Related provisions for INSPRU 1.5.4

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DTR 5.1.1RRP
1In this chapter:(1) references to an2 "issuer", in relation to shares admitted to trading on a regulated market, are to an issuer whose Home State is the United Kingdom;2(2) references to a "non-UKissuer" are to an issuer whose shares are admitted to trading on a regulated market and whose Home State is the United Kingdom other than:(a) a public company within the meaning of section 1(3)of the Companies Act 19854; and4344334(b) a company which is otherwise incorporated in, and
DTR 5.1.3RRP
Voting rights attaching to the following shares are to be disregarded for the purposes of determining whether a person has a notification obligation in accordance with the thresholds in DTR 5.1.2 R:(1) shares acquired for the sole purpose of clearing and settlement within a settlement cycle not exceeding the period beginning with the transaction and ending at the close of the third trading day following the day of the execution of the transaction (irrespective of whether the transaction
DTR 5.1.5RRP
(1) The following are to be disregarded for the purposes of determining whether a person has a notification obligation in accordance with the thresholds in DTR 5.1.2 R except at the thresholds of 5% and 10% and above:(a) voting rights attaching to shares forming part of property belonging to another which that person lawfully manages under an agreement in, or evidenced in, writing;(b) voting rights attaching to shares which may be exercisable by a person in his capacity as the
SUP 16.1.4GRP
(1) This chapter contains requirements to report to the FSA on a regular basis. These requirements include reports relating to a firm's financial condition, and to its compliance with other rules and requirements which apply to the firm. Where the relevant requirements are set out in another section of the Handbook, this chapter contains cross references. An example of this is financial reporting for insurers and friendly societies.(2) Where such requirements already apply to
FEES 3.2.7RRP

Table of application, notification and vetting fees

(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable

Due date

(a) Any applicant for Part IV permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission)

(1) Unless (2) applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application.

(2) In respect of a particular application which is:

(i) a straightforward or moderately complex case for the purposes of FEES 3 Annex 1 part 1, and

(ii) only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6,

the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11

1

On or before the application is made

(b) Any Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right, except for a firm providing cross border services only4

(1) Where no certificate has been issued under paragraph 3(4) of Schedule 4 to the Act the fee payable is, in respect of a particular exercise, set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, part 4

(2) Where a certificate in (i) has been issued no fee is payable

On or before the notice of exercise is given

(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order

2,000

On or before the application is made

(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition of, a collective investment scheme

FEES 3 Annex 2, part 1

On or before the application is made

(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body.

10,000

30 days after the order is granted

(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body under section 287 or section 288 of the Act

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(h) Any applicant for recognition as an overseas recognised body under section 287 or section 288 and section 292 of the Act

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(i) An applicant for listing (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(j) Applicant for approval as sponsor (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(k) Issuers of tranches from debt issuance programmes and securitised derivative tranches

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

An upfront fee is required per tranche for draw downs in the following 12 months

(l) Under the listing rules, an issuer involved in specific events or transactions during the year where documentation is subject to a transaction vetting

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 1, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (v) or super transaction under category 7(q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA

(m) Under the prospectus rules, an issuer or person requesting approval or vetting of the documents arising in relation to specific events or transactions that it might be involved in during the year

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 2, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (v) or super transaction under category 7(q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA

(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges

50,000

On or before the date the application is made

2(o) Either:5

(i) a firm applying to the FSA for permission to use one of the advanced prudential calculation approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6 R (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the FSA as EEA consolidated supervisor under the ) any firm making such an application ;5 or

(ii) in the case of an application to 5a Home State regulator other than the FSA5for the use of the Internal Ratings Based approach and the Home State regulator requesting the FSA's assistance in accordance with the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 , any firm to which the FSA would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach.5

112555

(1) Unless5 (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6.5

(2) (a) Unless5 (b) applies a1firm submitting a second application for the permission or5guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application

(b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission5 based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1

(c) No fee is payable where the Home State regulator has requested the assistance of the FSAas described in paragraph (o)(ii) of column 1 except in the cases specified in 5FEES 3 Annex 6.2

5251255555

Where the firm has made an application directly to the FSA, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the FSA notifies the firm that its EEA parent's Home State regulator has requested the FSA's assistance.2

2

(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part IV permission

(1) Unless (2) applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1 not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in which apply to that application.

(2) If the only change is that the1 A.12 activity group tariff applied to the firm's business before the variation and the A.13 activity group will apply after variation, no fee is payable(3) In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250, unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part IV permission in which case no fee is payable.1

11

On or before the date the application is made

2(q) A super7transaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 1.5 billion and it is a new applicant for a primary listing under the listing rules, or involved in a reverse or hostile takeover or a significant restructuring; or

(ii) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 5 billion and is involved in a class 1 transaction,7 a transaction requiring vetting of an equity prospectus or equivalent document or a transaction requiring vetting of a prospectus in relation to a Depositary Receipt.7

777

50,000

On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA.3

33

2(r) Providers of reporting or trade matching systems applying for recognition under MiFID as an Approved Reporting Mechanism.

100,0006

6

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FSA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.6

56

5(s) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme, a transferor.

Note - for the purpose of this paragraph an insurance business transfer scheme consists of a single transferor and a single transferee. Where however such a scheme is part of a single larger scheme, that larger scheme is treated as a single insurance business transfer scheme. If an insurance business transfer scheme includes more than one transferor in accordance with this paragraph, the transferors are liable to pay the fee under column (2) jointly.

Either (1) or (2) as set out below:

(1) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme involving long term insurance business, 18,500; or

(2) in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme not involving long term insurance business, 10,000.

On or before any application is made to the FSA for the appointment of a person as an independent expert.

6(t) A firm, a third party acting on a firm's behalf, an operator of a regulated market or an operator of an MTF applying to the FSA to report transaction reports directly to the FSA other than through the FSA's Transaction Reporting System (see FEES 4.2.11 R and FEES 4 Annex 3 for the fees payable for firms using the FSA's Transaction Reporting System).

100,000

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FSA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.

7(u) Any of the following:

(i) an operator of an approved reporting mechanism;

(ii) a firm;

(iii) a third party acting on behalf of a firm;

(iv) a market operator; or

(v) an MTF operator;

that satisfies the following conditions:

(1) it provides transaction reports directly to the FSA; and

(2) having made changes to its reporting systems, it asks the FSA to support the testing of the compatibility of its systems with the FSA's systems.

As set out in FEES 3 Annex 7.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

(v) A significant transaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 500 million and is producing an equity prospectus, a prospectus in relation to a Depository Receipt or a document in relation to a class 1 transaction; or

(ii) the issuer is producing a document for vetting in relation to a reverse takeover, a hostile takeover or a significant restructuring.

A significant transaction does not include a super transaction.

20,000

On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA.

(w) A listed issuer that requests or whose representative requests the FSA to amend the Official List, or any records held by the FSA in relation to the Official List, otherwise than pursuant to an application for listing.

FEES 3 Annex 4 part 3

On or before the date the request is made.

(x)

(i) An issuer or person who:

(1) is a fee payer under one or more of the categories set out in (ii); and

(2) requests the FSA's approval or vetting of a document that includes a mineral expert's report.

(ii) The categories are (1), (m) (q), and (v) of this table.

(iii) A fee under this category is payable in addition to any fee payable under the categories set out in (ii).

5,000

On or before the date the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA.8

8(y) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised payment institution under regulation 5 of the Payment Services Regulations

The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8 which apply to that application.

Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in

FEES 3 Annex 8R

On or before the date the application is made.

(z) An application by a small payment institution for authorisation as an authorised payment institution because regulation 15 of the Payment Services Regulations applies

The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.

On or before the date the application is made.

(za) An applicant for registration as a small payment institution under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations

FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (1). Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zb) An authorised payment institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Payment Services Regulations.

(1) If the payment services carried on by the authorised payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) or (h) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.

(2) Where the

authorised payment institution:(i) already has authorisation to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other services in (a) to (g); or

(ii) has authorisation to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its authorisation to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g));

the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has.

(3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zc) A small payment institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations

(1) If the payment services carried on by the small payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8Rwhich apply to that application.

(2) Where the small payment institution:

(i) is already registered to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other of the services in (a) to (g); or

(ii) is registered to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its registration to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g));the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has.

(2)

(3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.

On or before the date the application is made.

A financial institution notifying the FSA in accordance with regulation 121(2)(a) of the Payment Services Regulations.

50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3Annex 8R, paragraphs (2) to (5) which apply to that application.

On or before the date the application is made.

COLL 6.3.1RRP
This section applies to an authorised fund manager, a depositary, an ICVC and any other director of an ICVC.
PERG 5.15.2GRP
Flow chart: regulated activities related to insurance mediation activities – do you need authorisation?
PERG 5.15.7GRP
The flow chart in PERG 5.15.8 G sets out the questions a person needs to consider in determining whether or not his regulated activities are carried on 'in the United Kingdom'.
PERG 5.15.8GRP
Flow chart: am I carrying on regulated activities in the United Kingdom?
FIT 2.1.1GRP
In determining a person's honesty, integrity and reputation, the FSA will have regard to all relevant 3matters including, but not limited to, those set out in FIT 2.1.3 G which may have arisen either in the United Kingdom or elsewhere. The FSA should be informed of these matters (see SUP 10.13.16 R ), but will consider the circumstances only where relevant to the requirements and standards of the regulatory system. For example, under FIT 2.1.3 G(1), conviction for a criminal
FIT 2.1.3GRP
The matters referred to in FIT 2.1.1 G to which the FSA will have regard include, include, but are not limited to:(1) whether the person has been convicted of any criminal offence; this must include, where provided for by the Exceptions Orderto2 the Rehabilitation of Offenders Act 1974, any spent convictions2; particular consideration will be given to offences of dishonesty, fraud, financial crime or an offence whether or not in the United Kingdom or other offences under legislation
PERG 2.6.9GRP
Shares are defined in the Regulated Activities Order as shares or stock in a wide range of entities; that is, any body corporate wherever incorporated and unincorporated bodies formed under the law of a country other than the United Kingdom. They include deferred shares issued by building societies as well as transferable shares in industrial and provident societies, credit unions and equivalent EEA bodies. These shares are transferable and negotiable in a way similar to other
PERG 2.6.27AGRP
3In accordance with article 63B(3)(a) of the Regulated Activities Order, a home reversion plan is an arrangement under which, at the time it is entered into:(1) a person (the "reversion purchaser") buys all or part of a qualifying interest in land (other than timeshare accommodation) in the United Kingdom from an individual or trustees (the "reversion occupier");(2) the reversion occupier (or, where trustees are concerned, an individual who is a beneficiary of the trust), or a
PERG 2.6.27BGRP
3In accordance with article 63F(3)(a) of the Regulated Activities Order, a home purchase plan is an arrangement under which, at the time it is entered into:(1) a person (the "home purchase provider") buys a qualifying interest in land or an undivided share of a qualifying interest in land (other than timeshare accommodation) in the United Kingdom;(2) where an undivided share of a qualifying interest is bought, the interest is held on trust for the home purchase provider and the
SUP 18.2.25GRP
(1) If the transferee is (or will be) an EEA firm (authorised in its Home State to carry on insurance business under the Insurance Directives) or a Swiss general insurance company, then the FSA has to consult the transferee's Home State regulator, who has 3 months to respond. It will be necessary for the FSA to obtain from the transferee's Home State regulator a certificate confirming that the transferee will meet the Home State's solvency margin requirements (if any) after the
SUP 18.2.28GRP
If the transferor is an UK insurer and the business to be transferred includes business carried on from a branch in another EEA State, then the FSA has to consult the Host State regulator, who has 3 months to respond. The FSA will need to be given the information that the Host State regulator requires from it. This information should identify the parties to the transfer and include the transfer agreement or draft transfer agreement or a summary containing relevant information,
SUP 18.2.29GRP
If the transferor is anUK insurer and the business to be transferred includes a long-term insurance contract (other than reinsurance) for which the state of the commitment is an EEA state other than the United Kingdom, then the FSA has to consult the Host State regulator. If the transferor is anUK insurer and the business to be transferred includes a general insurance contract (other than reinsurance) for which the state of the risk is an EEA state other than the United Kingdom,
SUP 18.2.30GRP
Where the transferor is anUK-deposit insurer and, following the transfer, it will no longer be carrying on insurance business in the United Kingdom, the FSA will need to collaborate with regulatory bodies in the other EEA States in which it is carrying on business to ensure that effective supervision of the business carried on in the EEA continues. The transferor should cooperate with the FSA and the other regulatory bodies in this process and demonstrate that it will meet the
INSPRU 1.5.9GRP
Internal-contagion risk includes in particular the risk that arises where a firm carries on:(1) both insurance and non-insurance activities; or(2) two or more different types of insurance activity; or(3) insurance activities from offices or branches located in both the United Kingdom and overseas.
INSPRU 1.5.12GRP
Finally, the section sets out requirements to protect policyholders of branches of non-EEA firms where these are supervised by the FSA. These apply only to a non-EEAfirm that has established a branch in the United Kingdom.
BIPRU 2.1.8RRP
(1) A firm that has a solo consolidation waiver must meet the obligations in SYSC 12.1.13 R (Application of certain systems and controls rules on a consolidated basis) on a consolidated basis with respect to the firm and each subsidiary undertaking to which the firm'ssolo consolidation waiver applies.(2) If (1) applies, SYSC 12.1.13 R applies to the group made up of the firm and its subsidiary undertakings referred to in (1) in the same way as it applies to a UK consolidation
BIPRU 2.1.10RRP
A firm must treat itself and each subsidiary undertaking referred to in BIPRU 2.1.7 R as a single undertaking and must apply, on that basis, BIPRU 8 (Group risk - consolidation) to the group made up of the firm and such subsidiary undertakings in the same way as BIPRU 8 applies to a UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group.
SUP 12.3.5RRP
1A UK MiFID investment firm must not appoint an EEA registered tied agent or allow such an agent to continue to act for it unless it accepts or has accepted responsibility in writing for the agent's activities in acting as its EEA registered tied agent.[Note: paragraph 1 of article 23(2) of MiFID]
SUP 12.3.6GRP
1The effect of section 39A(6)(b) of the Act is to prohibit a UK MiFID investment firm from appointing an FSA registered tied agent unless it has accepted responsibility in writing for the agent's activities in acting as a tied agent.
COLL 9.3.1DRP
(1) If the operator of a scheme gives notice to the FSA under section 270 of the Act (Schemes authorised in designated countries or territories) or makes an application under section 272 of the Act (Individually recognised overseas schemes), the notice or application must include the information in paragraph (4). (2) The documents must be in English or accompanied by a translation in English. (3) The documents must be certified by the operator to be true copies of the originals.
PERG 4.2.1GRP
In most cases, any person who carries on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom by way of business must either be an authorised person or an exempt person. Otherwise, the person commits a criminal offence and certain agreements may be unenforceable. PERG 2.2 (Introduction) contains further guidance on these consequences.2
PERG 4.2.3GRP
A person who is concerned to know whether his proposed activities may require authorisation will need to consider the following questions (these questions are a summary of the issues to be considered and have been reproduced, in slightly fuller form, in the flowchart in PERG 4.18):(1) will I be carrying on my activities by way of business (see PERG 4.3.3 G (The business test))?(2) if so, will my activities relate to regulated mortgage contracts (see PERG 4.4 (What is a regulated
SUP 12.4.11RRP
8If a UK MiFID investment firm appoints an FSA registered tied agent, SUP 12.4.2 R and SUP 12.4.2A R apply to that firm as though the FSA registered tied agent were an appointed representative.[Note: paragraphs 3 and 4 of article 23(3) of MiFID]
SUP 12.4.12GRP
(1) 8A tied agent that is an appointed representative may not start to act as a tied agent until it is included on the applicable register (section 39(1A) of the Act). If the tied agent is established in the UK, the register maintained by the FSA is the applicable register for these purposes. If the tied agent is established in another EEA State, it should consult section 39(1B) of the Act to determine the applicable register.(2) A UK MiFID investment firm that appoints an FSA
REC 4.2C.1GRP
1Section 301A(1) of chapter3 1A of Part XVIII of the Act places an obligation on a person who decides to acquire or increase control (see sections 301D and 301E of the Act) over a UK RIE3to notify the FSA, before making the acquisition3. Furthermore, those persons are required to obtain the FSA's approval before acquiring control 3or increasing the level of control held.33333
REC 4.2C.2GRP
The FSA will approve an acquisition or an increase in 3control if it is satisfied that the acquisition by the person seeking approval does not pose a threat to the sound and prudent management of any financial market operated by the UK RIE (see section 301F(4) of the Act). 3333
REC 2.9.1UKRP

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 4(2)(e)

2Without prejudice to the generality of sub-paragraph [4(1)], the [UK RIE] must ensure that-

satisfactory arrangements are made for recording transactions effected on the [UK RIE], and transactions (whether or not effected on the [UK RIE ]) which are cleared or to be cleared by means of itsfacilities;

REC 2.9.3GRP
In determining whether a UK recognised body has satisfactory arrangements for recording the transactions effected on, or cleared or to be cleared by means of, its facilities, the FSA may have regard to:(1) whether the UK recognised body has arrangements for creating, maintaining and safeguarding an audit trail of transactions for at least three years (five years in respect of transactions carried out by members who are not incorporated in the United Kingdom if the UK recognised
PRIN 4.1.2GRP
Under PRIN 3.3.1 R, the territorial application of a number of Principles to a UK MiFID investment firm is extended to the extent that another applicable rule which is relevant to an activity has a wider territorial scope. Under PRIN 3.1.1 R, the territorial application of a number of Principles to an EEAMiFID investment firm is narrowed to the extent that responsibility for the matter in question is reserved to the firm'sHome State regulator. These modifications are relevant
PRIN 4.1.4GRP
(1) Certain requirements under MiFID are disapplied for:(a) eligible counterparty business;(b) transactions concluded under the rules governing a multilateral trading facility between its members or participants or between the multilateral trading facility and its members or participants in relation to the use of the multilateral trading facility;(c) transactions concluded on a regulated market between its members or participants.(2) Under PRIN 3.1.6 R, these disapplications may