur in the foreseeable future:(1) the firm failing to satisfy one or more of the threshold conditions; or(2) any matter which could have a significant adverse impact on the firm's reputation; or(3) any matter which could affect the firm's ability to continue to provide adequate services to its customers and which
The circumstances which may give rise to any of the events in SUP 15.3.1 R are wide-ranging and the probability of any matter resulting in such an outcome, and the severity of the outcome, may be difficult to determine. However, the FSA expects firms to consider properly all potential consequences of events.
Principle 11 requires a firm to deal with its regulators in an open and cooperative way and to disclose to the FSAappropriately anything relating to the firm of which the FSA would reasonably expect notice. Principle 11 applies to unregulated activities as well as regulated activities and takes into account the activities of other members of a group
Compliance with Principle 11 includes, but is not limited to, giving the FSA notice of:(1) any proposed restructuring, reorganisation or business expansion which could have a significant impact on the firm's risk profile or resources, including, but not limited to:(a) setting up a new undertaking within a firm'sgroup, or a new branch (whether in the United Kingdom or overseas); or (b) commencing the provision of cross border services into a new territory; or(c) commencing the
A notification under Principle 11 may be given orally or in writing (as set out in SUP 15.7.1 R and SUP 15.7.2 G), although the FSA may request written confirmation of a matter. However, it is the responsibility of a firm to ensure that matters are properly and clearly communicated to the FSA. A firm should provide a written notification if a matter either is complex or may be such as to make it necessary for the FSA to take action. A firm should also have regard to Principle
(1) A firm must notify the FSA of:(a) a significant breach of a rule (which includes a Principle, or a Statement of Principle ; or(b) a breach of any requirement imposed by the Act or by regulations or an order made under the Act by the Treasury (except if the breach is an offence, in which case (c) applies);6(c) the bringing of a prosecution for, or a conviction of, any offence under the Act;(d) a breach of a directly applicable provision in the MiFID Regulation; or6(e) a breach
A firm must notify the FSA immediately if:(1) civil proceedings are brought against the firm and the amount of the claim is significant in relation to the firm's financial resources or its reputation; or(2) any action is brought against the firm under section 71 of the Act (Actions for damages) or section 150 (Actions for damages); or(3) disciplinary measures or sanctions have been imposed on the firm by any statutory or regulatory authority, professional organisation or trade
A firm must notify the FSA immediately if one of the following events arises and the event is significant:(1) it becomes aware that an employee may have committed a fraud against one of its customers; or(2) it becomes aware that a person, whether or not employed by it, may have committed a fraud against it; or(3) it considers that any person, whether or not employed by it, is acting with intent to commit a fraud against it; or(4) it identifies irregularities in its accounting
The notifications under SUP 15.3.17 R are required as the FSA needs to be aware of the types of fraudulent and irregular activity which are being attempted or undertaken, and to act, if necessary, to prevent effects on consumers or other firms. A notification under SUP 15.7.3 G should provide all relevant and significant details of the incident or suspected incident of which the firm is aware.
A firm must notify the FSA immediately of any of the following events:(1) the calling of a meeting to consider a resolution for winding up the firm; or(2) an application to dissolve the firm or to strike it off the Register of Companies; or(3) the presentation of a petition for the winding up of the firm; or(4) the making of, or any proposals for the making of, a composition or arrangement with any one or more of its creditors; or(5) an application for the appointment of an administrator
3SUP 15.3.23 D to SUP 15.3.25 D are given in relation to the exercise of the powers of the Society and of the Council generally, with a view to achieving the objective of enabling the FSAto:(1) comply with its general duty under section 314 of the Act (Authority's general duty);(2) determine whether underwriting agents, or approved persons acting for them or on their behalf, are complying with the requirements imposed on them by or under the Act;(3) enforce the provisions of the
3The Society must immediately inform the FSA in writing if it becomes aware that any matter likely to be of material concern to the FSA may have arisen in relation to:(1) the regulated activities for which the Society has permission; or (2) underwriting agents; or (3) approved persons or individuals acting for or on behalf of underwriting agents.
3The Society must inform the FSA if it commences investigations or disciplinary proceedings relating to apparent breaches:(1) of the Act or requirements made under the Act, including the threshold conditions or the Principles or other rules, by an underwriting agent; or(2) of the Statements of Principle by an individual or other person who carries out controlled functions for or on behalf of an underwriting agent.
3The Society must inform the FSA if it commences investigations or disciplinary proceedings which do not fall within the scope of SUP 15.3.24 D but which:(1) involve an underwriting agent, or an approved person who carries out controlled functions for it or on its behalf; or (2) may indicate that an individual acting for or on behalf of an underwriting agent may not be a fit and proper person to perform functions in relation to regulated activities.
The FSA will consider the full circumstances of each case when determining whether or not to take action for a financial penalty or public censure. Set out below is a list of factors that may be relevant for this purpose. The list is not exhaustive: not all of these factors may be applicable in a particular case, and there may be other factors, not listed, that are relevant.(1) The nature, seriousness and impact of the suspected breach, including:(a) whether the breach was deliberate
When deciding whether to take action for market abuse or requiring or encouraging, the FSA may consider the following additional factors:(1) The degree of sophistication of the users of the market in question, the size and liquidity of the market, and the susceptibility of the market to market abuse.(2) The impact, having regard to the nature of the behaviour, that any financial penalty or public censure may have on the financial markets or on the interests of consumers:(a) a
The FSA's rules on systems and controls against money laundering are set out in SYSC 3.2 and SYSC 6.3. The FSA, when considering whether to take action for a financial penalty or censure in respect of a breach of those rules, will have regard to whether a firm has followed relevant provisions in the Guidance for the UK financial sector issued by the Joint Money Laundering Steering Group.
The primary responsibility for ensuring compliance with a firm's regulatory obligations rests with the firm itself. However, the FSA may take disciplinary action against an approved person where there is evidence of personal culpability on the part of that approved person. Personal culpability arises where the behaviour was deliberate or where the approved person's standard of behaviour was below that which would be reasonable in all the circumstances at the time of the conduct
In some cases it may not be appropriate to take disciplinary measures against a firm for the actions of an approved person (an example might be where the firm can show that it took all reasonable steps to prevent the breach). In other cases, it may be appropriate for the FSA to take action against both the firm and the approved person. For example, a firm may have breached the rule requiring it to take reasonable care to establish and maintain such systems and controls as are
In addition to the general factors outlined in DEPP 6.2.1 G, there are some additional considerations that may be relevant when deciding whether to take action against an approved person pursuant to section 66 of the Act. This list of those considerations is non-exhaustive. Not all considerations below may be relevant in every case, and there may be other considerations, not listed, that are relevant.(1) The approved person's position and responsibilities. The FSA may take into
The FSA will not discipline approved persons on the basis of vicarious liability (that is, holding them responsible for the acts of others), provided appropriate delegation and supervision has taken place (see APER 4.6.13 G and APER 4.6.14 G). In particular, disciplinary action will not be taken against an approved person performing a significant influence function simply because a regulatory failure has occurred in an area of business for which he is responsible. The FSA will
The primary responsibility for ensuring compliance with Part VI of the Act, the Part 6 rules, the prospectus rules or a provision otherwise made in accordance with the Prospectus Directive or a requirement imposed under such provision rests with the persons identified in section 91(1) and section 91(1A) (Penalties for breach of Part 6 rules) of the Act respectively. Normally therefore, any disciplinary action taken by the FSA for contraventions of these obligations will in the
However, in the case of a contravention by a person referred to in section 91(1)(a) or section 91(1)(b)(i) or section 91(1A) of the Act ("P"), where the FSA considers that another person who was at the material time a director of P was knowingly concerned in the contravention, the FSA may take disciplinary action against that person. In circumstances where the FSA does not consider it appropriate to seek a disciplinary sanction against P (notwithstanding a breach of relevant requirements
The Principles are set out in PRIN 2.1.1 R. The Principles are a general statement of the fundamental obligations of firms under the regulatory system. The Principles derive their authority from the FSA's rule-making powers set out in section 138(General rule-making power) of the Act. A breach of a Principle will make a firm liable to disciplinary action. Where the FSA considers this is appropriate, it will discipline a firm on the basis of the Principles alone.
The Listing Principles are set out in LR 7. The Listing Principles are a general statement of the fundamental obligations of listed companies. The Listing Principles derive their authority from the FSA's rule making powers set out in section 73A(1) (Part 6 Rules) of the Act. A breach of a Listing Principle will make a listed company liable to disciplinary action by the FSA.
In determining whether a Listing Principle has been broken, it is necessary to look to the standard of conduct required by the Listing Principle in question. Under each of the Listing Principles, the onus will be on the FSA to show that a listed company has been at fault in some way. This requirement will differ depending upon the Listing Principle.
When deciding how to proceed in such cases, the FSA will examine the circumstances of the case, and consider, in the light of the relevant investigation, disciplinary and enforcement powers, whether it is appropriate for the FSA or another authority to take action to address the breach. The FSA will have regard to all the circumstances of the case including whether the other authority has adequate powers to address the breach in question.
In some cases, it may be appropriate for both the FSAand another authority to be involved, and for both to take action in a particular case arising from the same facts. For example, a breach of RIE rules may be so serious as to justify the FSA varying or cancelling the firm's Part IV permission, or withdrawing approval from approved persons, as well as action taken by the RIE. In such cases, the FSA will work with the relevant authority to ensure that cases are dealt with efficiently
In relation to behaviour which may have happened or be happening in the context of a takeover bid, the FSA will refer to the Takeover Panel and give due weight to its views. Where the Takeover Code has procedures for complaint about any behaviour, the FSA expects parties to exhaust those procedures. The FSA will not, save in exceptional circumstances, take action under any of section 123 (FSA'spower to impose penalties), section 129 (Power of court to impose penalties), section
The FSA will not take action against a person over behaviour which (a) conforms with the Takeover Code or rules of an RIE and (b) falls within the terms of any provision of the Code of Market Conduct which states that behaviour so conforming does not amount to market abuse. The FSA will seek the Takeover Panel's or relevant RIE's views on whether behaviour complies with the Takeover Code or RIE rules and will attach considerable weight to its views.
If any of the circumstances in DEPP 6.2.26 G apply, and the FSA considers that the use of its disciplinary powers under section 123 or section 129, or of its injunctive powers under section 381 or of its powers relating to restitution under section 383 or 384 is appropriate, it will not take action during an offer to which the Takeover Code applies except in the circumstances set out in DEPP 6.2.27 G.
In any case where the FSA considers that the use of its powers under any of sections 123, 129, 381, 383 or 384 of the Act may be appropriate, if that use may affect the timetable or outcome of a takeover bid or where it is appropriate in the context of any exercise by the Takeover Panel of its powers and authority, the FSA will consult the Takeover Panel before using any of those powers.
Where the behaviour of a person which amounts to market abuse is behaviour to which the Takeover Code is relevant, the use of the Takeover Panel's powers will often be sufficient to address the relevant concerns. In cases where this is not so, the FSA will need to consider whether it is appropriate to use any of its own powers under the market abuse regime. The principal circumstances in which the FSA is likely to consider such exercise are:(1) where the behaviour falls within
(1) 1A person subject to enforcement action may
agree to a financial penalty or other outcome rather than contest formal action
by the FSA.(2) The fact that he does so will not
usually obviate the need for a statutory notice recording the FSA's decision to take that action. Where, however, the person subject to enforcement action agrees
not to contest the content of a proposed statutory
notice, the decision to give that statutory notice will be taken
by senior FSA staff.(3) The
Settlement discussions may take
place at any time during the enforcement process if both parties agree. This
might be before the giving of a warning notice,
before a decision notice, or
even after referral of the matter to the Tribunal.
But the FSA would
not normally agree to detailed settlement discussions until it has a sufficient
understanding of the nature and gravity of the suspected misconduct or issue
to make a reasonable assessment of the appropriate outcome. Settlement
(1) The settlement decision makers may, but need not, participate in the discussions
exploring possible settlement.(2) If the settlement decision makers have not been involved in the discussions, but
an agreement has been reached, they may ask to meet the relevant FSA staff or the person concerned
in order to assist in the consideration of the proposed settlement.
The terms of any proposed settlement:(1) will be put in writing and be agreed
by FSA staff
and the person concerned;(2) may refer to a draft of the proposed statutory notices setting out the facts
of the matter and the FSA's conclusions; (3) may, depending upon the stage in
the enforcement process at which agreement is reached, include an agreement
by the person concerned to: (a) waive and not exercise any rights
under sections 387 (Warning notices) and 394 (Access to Authority
(1) Where the settlement decision makers decline to issue a statutory
notice despite the proposed settlement, they may invite FSA staff
and the person concerned to
enter into further discussions to try to achieve an outcome the settlement decision makers would be prepared
to endorse.(2) However, if the proposed action
by the FSA has
been submitted to the RDC for
consideration, it will be for the RDC to
decide:(a) whether to extend the period for
representations in response to
(1) DEPP 2.4 sets out the FSA's approach
to giving third parties copies of statutory
notices pursuant to section 393 (Third party rights) of the Act.(2) The decision to give a warning notice or a decision
notice to a third party is a statutory
notice associated decision.(3) In cases therefore where the decision
to give a warning notice or decision notice is taken by settlement decision makers, those decision
makers will decide whether a copy of the notice should be given to a
The FSA has divided its definition of capital into categories, or tiers, reflecting differences in the extent to which the capital instruments concerned meet the purpose and conform to the characteristics of capital listed in GENPRU 2.2.9 G. The FSA generally prefers a firm to hold higher quality capital that meets the characteristics of permanency and loss absorbency that are features of tier one capital. Capital instruments falling into core tier one capital can be included
This table belongs to GENPRU 2.2.17 R
Type of firm |
Location of rules |
Remarks |
BIPRU investment firm without an investment firm consolidation waiver |
GENPRU 2 Annex 4 (Deducts material holdings) |
Applies to a BIPRU investment firm not using GENPRU 2 Annex 5 or GENPRU 2 Annex 6 |
BIPRU investment firm without an investment firm consolidation waiver |
GENPRU 2 Annex 5 (Deducts illiquid assets) |
A BIPRU investment firm must give one Month's prior notice to the FSA before starting to use or stopping using this method |
BIPRU investment firm with an investment firm consolidation waiver |
GENPRU 2 Annex 6 (Deducts illiquid assets and material holdings) |
A firm with an investment firm consolidation waiver must use this method. No other BIPRU investment firm may use it. |
GENPRU 2.2.19 R sets out three different methods of calculating capital resources for BIPRU investment firms. The differences between the three methods relate to whether and how material holdings and illiquid assets are deducted when calculating capital resources. The method depends on whether a firm has an investment firm consolidation waiver. If a firm does have such a waiver, it should deduct illiquid assets, own groupmaterial holdings and certain contingent liabilities. If
4The purpose of GENPRU 2.2.64R (4) is to ensure that a firm retains flexibility over the payment of coupons and can preserve cash in times of financial stress. However, a firm may include, as part of the capital instrument terms, a right to make payments of a coupon mandatory if an item of capital becomes ineligible to form part of its capital resources (e.g. through a change in the relevant rules) and the firm has notified the FSA that the instrument is ineligible.
The FSA considers that dividend pushers diminish the quality of capital by breaching the principle of complete discretion over coupons set out in GENPRU 2.2.64R (4). A dividend pusher operates so that, in a given period of time, payments must be made on senior securities if payments have previously been made on junior securities or securities ranking pari passu. As such, dividend pushers may not be included in the terms of tier one capital, unless the firm has the option to fund
A firm may not include a capital instrument in its tier one capital resources, unless its contractual terms are such that:(1) (if it is redeemable other than in circumstances set out in GENPRU 2.2.64R (3)(a) (redemption on a winding up)) it is redeemable only at the option of the firm; and(2) the firm cannot exercise that redemption right:(a) before the fifth anniversary of its date of issue;(b) unless it has given notice to the FSA in accordance with GENPRU 2.2.74 R; and(c)
A firm may include a term in a tier one instrument allowing the firm to redeem it before the date in GENPRU 2.2.70R (2)(a) if the following conditions are satisfied:(1) the other conditions in GENPRU 2.2.70 R are met;(2) the circumstance that entitles the firm to exercise that right is a change in law or regulation in any relevant jurisdiction or in the interpretation of such law or regulation by any court or authority entitled to do so;(3) it would be reasonable for the firm
The purpose of GENPRU 2.2.71 R to GENPRU 2.2.72 R is this. In general a tier one instrument should not be redeemable by the firm before its fifth anniversary. However there may be circumstances in which it would be reasonable for the firm to redeem it before then. GENPRU 2.2.71 R allows the firm to include a right to redeem the instrument before the fifth anniversary in certain circumstances. A tax call is an example of a term that may be allowed. GENPRU 2.2.71 R says that the
A firm must not redeem any tier one instrument that it has included in its tier one capital resources unless it has notified the FSA of its intention at least one month before it becomes committed to do so. When giving notice, the firm must provide details of its position after such redemption in order to show how it will:77(1) meet its capital resources requirement;7 and(2) 7have sufficient financial resources to meet the overall financial adequacy rule.
If a firm has surplus eligible partnership capital or eligible LLP members' capital that it wishes to repay in circumstances other than those set out in GENPRU 2.2.93 R or GENPRU 2.2.94 R it may apply to the FSA for a waiver to allow it to do so. If a firm applies for such a waiver the information that the firm supplies with the application might include:(1) a demonstration that the firm would have sufficient capital resources to meet its capital resources requirement immediately
A firm must not amend the terms of the capital or the documents referred to in GENPRU 2.2.159R (8) unless:(1) at least one Month before the amendment is due to take effect, the firm has given the FSA notice in writing of the proposed amendment and the FSA has not objected; and(2) that notice includes confirmation that the legal opinions referred to in GENPRU 2.2.159R (12) and, if applicable, GENPRU 2.2.163 R (General conditions for eligibility as tier two capital instruments:
In relation to a tier two instrument, a firm must notify the FSA:(1) in the case of an insurer, six Months; and(2) in the case of a BIPRU firm, one Month;before it becomes committed to7 the proposed repayment (unless that firm intends to repay an instrument on its final maturity date). When giving notice, the firm must provide details of its position after such repayment in order to show how it will:777(3) meet its capital resources requirement; and7(4) have sufficient financial
(1) The purpose of GENPRU 2.2.177R (2) is to ensure that a firm which issues an item of capital with a coupon retains flexibility over the payments of such coupon and can preserve cash in times of financial stress. However, a firm may include, as part of the capital instrument terms, a right to make payments of a coupon mandatory if an item of capital becomes ineligible to form part of its capital resources (for example, through a change in the relevant rules) and the firm has
A BIPRU firm which adopts the standardised approach to credit risk may include general/collective provisions in its tier two capital resources only if:(1) they are freely available to the firm;(2) their existence is disclosed in internal accounting records; and(3) their amount is determined by the management of the firm, verified by independent auditors and notified to the FSA.
A person wanting to provide sponsor services4, and to be included on the list of sponsors, must apply to the FSA for approval as a sponsor by submitting the following to the Sponsor Supervision Team at the FSA address:4(1) a completed Sponsor Firm Application Form; and4(2) [deleted]44(3) the application fee set out in 1FEES 31[Note: The Sponsor's Firm Application Form can be found on the UKLA section of the FSA's website.]4
When considering an application for approval as a sponsor the FSA may:(1) carry out any enquiries and request any further information which it considers appropriate, including consulting other regulators;(2) request that the applicant or its specified representative answer questions and explain any matter the FSA considers relevant to the application;(3) take into account any information which it considers appropriate in relation to the application.22(4) [deleted]22[Note: The
The FSA will approve a person as a sponsor only if it is satisfied that the person :4(1) is 4an authorised person or a member of a designated professional body;(2) is 4competent to performsponsor services4; and(3) has appropriate 4systems and controls in place to ensure that it cancarry out its role as a sponsor in accordance with this chapter4.4
4In assessing whether a person is competent to provide, or to continue to provide, sponsor services, the FSA may also take into account, where relevant, the quality of anyguidance or advice on the listing rules or disclosure rules and transparency rules the person has given in circumstances other than in providing sponsor services.
The nature and extent of the systems and controls which a sponsor will need to maintain will depend upon a variety of factors including:(1) the nature, scale and complexity of its business;(2) the diversity of its operations;(3) the volume and size of the transactions it undertakes;4(4) the volume and size of the transactions it anticipates undertaking in the following year; and44(5) the degree of risk associated with the transactions it undertakes.4
4For each transaction for which it provides sponsor services, a sponsor must:(1) notify the FSA as soon as practicableof the name and contact details of the maincontactperson or persons in the sponsor for that transaction; and(2) ensure that thecontact person or persons: (a) have sufficient knowledge about the listed company or applicant and the proposed transactionto be able to answer queries from the FSA about it; and(b) are available to answer queries from the FSA on any business
(1) 5The FSA may by notice in writing given to a sponsor, or a person applying for approval as a sponsor, require it to provide specified documents or specified information to the FSA.(2) The sponsor, or the person applying for approval as a sponsor, must as soon as practicable provide to the FSA any documents or information that it has been required to provide under (1).(3) This rule applies only to documents or information reasonably required by the FSA in connection with the
A sponsor must provide to the FSA on an annual basis:(1) written confirmation that it continues to satisfy the criteria for approval as a sponsor as set out in LR 8.6.5 R; and5(1A) for each of the criteria in that rule, detailsof the basis upon which it considers that it meets the criteria.5(2) [deleted]55(3) [deleted]55(4) [deleted]55
A sponsor must notify the FSA in writing as soon as possible if:(1) the sponsor ceases to satisfy the criteria for approval as a sponsor set out in LR 8.6.5 R; or(2) the sponsor, or any of its employees who provide sponsor services,5 are:5(a) convicted of any offence involving fraud, theft or other dishonesty; or(b) the subject of a bankruptcy proceeding, a receiving order or an administration order; or(3) any of its employees who providesponsor services5are disqualified by a
A request by a sponsor for its approval as a sponsor to be cancelled must be in writing and must include:(1) the sponsor's name;(2) a clear explanation of the background and reasons for the request;(3) the date on which the sponsor requests the cancellation to take effect;4(4) a signed confirmation that the sponsor will not participate in any services described in LR 8.2 as of the date the request is submitted to the FSA; and(5) the name and contact details of the person at the
(1) If a member of the RDC has a potential conflict of interest in any matter in which he is asked to participate he will disclose the conflict to the RDC Office, and disclose it:(a) in the case of the Chairman of the RDC, to the Chairman or Deputy Chairman of the FSA; or(b) in the case of a Deputy Chairman of the RDC, to the Chairman of the RDC, or if he is unavailable to the Chairman or Deputy Chairman of the FSA; or(c) in the case of any other member, to the Chairman or a Deputy
If the RDC considers it relevant to its consideration, it may ask FSA staff to explain or provide any or all of the following:(1) additional information about the matter (which FSA staff may seek by further investigation); or(2) further explanation of any aspect of the FSA staff recommendation or accompanying papers; or(3) information about FSA priorities and policies (including as to the FSA's view on the law or on the correct legal interpretation of provisions of the Act).
If the RDC decides that the FSA should give a warning noticeor a first supervisory notice:(1) the RDC will settle the wording of the warning notice or first supervisory notice, and will ensure that the notice complies with the relevant provisions of the Act;(2) the RDC will make any relevant statutory notice associated decisions;(3) the RDC staff will make appropriate arrangements for the notice to be given; and(4) the RDC staff will make appropriate arrangements for the disclosure
(1) A warning notice or a first supervisory notice will (as required by the Act) specify the time allowed for making representations. This will not be less than 28 days.(2) The FSA will also, when giving a warning notice or a first supervisory notice, specify a time within which the recipient is required to indicate whether he wishes to make oral representations.
(1) The recipient of a warning notice or a first supervisory notice may request an extension of the time allowed for making representations. Such a request must normally be made within 14days of the notice being given.(2) If a request is made, the Chairman or a Deputy Chairman of the RDC will decide whether to allow an extension, and, if so, how much additional time is to be allowed for making representations. In reaching his decision he may take account of any relevant comments
(1) If the recipient of a warning notice or a first supervisory notice indicates that he wishes to make oral representations, the RDC staff, in conjunction with the Chairman or a Deputy Chairman of the RDC, will fix a date or dates for a meeting at which the relevant RDC members will receive those representations.(2) In making those arrangements the RDC staff will draw the Chairman's or Deputy Chairman's attention to any particular issues about the timing of the meeting which
The chairman of the relevant meeting will ensure that the meeting is conducted so as to enable:(1) the recipient of the warning notice or first supervisory notice to make representations;(2) the relevant FSA staff to respond to those representations;(3) the RDC members to raise with those present any points or questions about the matter (whether in response to particular representations or more generally about the matter); and(4) the recipient of the notice to respond to points
If the RDC decides that the FSA should give a decision notice or a second supervisory notice:(1) the RDC will settle the wording of the notice which will include a brief summary of the key representations made and how they have been dealt with, and will ensure that the notice complies with the relevant provisions of the Act;(2) the RDC will make any relevant statutory notice associated decisions, including whether the FSA is required to give a copy of the notice to a third party;
FSA staff responsible for recommending action to the RDC will continue to assess the appropriateness of the proposed action in the light of new information or representations they receive and any material change in the facts or circumstances relating to a particular matter. It may be therefore that they decide to give a notice of discontinuance to a person to whom a warning notice or decision notice has been given. The decision to give a notice of discontinuance does not require
The decision to give a warning notice and a decision notice in a particular matter will often not be taken by the same decision maker. Certain types of action require that the warning notice decision be taken by FSA staff under executive procedures and the decision notice decision be taken by the RDC. Similarly, in enforcement cases the RDC might take the decision to give a warning notice, but the decision to give a decision notice could be taken by the settlement decision makers
FSA staff under executive procedures will take the decision to give a warning notice if the FSA proposes to:(1) refuse an application for a Part IV permission or to refuse an application to cancel a Part IV permission;(2) impose a limitation or a requirement which was not applied for, or specify a narrower description of regulated activity than that applied for, on the grant of a Part IV permission;(3) refuse an application to vary a Part IV permission, or to restrict a Part IV
If representations are made in response to a warning notice proposing the action set out at DEPP 2.5.3 GDEPP 2.5.3G (2), DEPP 2.5.3G (3) or DEPP 2.5.3G (6), then the RDC will take the decision to give a decision notice if the action involves a fundamental change(see DEPP 2.5.8 G) to the nature of a permission. Otherwise, the decision to give the decision notice will be taken by FSA staff under executive procedures.
The RDC will take the decision to give a supervisory notice exercising the FSA's own initiative power (by removing a regulated activity, by imposing a limitation or requirement or by specifying a narrower description of regulated activity) if the action involves a fundamental change (see DEPP 2.5.8 G) to the nature of a permission. Otherwise, the decision to give the decision notice will be taken by FSA staff under executive procedures.
FSA staff under executive procedures will take the following statutory notice decisions:(1) the refusal of an application for listing of securities;(2) the suspension of listing on the FSA's own initiative or at the request of the issuer;(3) [deleted]22(4) the discontinuance of listing of securities at the issuer's request;(5) the exercise of any of the powers in sections 87K or 87L of the Act in respect of a breach of any applicable provision; and2(6) [deleted]22(7) the refusal
FSA staff will usually inform or discuss with the person concerned any action they contemplate before they recommend to the RDC that the FSA takes formal action. The FSA may also be invited to exercise certain powers by the persons who would be affected by the exercise of those powers. In these circumstances if the person concerned has agreed to or accepted the action proposed then the decisions referred to in DEPP 2.5.13 G will be taken by FSA staff under executive procedures
The decisions referred to in DEPP 2.5.12 G are:(1) the decision to give a supervisory notice pursuant to section 259(3), (8) or 9(b) (directions on authorised unit trust schemes); section 268(3), 7(a) or 9(a) (directions in respect of recognised overseas schemes); or section 282(3), (6) or (7)(b) (directions in respect of relevant recognised schemes) of the Act;(2) the decision to give a warning notice or decision notice pursuant to section 280(1) or (2)(a) (revocation of recognised
A decision to give a warning notice or decision notice refusing an application for an authorisation order declaring a unit trust scheme to be an AUT or ICVC2 will be taken by the RDC only if the application is by an authorised fund manager who is not the operator of an existing AUT or ICVC. Otherwise, the decision to give the warning notice or decision notice will be taken by FSA staff under executive procedures.22
A notice under section 264(2) of the Act (notification of non-compliance with UK law) relating to a collective investment scheme constituted in another EEA State is not a warning notice, but the FSA will operate a procedure for a section 264(2) notice which will be similar to the procedure for a warning notice.
The FSA expects to adopt a procedure in respect of notices under enactments other than the Act which is similar to that for statutory notices under the Act, but which recognises any differences in the legislative framework and requirements. DEPP 2 Annex 1 and DEPP 2 Annex 2 therefore identify notices to be given pursuant to other enactments and the relevant FSA decision maker.
Some of the distinguishing features of notices given under enactments other than the Act are as follows: (1) Building Societies Act 1986, section 36A: There is no right to refer a decision to issue a prohibition order under section 36A to the Tribunal. Accordingly, a decision notice under section 36A(5A) is not required to give an indication of whether any such right exists. A decision notice under section 36A(5A) may only relate to the issue of a prohibition order under section
The issuer must send to the FSA annual written confirmation of compliance with Regulations 16 (sums derived from the issue of regulated covered bonds) and 17 (general requirements on the issuer in relation to the asset pool) of the RCB Regulations in the form set out in RCB 3 Annex 1D (annual confirmation of compliance).
(1) The owner must ensure that a duly authorised representative signs the confirmation and confirms on the FSA's form that the owner has obtained the appropriate third party advice or reports required by this section.(2) The owner must obtain appropriate advice in the same manner as set out in RCB 3.2.2 D.
Under section 148(4) of the Act, the FSA may not give a waiver unless it is satisfied that:(1) compliance by the firm with the rules, or with the rules as unmodified, would be unduly burdensome, or would not achieve the purpose for which the rules were made; and(2) the waiver would not result in undue risk to persons whose interests the rules are intended to protect.
The FSA will acknowledge an application promptly and if necessary will seek further information from the firm. The time taken to determine an application will depend on the issues it raises. However, the FSA will aim to give waiver decisions within 20 business days of receiving an application which includes sufficient information. If the FSA expects to take longer, it will tell the firm and give an estimated decision date. A firm should make it clear in the application if it needs
The FSA will treat a firm's application for a waiver as withdrawn if it does not hear from the firm within 20 business days of sending a communication which requests or requires a response from the firm. The FSA will not do this if the firm has made it clear to the FSA in some other way that it intends to pursue the application. 3
In some cases, the FSA may give a modification of a rule rather than direct that the rule is not to apply. The FSA may also impose conditions on a waiver, for example additional reporting requirements. A waiver may be given for a specified period of time only, after which time it will cease to apply. A firm wishing to extend the duration of a waiver should follow the procedure in SUP 8.3.3 D. A waiver will not apply retrospectively.
If the FSA believes that a particular waiver given to a firm may have relevance to other firms, it may publish general details about the possible availability of the waiver. For example, IPRU(INV) 3-80(10)G explains that a firm that wishes to use its own internal model to calculate its position risk requirement (PRR) will need to apply for a waiver of the relevant rules.
Under section 148(2) of the Act the FSA may give a waiver with the consent of a firm. This power may be used by the FSA in exceptional circumstances where the FSA considers that a waiver should apply to a number of firms (for example, where a rule unmodified may not meet the particular circumstances of a particular category of firm). In such cases the FSA will inform the firms concerned that the waiver is available, either by contacting firms individually or by publishing details
Under section 169(1)(b) of the Act,
the FSA may
appoint an investigator to investigate any matter at the request of an overseas regulator. The powers of the investigator appointed by the FSA (referred to here as the 'FSA's investigator') include the power to require persons to
attend at a specified time and place and answer questions (the compulsory
interview power).
Where the FSA appoints an investigator in response to a request from an overseas regulator it may, under section 169(7) of the Act,
direct him to permit a representative of that regulator to attend and take
part in any interviews conducted for the purposes of the investigation. The FSA may
only give a direction under section 169(7) if it is satisfied that any information
obtained by an overseas regulator as a result of the interview will
be subject to the safeguards equivalent
The FSA may need to consider whether to use its direction power at two
stages of an investigation:(1) at the same time that it considers
the request from the overseas regulator to appoint investigators;(2) after it has appointed investigators,
either at the request of the overseas regulator or on the recommendation of the
investigators.
Before making a direction under
section 169(7) the FSA will discuss and determine with the overseas
regulator how this statement of policy will
apply to the conduct of the interview, taking into account all the circumstances
of the case. Amongst other matters, the FSA will at this stage determine the extent to which the representative
of the overseas regulator will be able to participate in
the interview. The overseas regulator will be notified of this determination
on the issuing
The direction will contain the
identity of the representative of the overseas
regulator that is permitted to attend any
interview and the role that he will play in the interview. If the FSA envisages that there will be more than one interview in the course
of the investigation, the direction may also specify which interview(s) the overseas representative is allowed to attend.
In circumstances where an interview
is to be conducted as part of the investigation, the FSA's investigator will have conduct of the interview. In general,
the FSA's investigators
will be employees of the FSA, but in appropriate cases the FSA may appoint persons who
are not its employees. In those cases, the FSA may choose to require that an FSA employee is present at the interview and may choose to appoint
that person as an investigator.
The FSA's investigator will act on behalf of the FSA and under its control. He may be instructed to permit the representative
of the overseas regulator to assist in the preparation of
the interview. Where the FSA considers it appropriate, it may permit the representative to
attend and ask questions of the interviewee in the course of the interview.
The interview will be conducted according to the terms of the direction and
the notification referred to in DEPP 7.2.6 G.
If the direction does permit the
representative of an overseas regulator to attend the interview and ask
the interviewee questions, the FSA's investigator will retain control of the interview throughout.
Control of the interview means the following will apply:(1) The FSA's investigator instigates and concludes the interview, introduces
everyone present and explains the procedure of the interview. He warns the
interviewee of the possible consequences of refusing to answer questions
The FSA will in general provide written notice of the appointment of
an investigator to the person under
investigation pursuant to the request of an overseas
regulator. Whether or not the interviewee
is the person under investigation,
the FSA's investigator
will inform the interviewee of the provisions under which he has been appointed,
the identity of the requesting authority and general nature of the matter
under investigation. The interviewee will also normally be informed
When the FSA's investigator has exercised the compulsory interview power, at
the outset of the interview the interviewee will be given an appropriate warning.
The warning, amongst other things, must state that the interviewee is obliged
to answer all questions put to them during the interview, including any put
by the representative of the overseas regulator. It will also state that in criminal
proceedings or proceedings for market abuse the FSA will
not use as evidence against
The FSA's investigator may decide which documents or other information
may be put to the interviewee, and whether it is appropriate to give the interviewee
sight of the documents before
the interview takes place. Where the overseas
regulator wishes to ask questions about documents during the interview and the FSA's investigator
wishes to inspect those documents before
the interview, he will be given the opportunity to do so. If the FSA's investigator wishes to inspect them and
When the FSA's investigator has exercised the compulsory interview power, the FSA's investigator
will require the person attending
the interview to answer questions. Where appropriate, questions may also be
posed by the representative of the overseas
regulator. The interviewee will also be
required to answer these questions. The FSA's investigator may intervene at any stage during questioning by
the representative of the overseas regulator.
Interviews will, in general, be
conducted in English. Where the interviewee's first language is not English,
at the request of the interviewee arrangements will be made for the questions
to be translated into the interviewee's first language and for his answers
to be translated back into English. If a translator is employed at the request
of the representative of the overseas regulator then the translation costs will
normally be met by the overseas regulator. Where interviews
All compulsory interviews will
be tape-recorded. The method of recording will be decided on and arranged
by the FSA's investigator.
Costs will be addressed similarly to that set out in the preceding paragraph.
The FSA will
not provide the overseas regulator with transcripts of the tapes
of interviews unless specifically agreed to, but copies of the tapes will
normally be provided where requested. The interviewee will be provided with
a copy of tapes of the interview but will only
The interviewee may be accompanied
at the interview by a legal adviser or a non-legally qualified observer of
his choice. The costs of any representation will not be met by the FSA. The
presence at the interview of a representative of the overseas
regulator may mean that the interviewee
wishes to be represented or accompanied by a person either
from or familiar with that regulator's jurisdiction. As far as practical the
arrangements for the interview should accommodate this wish.
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, paragraph 3
2(1) |
The [UK RIE] must ensure that the systems and controls used in the performance of its [relevant functions] are adequate, and appropriate for the scale and nature of its business. |
|
(2) |
Sub-paragraph (1) applies in particular to systems and controls concerning - |
|
(a) |
the transmission of information; |
|
(b) |
the assessment, mitigation and management of risks to the performance of the [UK RIE'srelevant functions]; |
|
(c) |
the effecting and monitoring of transactions on the [UK RIE]; |
|
(ca) |
the technical operation of the [UK RIE], including contingency arrangements for disruption to its facilities; |
|
(d) |
the operation of the arrangements mentioned in paragraph 4(2)(d); and |
|
(e) |
(where relevant) the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to users of the [UK RIE's] facilities. |
|
In assessing whether the systems and controls used by a UK recognised body in the performance of its relevant functions are adequate and appropriate for the scale and nature of its business, the FSA may have regard to the UK recognised body's:(1) arrangements for managing, controlling and carrying out its relevant functions, including: (a) the distribution of duties and responsibilities among its key individuals and the departments of the UK recognised body responsible for performing
The following paragraphs set out other matters to which the FSA may have regard in assessing the systems and controls used for the transmission of information, risk management, the effecting and monitoring of transactions, the operation of settlement arrangements (the matters covered in paragraphs 4(2)(d) and 19(2)(b) of the Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations) and the safeguarding and administration of assets .
In assessing a UK recognised body's systems and controls for the transmission of information, the FSA may also have regard to the extent to which these systems and controls ensure that information is transmitted promptly and accurately: (1) within the UK recognised body itself; (2) to members; and (3) (where appropriate) to other market participants or other relevant persons.
In assessing a UK RIE's systems and controls for the effecting and monitoring of transactions, and the systems and controls used by a UK recognised body for the operation of settlement arrangements, the FSA may have regard to the totality of the arrangements and processes through which a transaction is effected, cleared and settled, including:(1) a UK RIE's arrangements under which orders are received and matched, and its arrangements for trade and transaction reporting, and (if
In assessing a UK recognised body's systems and controls for the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to users of its facilities, the FSA may have regard to the totality of the arrangements and processes by which the UK recognised body: (1) records the assets held and the identity of the owners of (and other persons with relevant rights over) those assets; (2) records any instructions given in relation to those assets;(3) records the carrying out of those instructions;(4)
The FSA recognises that a UK RCH2 has legitimate interests of its own and that its general business policy may properly be influenced by other persons (such as its owners). Such a connection does not necessarily imply the existence of a conflict of interest nor is it necessary to exclude individuals closely connected with other persons (for example, those responsible for the stewardship of the owner's interests) from all decision-making processes in a UK recognised body. However,
The FSA may have regard to the arrangements a UK recognised body makes to structure itself and to allocate responsibility for decisions so that it can continue to take proper regulatory decisions notwithstanding any conflicts of interest, including:(1) the size and composition of the governing body and relevant committees; (2) the roles and responsibilities of key individuals, especially where they also have responsibilities in other organisations; (3) the arrangements for transferring
The FSA may also have regard to the systems and controls intended to ensure that confidential information is only used for proper purposes. Where relevant, recognised bodies will have to comply with section 348 (Restrictions on disclosure of confidential information by the FSA etc.) and regulations made under section 349 (Exemptions from section 348) of the Act.
The FSA may also have regard to the contracts of employment, staff rules, letters of appointment for members of the governing body, members of relevant committees and other key individuals and other guidance given to individuals on handling conflicts of interest. Guidance to individuals may need to cover:(1) the need for prompt disclosure of a conflict of interest to enable others, who are not affected by the conflict, to assist in deciding how it should be managed;(2) the circumstances
A UK recognised body's arrangements for internal and external audit will be an important part of its systems and controls. In assessing the adequacy of these arrangements, the FSA may have regard to: (1) the size, composition and terms of reference of any audit committee of the UK recognised body'sgoverning body;(2) the frequency and scope of external audit; (3) the provision and scope of internal audit; (4) the staffing and resources of the UK recognised body's internal audit
Information technology is likely to be a major component of the systems and controls used by any UK recognised body. In assessing the adequacy of the information technology used by a UK recognised body to perform or support its relevant functions, the FSA may have regard to:(1) the organisation, management and resources of the information technology department within the UK recognised body;(2) the arrangements for controlling and documenting the design, development, implementation
A senior
staff committee will consist of such FSA staff members as the FSA's senior executive committee may from time to time determine. The FSA's senior
executive committee may authorise the chairman of a senior
staff committee to select its other members. A senior staff committee is accountable for
its decisions to the FSA's senior executive committee and, through it, to the FSA Board.
A senior
staff committee may operate through standing or specific sub-committees
to consider particular decisions or classes of decision, for which accountability
will lie through the committee. Each meeting of a senior
staff committee, or sub-committee, will include:(1) an individual with authority to
act as its chairman; and(2) at least two other members.
Statutory
notice decisions to be taken under executive
procedures, and not falling within the responsibility of a senior
staff committee, will be taken by an individual FSA staff member. The decision will be:(1) made by an executive director of
the FSA Board
or his delegate (who will be of at least the level of associate);(2) on the recommendation of an FSA staff
member of at least the level of associate; and(3) with the benefit of legal advice
from an FSA staff
member of at least
An FSA staff member who considers that a statutory
notice decision should be taken above his own
level is free to refer that decision to a more senior level. If an FSA staff
member consults another staff member about a decision, the decision remains
the independent decision of the FSA staff member who consults his colleague, unless it is agreed
that the decision should instead be taken by the colleague, and the colleague
has the delegated authority to do so.
If an individual responsible for
a decision under executive procedures (or
a more senior FSA staff
member with responsibilities in relation to the decision concerned) considers
that it warrants collective consideration, the individual may:(1) take the decision himself, following
consultation with other FSA staff members, as above; or(2) refer it to a senior
staff committee, which will take the decision itself.
(1) FSAstaff
are required by their contract of employment to comply with a code of conduct
which imposes strict rules to cover the handling of conflicts of interest
which may arise from personal interests or associations. FSA staff subject to a conflict of interest must declare that interest
to the person to whom they are
immediately responsible for a decision.(2) If a member of a senior
staff committee has a potential conflict of interest in any
matter in which he is asked to
The procedure for taking decisions
under executive procedures will
generally be less formal and structured than that for decisions by the RDC. Broadly, however, FSA staff responsible for taking statutory
notice decisions under executive
procedures will follow a procedure similar to that described
at DEPP 3.2.7 G to DEPP 3.2.27 G for
the RDC except that:(1) in a case where the decision will
be taken by a senior staff committee: (a) the chairman or deputy chairman
of the senior
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 1
2(1) The [UK RIE] must have financial resources sufficient for the proper performance of its [ relevant functions] as a [UK RIE]. |
(2) In considering whether this requirement is satisfied, the [FSA]must (without prejudice to the generality of regulation 6(1)) take into account all the circumstances, including the [UK RIE's] connection with any person , and any activity carried on by the [UK RIE], whether or not it is anexempt activity. |
In determining whether a UK recognised body has financial resources sufficient for the proper performance of its relevant functions, the FSA may have regard to:(1) the operational and other risks to which the UK recognised body is exposed;(2) if the UK recognised body acts as a central counterparty or otherwise guarantees the performance of transactions in specified investments, the counterparty and market risks to which it is exposed in that capacity; (3) the amount and composition
In assessing whether a UK recognised body has sufficient financial resources in relation to counterparty and market risks, the FSA may have regard to:(1) the amount and liquidity of its financial assets and the likely availability of liquid financial resources to the UK recognised body during periods of major market turbulence or other periods of major stress for the financial system; and(2) the nature and scale of the UK recognised body's exposures to counterparty and market
In assessing whether a UK recognised body has sufficient financial resources in relation to operational and other risks, the FSA may have regard to the extent to which, after allowing for the financial resources necessary to cover counterparty and market risks, the UK recognised body's financial resources are sufficient and sufficiently liquid:(1) to enable the UK recognised body to continue carrying on properly the regulated activities that it expects to carry on; and(2) to ensure
The FSA considers that a UK recognised body which (after allowing for the financial resources necessary to cover counterparty and market risks) has at any time:(1) liquid financial assets amounting to at least six months' operating costs; and (2) net capital of at least this amount; will, at that time, have sufficient financial resources to meet the recognition requirement unless there are special circumstances indicating otherwise.
The FSA recognises that UK recognised bodies may wish to satisfy the recognition requirements in different ways. The FSA does not prescribe any particular approach to calculating financial resources or to assessing their adequacy. It is willing to discuss with each UK recognised body the most appropriate way for it to meet the recognition requirement and each UK recognised body will need to be able to show the FSA that its financial resources are at all times sufficient to meet
To enable the FSA to be satisfied that the issuer and the proposed owner will comply with requirements imposed on the issuer or owner, as the case may be, by or under the RCB Regulations, the applicant should use the application form to provide relevant details of the proposed covered bond or programme and demonstrate how each of the requirements will be complied with.
(1) The FSA's application form covers both issuer registration and covered bond registration as the FSA will not normally consider applications for issuer registration in isolation from the application for registration of the covered bond.(2) An issuer which has been admitted to the register of issuers should use the same form to apply for registration of subsequent covered bonds or programmes.(3) The issuer does not need to apply for registration of individual issuances from
In relation to registration of an issuer of regulated covered bonds, the FSA will need to be satisfied that the issuer's compliance with the requirements of the regulatory system has been adequate and does not give rise to any material cause for concern over the issuer's ability to issue regulated covered bonds in compliance with the RCB Regulations.
The FSA will:(1) expect the issuer to demonstrate that it has in place appropriate systems, controls, procedures and policies, including in relation to risk management, underwriting, arrears and valuation; (2) expect the issuer to demonstrate that the cash-flows generated by the assets would be sufficient to meet the payments due in a timely manner including under conditions of economic stress and in the event of the failure of the issuer;(3) take account of any over collateralisation
The risk factors which the FSA will take into account in assessing the issuer's and owner's compliance with Regulations 17(2)(d) (general requirements on issuer in relation to the asset pool) and 23(2) (requirements on owner relating to the asset pool) will include credit risk of the assets, concentration risk, market risk and counterparty risk.
(1) The credit risk of an asset is the risk of loss if another party fails to perform its obligations or fails to perform them in a timely fashion.(2) Where, for example, the asset pool includes residential mortgages the relevant factors which the FSA may consider include: (a) whether the asset pool contains (or could contain) loans made to individuals who have been made bankrupt or have had court judgments made against them;(b) the extent to which the asset pool contains (or
Concentration risk is the risk of loss from exposures being limited in number or variety. The relevant factors the FSA may consider include:(1) the level of granularity of the asset pool (i.e. what is the number and size distribution of assets in the pool); (2) whether the borrowers or collateral is unduly concentrated in a particular industry, sector, or geographical region.
Market risk is the risk that arises from fluctuations in the values of, or income from, assets or in interest or exchange rates. The relevant factors the FSA may consider include whether the hedging agreements (defined in Regulation 1(2) of the RCB Regulations as agreements entered into or assets held as protection against possible financial loss) adequately protect against any adverse mismatched cash-flows due to changes in market variables.
Counterparty risk is the risk that the counterparty to a transaction could default before the final settlement of the transactions cash flows. The relevant factors the FSA may consider include whether the:(1) counterparty has an appropriate credit rating;(2) counterparty can unilaterally terminate the hedging agreement, and if so under what circumstances;(3) contractual arrangements contain appropriate termination procedures (for example, what provisions apply in the event of
(1) The FSA will assess each risk factor separately and then assess any inter-dependencies and correlations to form a judgment on the quality of the asset pool as a whole. For example, an asset pool which is of high credit quality and so low risk due to a combination of factors such as owner occupation, low income multiples, full valuation methodologies, and a strong payments track record, may permit another factor such as high loan-to-value ratios, that would otherwise be considered
The FSA expects the issuer to demonstrate that there are provisions in the covered bond or programme that adequately deal with:(1) the identification and rectification of any breach of Regulations 17(2) (general requirements on issuer in relation to the asset pool) and 24 (requirements on owner relating to the asset pool) of the RCB Regulations;(2) the appointment of replacements for parties, for example servicers, cash managers or paying agents; and(3) the orderly winding-up
The FSA expects the issuer to demonstrate, as part of showing that Regulations 17 (general requirements on issuer in relation to the asset pool) and 24 (requirements on owner relating to the asset pool) of the RCB Regulations will be complied with, that there are provisions in the covered bond or programme which enable the views and interests of investors in the regulated covered bond to be taken account of in an appropriate and timely way by a suitably qualified, adequately resourced,
(1) The FSA expects legal advice to deal adequately with at least the following matters in relation to the actual or proposed arrangements:(a) whether the transfer of the assets to the owner would be upheld in the event of liquidation or administration, or similar collective insolvency proceedings, of the issuer or the transferor (if different from the issuer);(b) the risk of the transfer of an asset to the owner being re-characterised as the creation of a security interest;(c)
(1) The FSA expects the report from the accountants to address at least the following matters:(a) that the level of over collateralisation meets the limits set out in the covered bond arrangements which are designed to ensure compliance with the requirement that the asset pool is capable of covering claims attaching to the bond in Regulation 17 (requirements on issuer in relation to the asset pool) of the RCB Regulations; and(b) that appropriate due diligence procedures have been
The FSA considers the effect of each of the conditions in PERG 8.14.3G (1) to PERG 8.14.3G (3) to be as follows.(1) The first condition requires the financial promotion to be made, so ruling out any financial promotions which are directed at persons. The effect of article 6(b) and (e) of the Financial Promotion Order is that a communication is made to a person when it is addressed to him and that person to whom the financial promotion is addressed is its recipient. This means
In the FSA's opinion, the indicators referred to in PERG 8.14.4 G suggest that there are two essential elements of a one-off financial promotion. These are that it is tailored to the circumstances of the recipient and that it is individual in nature (in that it is not simply a personalised letter sent out as part of a general mailshot). Apart from this there is no need for the communication to be an isolated instance. For example, the fact that there may be a considerable number
In the FSA's view, a group of recipients who may be engaging in investment activity jointly could include:(1) a married couple;(2) two or more persons who will invest jointly in a product (for example, a cohabiting couple who are not married or members of a family);(3) the directors of a company or partners in a firm;(4) members of a group of companies;(5) the participants in a joint commercial enterprise;(6) the members of an investment club; and(7) the managers or prospective
A financial promotion may fail to satisfy all of the indicators referred to in PERG 8.14.4 G because it is addressed to more than one recipient and they are not persons who will engage in investment activity jointly. In the FSA's view, such a financial promotion is capable of being one-off where the persons are to enter into the same transaction and the promotion is tailored to their individual circumstances. This may typically happen during negotiations for the sale of a company
In the FSA's view, a person such as an investment manager or adviser is not conducting an organised marketing campaign purely because he regularly provides a particular client with financial promotions as part of his service. Neither is such a person conducting an organised marketing campaign purely because he may have several clients whose personal circumstances and objectives may suggest that a particular investment opportunity may attract them. If he considers the individual
In the FSA's view, a person will not be making one-off financial promotions simply by sending out a series of letters to a number of customers or potential customers where a few details are changed (such as the name and address) but the bulk of the letter is standard. Such letters would be likely to be part of an organised marketing campaign.
In the FSA's view, the article 28A exemption should provide scope for persons such as professional advisers to make unsolicited real time financial promotions in various situations. For example, when approaching persons with whom their clients are proposing to do business or those persons’ professional advisers. The exemption will not apply where the financial promotions are part of an organised marketing campaign (see PERG 8.14.4G (3)). So, in cases where a professional adviser
Whether or not it would be reasonable to believe that any person understands the risks associated with the investment activity covered in a financial promotion or would expect to be contacted about it must be judged on the particular circumstances. In the FSA's opinion, the exemption requires that the recipient has the required understanding of risk at the time the promotion is made to him. However, it would be reasonable to believe that a person understands the risk involved
In order to make an unsolicited real time financial promotion, an overseas communicator must rely on either article 32 or article 33. Article 32 provides an exemption for unsolicited real time financial promotions made by an overseas communicator to persons who were previously overseas and were a customer of his then. This is subject to certain conditions, including that, in broad terms, the customer would reasonably expect to be contacted about the subject matter of the financial
This exemption allows a person in another EEA State who lawfully carries on a controlled activity in that State to promote into the United Kingdom. The terms of the exemption are that the promotion must comply with the rules in COB 3 or MCOB 3 (as relevant). Care should be taken as any failure to satisfy any of the relevant requirements of these rules may mean that this exemption is not satisfied and that the financial promotion may breach section 21 if it has not been approved
In the FSA's opinion;(1) it will not matter that a person enters into arrangements for investment or other purposes provided that he also enters them into for commercial purposes; and(2) each participant must be carrying on the business in question in their own right.This means that the sponsors or promoters of a company who arrange for private investors to become shareholders will not be setting up a joint enterprise simply because the company may intend to carry on a relevant
A person seeking to make a financial promotion to another person may wish to make enquiries of that person to establish whether he is certified. Unless another exemption applies or the financial promotion is approved by an authorised person, such enquiries will not be possible if the enquiry communication is an inducement or invitation to engage in investment activity. In the FSA's view, a communication which is merely an enquiry seeking to establish that a person holds a current
Article 49(4) gives the list of conditions which, if all are met, is proof that the financial promotion is directed at relevant persons. It is not necessary for all or any of the conditions to be met for a financial promotion to be regarded as directed at relevant persons. Ultimately the matter will be one of fact to be determined by taking account of the circumstances in which the financial promotion is made. In the FSA's opinion, it is not necessary for a financial promotion,
To be a sophisticated investor for the purposes of article 50, the recipient of a financial promotion must have a current certificate from an authorised person stating that he has enough knowledge to be able to understand the risks associated with the description of investment to which the financial promotion relates. Where the financial promotion is an outgoing electronic commerce communication3, the certificate may be signed by a person who is entitled, under the law of an EEA
The exemption also requires that certain warnings are given to the potential investor. In this respect, article 50(3)(d) provides that the financial promotion must state that there is a significant risk of losing all monies invested or of incurring additional liability. In the FSA's view, these are alternative statements and whichever is the relevant statement should be included. If there is no risk of incurring additional liability the statement may simply say that there is a
In the FSA's view, a main aim of the exemption (see PERG 8.14.35G (1)) is to remove from the scope of section 21 a financial promotion concerning the sale of a corporate business by a person who, either alone or with others, controls the business to another person who, either alone or with others, proposes to control the business.
In the FSA's opinion, provided that the purpose of the transaction is for the buyer to acquire the necessary control, it is irrelevant who is the seller. The exemption specifically applies to financial promotions which are communicated on behalf of the parties or potential parties to the transaction. The Treasury, in its consultative document “Financial Services and Markets Act two year review: Changes to secondary legislation Proposals for change, February 2004” proposed changes
Several exemptions, including article 43 of the Financial Promotion Order (Members and creditors of certain bodies corporate), apply only in relation to relevant investments being shares or debentures in the body corporate or a member of its group, or warrants or certificates representing certain securities relating to such shares or debentures. In the FSA's view, an exchangeable debt security which is partly a debenture and partly an option is a relevant investment for these
The exemptions for bearer instruments (articles 41 and 42 of the Financial Promotion Order) relate to financial promotions made to or directed at persons entitled to bearer instruments. For clarity, the FSA takes the view that persons who hold bearer instruments through a clearing system such as Euroclear or Clearstream are persons entitled to those instruments for the purposes of articles 41 and 42.
A firm should have regard to the urgency and significance of a matter and, if appropriate, should also notify its usual supervisory contact at the FSA by telephone or by other prompt means of communication, before submitting a written notification. Oral notifications should be given directly to the firm's usual supervisory contact An oral notification left with another person or left on a voicemail or other automatic messaging service is unlikely to have been given appropria
The FSA is entitled to rely on any information it receives from a firm and to consider any notification received as being made by a person authorised by the firm to do so. A firm should therefore consider whether it needs to put procedures in place to ensure that only appropriate employees make notifications to the FSA on its behalf.
Unless stated in the notification rule, or on the relevant form (if specified), a written notification required from a firm under any notification rule must be:2(1) given to or addressed for the attention of the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FSA; and(2) delivered to the FSA by one of the methods in :
If the firm or its group is subject to lead supervision arrangements by the FSA, the firm or group may give or address a notice under SUP 15.7.4 R(1) to the supervisory contact at the FSA, designated as lead supervisor, if the firm has chosen to make use of the lead supervisor as a central point of contact (see SUP 1.5).
If a firm is a member of a group which includes more than one firm, any one undertaking in the group may notify the FSA on behalf of all firms in the group to which the notification applies. In this way, that undertaking may satisfy the obligation of all relevant firms in the group to notify the FSA. Nevertheless, the obligation to make the notification remains the responsibility of the individual firm itself. See also SUP 15.7.3 G.
If a notification rule requires notification within a specified period:(1) the firm must give the notification so as to be received by the FSAno later than the end of that period; and (2) if the end of that period falls on a day which is not a business day, the notification must be given so as to be received by the FSA no later than the first business day after the end of that period.
The FSA has made arrangements with the Society of Lloyd's with respect to the monitoring of underwriting agents. Underwriting agents should check whether these arrangements provide for any notifications required under this chapter to be sent to the Society instead of to the FSA. [For further details see the FSA website.]
The disaster recovery provider sets up and maintains a range of IT and related facilities (PABX etc). The disaster recovery contracts so far considered by the FSA give the recipient, subject to certain conditions including an up front payment, priority access to all or a specified part of these facilities if a 'disaster' causes the failure of a similar business system on which the recipient relies. The provider sells access to the same facilities to a number of different recipients,
However, the disaster recovery contracts considered by the FSA had two key features.(1) Priority access to facilities in the event of a disaster was expressed to be on a 'first come, first served' basis. The contracts provided expressly that if the facilities needed by recipient A were already in use, following an earlier invocation by recipient B, the provider's obligation to recipient A was reduced to no more than an obligation of 'best endeavours' to meet A's requirements.
An important part of the conclusion in PERG 6.7.5 G was that, although the provider assumed a risk at the outset of the contract, looking at the contract as a whole and interpreting the common law in the context of the FSA's objectives (see PERG 6.5.2 G and PERG 6.5.3 G) there was no relevant assumption of risk.(1) The presence or absence of an assumption of risk is an important part of the statutory rationale for the prudential regulation of insurance.(2) In Medical Defence Union
The FSA is unlikely to classify a contract containing a simple manufacturer's or retailer's warranty as a contract of insurance, if the FSA is satisfied that the warranty does no more that crystallise or recognise obligations that are of the same nature as a seller's or supplier's usual obligations as regards the quality of the goods or services.
It follows from PERG 6.7.10 G that the FSA is unlikely to be satisfied that an obligation in a contract of sale or supply is of the same nature as the seller's or supplier's usual obligations as regards the quality of goods or services, if that obligation has one or more of the following features:(1) it is assumed by a person other than the seller or supplier (a 'third party'); or(2) it is significantly more extensive in content, scope or duration than a seller's usual obligations
Other things being equal, the FSA is likely to classify a contract of sale containing a warranty that has one or more of the features in PERG 6.7.11 G as a contract of insurance. The features in PERG 6.7.11 G (1) and (2) typically distinguish a 'third party' warranty and an 'extended warranty' from a 'simple' manufacturer's or retailer's warranty.
If a warranty is provided by a third party, the FSA will usually treat this as conclusive of the fact that there are different transactions and an assumption or transfer of risk. This conclusion would not usually depend on whether the provider is (or is not) a part of the same group of companies as the manufacturer or retailer. But it will be the third party (who assumes the risk) that is potentially effecting a contract of insurance.
A manufacturer or retailer may undertake a warranty obligation to his customer in a separate contract with the customer, distinct from the contract of sale or supply of goods or services. The FSA will examine the separate contract to see if it is a contract of insurance. But the mere existence of a separate warranty contract is unlikely to be conclusive by itself.
A manufacturer or retailer may undertake an obligation to ensure that the customer becomes a party to a separate contract of insurance in respect of the goods sold. This would include, for example, a contract for the sale of a freezer, with a simple warranty in relation to the quality of the freezer, but also providing insurance (underwritten by an insurer and in respect of which the customer is the policyholder) covering loss of frozen food if the freezer fails. The FSA is unlikely
The FSA distinguishes the contract in PERG 6.7.15 G from a contract under which the manufacturer or retailer assumes the obligation to provide the customer with an indemnity against loss or damage if the freezer fails, but takes out insurance to cover the cost of having to provide the indemnity to the customer. The obligation to indemnify is of a different nature from the seller's or supplier's usual obligations as regards the quality of goods or services and is an insurance obligation.
The following are examples of typical warranty schemes operated by motor dealers. Provided that, in each case, the FSA is satisfied that the obligations assumed by the dealer are not significantly more extensive in content, scope or duration that a dealer's usual obligations as to the quality of motor vehicles of that kind, the FSA would not usually classify the contracts embodying these transactions as contracts of insurance.(1) The dealer gives a verbal undertaking to the purchaser
Some providers argued that these schemes amount to nothing more than a 'manufacturer's warranty' of their own work, within the scope of PERG 6.7.7 G (Example 3: manufacturers' and retailers' warranties). However, HM Revenue and Customs is expected to make a significant number of random checks of self-assessment forms, irrespective of the quality of the work done by the provider. These random checks are also covered by the schemes. The FSA concluded, therefore, that these schemes
If, however, a contract of this kind were structured so that the recipient was charged at a commercial rate for any legal services in fact provided, the FSA's approach will be to treat the arrangement as non-insurance. This is principally because, by taking on obligations of this kind, the provider does not assume a relevant risk (see PERG 6.7.6 G). The position might be different if the solicitor carries the additional obligation to pay for alternative legal services to be provided
Section 395 of the Act (The FSA's procedures)
requires the FSA to
publish a statement of its procedure for the giving of statutory
notices. The procedure must be designed to secure, among other
things, that the decision which gives rise to the obligation to give a statutory notice is taken by a person not
directly involved in establishing the evidence on which that decision is based. The
types of statutory notices and
related notices, and the principal references to them in the
Table: Summary of statutory and related notices
Notice |
Description |
Act reference |
Further information |
Gives the recipient details about action that the FSA proposes to take and about the right to make representations. |
Section 387 |
||
Gives the recipient details about action that the FSA has decided to take. The FSA may also give a further decision notice if the recipient of the original decision notice consents. |
Section 388 |
||
Identifies proceedings set out in a warning notice or decision notice and which are not being taken or are being discontinued. |
Section 389 |
||
Sets out the terms of the action that the FSA is taking. |
Section 390 |
||
Gives the recipient details about action that the FSA has taken or proposes to take, for example to vary a Part IV permission. |
Section 395(13) |
Decisions on whether to give a statutory notice will be taken by a 'decision
maker'. The FSA's assessment
of who is the appropriate decision maker is subject to the requirements of
section 395 of the Act and will
depend upon the nature of the decision, including its complexity, importance
and urgency. References to the 'decision maker' in DEPP are
to:(1) the Regulatory
Decisions Committee (RDC);
or(2) FSA staff
under executive procedures;
or(3) FSA staff
under the settlement decision
The decision maker will also take
decisions associated with a statutory notice (a
'statutory notice associated decision'). Statutory notice associated decisions include
decisions:(1) to set or extend the period for
making representations;(2) on whether the FSA is required to give a copy of
the statutory notice to any
third party and, if so, the period for the third party to make representations;
and(3) on whether to refuse access to FSA material,
relevant to the relevant statutory
DEPP 2 to DEPP 5 set out:(1) which decisions require the giving
of statutory notices and who takes them (DEPP 2);(2) the nature and procedures of the RDC (DEPP 3);(3) the procedure for decision making
by FSA staff
under executive procedures (DEPP 4);(4) the procedure for decision making
by FSA staff
under the settlement decision procedure (DEPP 5).
A person in column (1) of the table in FEES 3.2.7 R as the relevant fee payer for a particular activity must pay to the FSA a fee for each application or request for vetting, or request for support relating to compatibility of its systems with FSA systems,7 or admission approval made, or notification or notice of exercise of a Treaty right given, or other matter 9as is applicable to it, as set out or calculated in accordance with the provisions referred to in column (2) of that
(1) (2) With the exception of persons seeking to become a designated professional body, all applications, notifications, requests for vetting or admission approval will be treated as incomplete until the relevant fee is fully paid and the FSA will not consider an application, notification, request for vetting or admission approval until the relevant fee is fully paid. Persons seeking to become a designated professional body have 30 days after the designation order is made to
Table of application, notification and vetting fees
(1) Fee payer |
(2) Fee payable |
Due date |
(a) Any applicant for Part IV permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission) |
(1) Unless (2) applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application. (2) In respect of a particular application which is: (i) a straightforward or moderately complex case for the purposes of FEES 3 Annex 1 part 1, and (ii) only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 1 |
On or before the application is made |
(b) Any Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right, except for a firm providing cross border services only4 |
(1) Where no certificate has been issued under paragraph 3(4) of Schedule 4 to the Act the fee payable is, in respect of a particular exercise, set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, part 4 (2) Where a certificate in (i) has been issued no fee is payable |
On or before the notice of exercise is given |
(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order |
2,000 |
On or before the application is made |
(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition of, a collective investment scheme |
FEES 3 Annex 2, part 1 |
On or before the application is made |
(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body. |
10,000 |
30 days after the order is granted |
(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body under section 287 or section 288 of the Act |
FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1 |
On or before the date the application is made |
(h) Any applicant for recognition as an overseas recognised body under section 287 or section 288 and section 292 of the Act |
FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2 |
On or before the date the application is made |
(i) An applicant for listing (under the listing rules) |
FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1 |
On or before the date the application is made |
(j) Applicant for approval as sponsor (under the listing rules) |
FEES 3 Annex 4, part 2 |
On or before the date the application is made |
(k) Issuers of tranches from debt issuance programmes and securitised derivative tranches |
FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1 |
An upfront fee is required per tranche for draw downs in the following 12 months |
(l) Under the listing rules, an issuer involved in specific events or transactions during the year where documentation is subject to a transaction vetting |
FEES 3 Annex 5, part 1, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (v) or super transaction under category 7(q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2 |
On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA |
(m) Under the prospectus rules, an issuer or person requesting approval or vetting of the documents arising in relation to specific events or transactions that it might be involved in during the year |
FEES 3 Annex 5, part 2, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (v) or super transaction under category 7(q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2 |
On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA |
(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges |
50,000 |
On or before the date the application is made |
(i) a firm applying to the FSA for permission to use one of the advanced prudential calculation approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6 R (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the FSA as EEA consolidated supervisor under the ) any firm making such an application ;5 or (ii) in the case of an application to 5a Home State regulator other than the FSA5for the use of the Internal Ratings Based approach and the Home State regulator requesting the FSA's assistance in accordance with the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 , any firm to which the FSA would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach.5 112555 |
(1) Unless5 (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6.5 (2) (a) Unless5 (b) applies a1firm submitting a second application for the permission or5guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application (b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission5 based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1 (c) No fee is payable where the Home State regulator has requested the assistance of the FSAas described in paragraph (o)(ii) of column 1 except in the cases specified in 5FEES 3 Annex 6.2 5251255555 |
Where the firm has made an application directly to the FSA, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the FSA notifies the firm that its EEA parent's Home State regulator has requested the FSA's assistance.2 2 |
(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part IV permission |
(1) Unless (2) or (3)11 applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1 not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in which apply to that application. (2) If the only change is that the1 A.12 activity group tariff applied to the firm's business before the variation and the A.13 activity group will apply after variation, no fee is payable (3) If the firm is in the A.1 fee-block at the date of the application and the variation involves adding any of the regulated activities of meeting of repayment claims or managing dormant account funds (including the investment of such funds), the fee is 50% of the fee in FEES 3 Annex 1 R that applies to that application11 (4) 11 In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250, unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part IV permission in which case no fee is payable.1 1111 |
On or before the date the application is made |
2(q) A super7transaction, being one where: (i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 1.5 billion and it is a new applicant for a primary listing under the listing rules, or involved in a reverse or hostile takeover or a significant restructuring; or (ii) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 5 billion and is involved in a class 1 transaction,7 a transaction requiring vetting of an equity prospectus or equivalent document or a transaction requiring vetting of a prospectus in relation to a Depositary Receipt.7 777 |
50,000 |
On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA.3 33 |
2(r) Providers of reporting or trade matching systems applying for recognition under MiFID as an Approved Reporting Mechanism. |
100,0006 6 |
Having received its application, within 30 days after the FSA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.6 56 |
5(s) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme, a transferor. Note - for the purpose of this paragraph an insurance business transfer scheme consists of a single transferor and a single transferee. Where however such a scheme is part of a single larger scheme, that larger scheme is treated as a single insurance business transfer scheme. If an insurance business transfer scheme includes more than one transferor in accordance with this paragraph, the transferors are liable to pay the fee under column (2) jointly. |
Either (1) or (2) as set out below: (1) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme involving long term insurance business, 18,500; or (2) in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme not involving long term insurance business, 10,000. |
On or before any application is made to the FSA for the appointment of a person as an independent expert. |
6(t) A firm, a third party acting on a firm's behalf, an operator of a regulated market or an operator of an MTF applying to the FSA to report transaction reports directly to the FSA other than through the FSA's Transaction Reporting System (see FEES 4.2.11 R and FEES 4 Annex 3 for the fees payable for firms using the FSA's Transaction Reporting System). |
100,000 |
Having received its application, within 30 days after the FSA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems. |
7(u) Any of the following: (i) an operator of an approved reporting mechanism; (ii) a firm; (iii) a third party acting on behalf of a firm; (iv) a market operator; or (v) an MTF operator; that satisfies the following conditions: (1) it provides transaction reports directly to the FSA; and (2) having made changes to its reporting systems, it asks the FSA to support the testing of the compatibility of its systems with the FSA's systems. |
As set out in FEES 3 Annex 7. |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice. |
(v) A significant transaction, being one where: (i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 500 million and is producing an equity prospectus, a prospectus in relation to a Depository Receipt or a document in relation to a class 1 transaction; or (ii) the issuer is producing a document for vetting in relation to a reverse takeover, a hostile takeover or a significant restructuring. A significant transaction does not include a super transaction. |
20,000 |
On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA. |
(w) A listed issuer that requests or whose representative requests the FSA to amend the Official List, or any records held by the FSA in relation to the Official List, otherwise than pursuant to an application for listing. |
FEES 3 Annex 4 part 3 |
On or before the date the request is made. |
(x) (1) is a fee payer under one or more of the categories set out in (ii); and (2) requests the FSA's approval or vetting of a document that includes a mineral expert's report. (ii) The categories are (1), (m) (q), and (v) of this table. (iii) A fee under this category is payable in addition to any fee payable under the categories set out in (ii). |
5,000 |
On or before the date the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA.8 |
8(y) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised payment institution under regulation 5 of the Payment Services Regulations |
The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8 which apply to that application. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in |
On or before the date the application is made. |
(z) An application by a small payment institution for authorisation as an authorised payment institution because regulation 15 of the Payment Services Regulations applies |
The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application. |
On or before the date the application is made. |
(za) An applicant for registration as a small payment institution under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations |
FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (1). Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R. |
On or before the date the application is made. |
(zb) An authorised payment institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Payment Services Regulations. |
(1) If the payment services carried on by the authorised payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) or (h) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application. (2) Where the authorised payment institution:(i) already has authorisation to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other services in (a) to (g); or (ii) has authorisation to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its authorisation to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g)); the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has. (3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable. |
On or before the date the application is made. |
(zc) A small payment institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations |
(1) If the payment services carried on by the small payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8Rwhich apply to that application. (2) Where the small payment institution: (i) is already registered to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other of the services in (a) to (g); or (ii) is registered to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its registration to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g));the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has. (2) (3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable. |
On or before the date the application is made. |
A financial institution notifying the FSA in accordance with regulation 121(2)(a) of the Payment Services Regulations. |
50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3Annex 8R, paragraphs (2) to (5) which apply to that application. |
On or before the date the application is made. |
(ze) Any firm in any one or more of the A fee-blocks defined in FEES 4 Annex 1 Part 1, except fee-block A.16. |
Special Project Fee for restructuring in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 9 . |
|
(zf) An applicant for a ceding insurer's waiver. |
20,000 |
On or before the date the application is made.9 |