Related provisions for ICOBS 5.3.1

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COBS 10.2.1RRP
(1) When providing a service to which this chapter applies, a firm must ask the client to provide information regarding his knowledge and experience in the investment field relevant to the specific type of product or service offered or demanded so as to enable the firm to assess whether the service or product envisaged is appropriate for the client.(2) When assessing appropriateness, a firm:(a) must determine whether the client has the necessary experience and knowledge in order
COBS 10.2.2RRP
The information regarding a client's knowledge and experience in the investment field includes, to the extent appropriate to the nature of the client, the nature and extent of the service to be provided and the type of product or transaction envisaged, including their complexity and the risks involved, information on:(1) the types of service, transaction and designated investment with which the client is familiar;(2) the nature, volume, frequency of the client's transactions in
COBS 10.2.3RRP
A firm must not encourage a client not to provide information required for the purposes of its assessment of appropriateness. [Note: article 37(2) of the MiFID implementing Directive]
COBS 10.2.4RRP
A firm is entitled to rely on the information provided by a client unless it is aware that the information is manifestly out of date, inaccurate or incomplete. [Note: article 37(3) of the MiFID implementing Directive]
COBS 10.2.5GRP
When assessing appropriateness, a firm may use information it already has in its possession.
COBS 10.2.6GRP
Depending on the circumstances, a firm may be satisfied that the client's knowledge alone is sufficient for him to understand the risks involved in a product or service. Where reasonable, a firm may infer knowledge from experience.
COBS 10.2.7GRP
If, before assessing appropriateness, a firm seeks to increase the client's level of understanding of a service or product by providing information to him, relevant considerations are likely to include the nature and complexity of the information and the client's existing level of understanding.
COBS 10.2.8GRP
If a firm is satisfied that the client has the necessary experience and knowledge in order to understand the risks involved in relation to the product or service, there is no duty to communicate this to the client. If the firm does so, it must not do so in a way that amounts to making a personal recommendation unless it complies with the rules in COBS 9 on suitability.
ICOBS 5.3.2GRP
In taking reasonable care to ensure the suitability of advice on a payment protection contract or a pure protection contract a firm should:(1) establish the customer's demands and needs. It should do this using information readily available and accessible to the firm and by obtaining further relevant information from the customer, including details of existing insurance cover; it need not consider alternatives to policies nor customer needs that are not relevant to the type of
COBS 10.3.1RRP
(1) If a firm considers, on the basis of the information received to enable it to assess appropriateness, that the product or service is not appropriate to the client, the firm must warn the client.(2) This warning may be provided in a standardised format. [Note: article 19(5) of MiFID]
COBS 10.3.2RRP
(1) If the client elects not to provide the information to enable the firm to assess appropriateness, or if he provides insufficient information regarding his knowledge and experience, the firm must warn the client that such a decision will not allow the firm to determine whether the service or product envisaged is appropriate for him.(2) This warning may be provided in a standardised format. [Note: article 19(5) of MiFID]
COBS 10.3.3GRP
If a client asks a firm to go ahead with a transaction, despite being given a warning by the firm, it is for the firm to consider whether to do so having regard to the circumstances.
COBS 10.4.1RRP
(1) A firm is not required to ask its client to provide information or assess appropriateness if:(a) the service only consists of execution and/or the reception and transmission of client orders, with or without ancillary services, it relates to particular financial instruments and is provided at the initiative of the client;(b) the client has been clearly informed (whether the warning is given in a standardised format or not) that in the provision of this service the firm is
COBS 10.4.2RRP
If a client engages in a course of dealings involving a specific type of product or service through the services of a firm, the firm is not required to make a new assessment on the occasion of each separate transaction. A firm complies with the rules in this chapter provided that it makes the necessary appropriateness assessment before beginning that service. [Note: recital 59 to the MiFID implementing Directive]
COBS 10.4.3RRP
A client who has engaged in a course of dealings involving a specific type of product or service beginning before 1 November 2007 is presumed to have the necessary experience and knowledge in order to understand the risks involved in relation to that specific type of product or service. [Note: recital 59 of the MiFID implementing Directive]
COBS 10.5.1GRP
A service should be considered to be provided at the initiative of a client (see COBS 10.4.1 R (1)(a)1) unless the client demands it in response to a personalised communication from or on behalf of the firm to that particular client which contains an invitation or is intended to influence the client in respect of a specific financial instrument or specific transaction. [Note: recital 30 to MiFID]
COBS 10.5.2GRP
A service can be considered to be provided at the initiative of a client notwithstanding that the client demands it on the basis of any communication containing a promotion or offer of financial instruments made by any means that by its very nature is general and addressed to the public or a larger group or category of clients. [Note: recital 30 to MiFID]
COBS 10.6.1GRP
A firm need not assess appropriateness if it is receiving or transmitting an order in relation to which it has assessed suitability under COBS 9 (Suitability (including basic advice)).
COBS 10.6.2GRP
A firm may not need to assess appropriateness if it is able to rely on a recommendation made by an investment firm (see COBS 2.4.5 G (Reliance on other investment firms: MiFID and equivalent business).
COBS 10.7.1GRP
A1firm is required to keep orderly records of its business and internal organisation, including all services and transactions undertaken by it.1 The records may be expected to include the client information a firm obtains to assess appropriateness and should be adequate to indicate what the assessment was. 11
COBS 10.7.2RRP
The firm must retain its records relating to appropriateness for a minimum of five years.
SUP 12.6.1RRP
If at any time a firm has reasonable grounds to believe that the conditions in SUP 12.4.2 R, 2SUP 12.4.6 R or SUP 12.4.8A R2 (as applicable) are not satisfied, or are likely not to be satisfied, in relation to any of its appointed representatives, the firm must:2(1) take immediate steps to rectify the matter; or(2) terminate its contract with the appointed representative.
SUP 12.6.3GRP
Consideration should be given, among other things, to the impact on the appointed representative's financial position of any debts owed to, or by, the appointed representative. Indicators that an appointed representative is experiencing financial problems may include failure to adhere to repayment schedules for any debts, failure to meet any other financial commitments or requests for advances of commission.
SUP 12.6.4GRP
A firm should look into any concerns that may arise at any time about an appointed representative's financial standing and take the necessary action. The necessary action may include, for example, increased monitoring or, if appropriate, suspension or termination of the appointment.
COBS 9.4.3RRP
The obligation to provide a suitability report does not apply:(1) if the firm, acting as an investment manager for a retail client, makes a personal recommendation relating to a regulated collective investment scheme;(2) if the client is habitually resident outside the EEA and the client is not present in the United Kingdom at the time of acknowledging consent to the proposal form to which the personal recommendation relates;(3) to any personal recommendation by a friendly society
COBS 9.4.4RRP
A firm must provide the suitability report to the client:(1) in the case of a life policy, before the contract is concluded unless the necessary information is provided orally or immediate cover is necessary; or(2) in the case of a personal pension scheme or stakeholder pension scheme, where the rules on cancellation (COBS 15) require notification of the right to cancel, no later than the fourteenth day after the contract is concluded; or(3) in any other case, when or as soon
COBS 10.1.3RRP
This chapter applies to a firm which assesses appropriateness on behalf of another MiFID investment firm so that the other firm may rely on the assessment under COBS 2.4.4 R (Reliance on other investment firms: MiFID and equivalent business).
COND 2.5.4GRP
(1) When determining whether the firm will satisfy and continue to satisfy threshold condition 5, the FSA will have regard to all relevant matters, whether arising in the United Kingdom or elsewhere.(2) Relevant matters include, but are not limited to, whether a firm:(a) conducts, or will conduct, its business with integrity and in compliance with proper standards;(b) has, or will have, a competent and prudent management; and(c) can demonstrate that it conducts, or will conduct,
PERG 9.11.1GRP

Table There are some frequently asked questions about the application of the definition of an open-ended investment company in the following table. This table belongs to PERG 9.2.4 G (Introduction).

Question

Answer

1

Can a body corporate be both open-ended and closed-ended at the same time?

In the FSA's view, the answer to this question is 'no'. The fact that the investment condition is applied to BC (rather than to particular shares in, or securities of, BC) means that a body corporate is either an open-ended investment company as defined in section 236 of the Act or it is not. Where BC is an open-ended investment company, all of its securities would be treated as units of a collective investment scheme for the purpose of the Act. A body corporate formed in another jurisdiction may, however, be regarded as open-ended under the laws of that jurisdiction but not come within the definition of an open-ended investment company in section 236 (and vice versa).

2

Can an open-ended investment company become closed-ended (or a closed-ended body become open-ended)?

In the FSA's view, the answer to this question is 'yes'. A body corporate may change from open-ended to closed-ended (and vice versa) if, taking an overall view, circumstances change so that a hypothetical reasonable investor would consider that the investment condition is no longer met (or vice versa). This might happen where, for example, an open-ended investment company stops its policy of redeeming shares or securities at regular intervals (so removing the expectation that a reasonable investor would be able to realise his investment within a period appearing to him to be reasonable). See also PERG 9.7.5 G.

3

Does the liquidation of a body corporate affect the assessment of whether or not the body is an open-ended investment company?

The FSA considers that the possibility that a body corporate that would otherwise be regarded as closed-ended may be wound up has no effect at all on the nature of the body corporate before the winding up. The fact that, on a winding up, the shares or securities of any investor in the body corporate may be converted into cash or money on the winding up (and so 'realised') would not, in the FSA's view, affect the outcome of applying the expectation test to the body corporate when looked at as a whole. The answer to Question 4 explains that investment in a closed-ended fixed term company shortly before its winding up does not, in the FSA's view, change the closed-ended nature of the company. For companies with no fixed term, the theoretical possibility of a winding up at some uncertain future point is not, in the FSA's view, a matter that would generally carry weight with a reasonable investor in assessing whether he could expect to be able to realise his investment within a reasonable period.

4

Does a fixed term closed-ended investment company become an open-ended investment company simply because the fixed term will expire?

In the FSA's view, the answer to this is 'no'. The termination of the body corporate is an event that has always been contemplated (and it will appear in the company's constitution). Even as the date of the expiry of the fixed term approaches, there is nothing about the body corporate itself that changes so as to cause a fundamental reassessment of its nature as something other than closed-ended. Addressing this very point in parliamentary debate, the Economic Secretary to the Treasury stated that the "aim and effect [of the definition] is to cover companies that look, to a reasonable investor, like open-ended investment companies". The Minister added that "A reasonable investor's overall expectations of potential investment in a company when its status with respect to the definition is being judged will determine whether it meets the definition. The matter is therefore, definitional rather than one of proximity to liquidation". (Hansard HC, 5 June 2000 col 124).

5

In what circumstances will a body corporate that issues a mixture of redeemable and non-redeemable shares or securities be an open-ended investment company?

In the FSA's view, the existence of non-redeemable shares or securities will not, of itself, rule out the possibility of a body corporate falling within the definition of an open-ended investment company. All the relevant circumstances will need to be considered (see PERG 9.6.4 G, PERG 9.2.8.8G and PERG 9.8.9 G). So the following points need to be taken into account.

  • The precise terms of the issue of all the shares or securities will be relevant to the question whether the investment condition is met, as will any arrangements that may exist to allow the investor to realise his investment by other means.
  • The proportions of the different share classes will be relevant to the impression the reasonable investor forms of the body corporate. A body corporate that issues only a minimal amount of redeemable shares or securities will not, in theFSA's view, be an open-ended investment company. A body corporate that issues a minimal amount of non-redeemable shares or securities will be likely to be an open-ended investment company. A body corporate that falls within the definition of an open-ended investment company is likely to have (and to be marketed as having) mainly redeemable shares or securities. However, whether or not the body corporate does fall within the definition in any particular case will be subject to any contrary indications there may be in its constitutional documents or otherwise.
  • Where shares or securities are only redeemable after the end of a stated period, this factor will make it more likely that the body corporate is open-ended than if the shares or securities are never redeemable.

6

Does "realised on a basis calculated wholly or mainly by reference to..." in section 236(3)(b) apply to an investor buying investment trust company shares traded on a recognised investment exchange because of usual market practice that the shares trade at a discount to asset value?

In the FSA's view, the answer is 'no' (for the reasons set out in PERG 9.9.4 G to PERG 9.9.6 G).

7

Does the practice of UK investment trust companies buying back shares result in them becoming open-ended investment companies?

In the FSA's view, it does not, because its actions will comply with company law: see section 236(4) of the Act and PERG 9.6.5 G.

8

Would a body corporate holding out redemption or repurchase of its shares or securities every six months be an open-ended investment company?

In the FSA's view a period of six months would generally be too long to be a reasonable period for a liquid securities fund. A shorter period affording more scope for an investor to take advantage of any profits caused by fluctuations in the market would be more likely to be a reasonable period for the purpose of the realisation of the investment (in the context of the 'expectation' test, see PERG 9.8 and, in particular, PERG 9.8.9 G which sets out the kind of factors that may need to be considered in applying the test).

9

Would an initial period during which it is not possible to realise investment in a body corporate mean that the body corporate could not satisfy the investment condition?

In the FSA's view, the answer to that question is 'no'. In applying the investment condition, the body corporate must be considered as a whole (see PERG 9.6.3 G). At the time that the shares or securities in a body corporate are issued, a reasonable investor may expect that he will be able to realise his investment within a reasonable period notwithstanding that there will first be a short-term delay before he can do so. Whether or not the 'expectation test' is satisfied will depend on all the circumstances (see PERG 9.8.9 G).

REC 2.1.4GRP

Location of recognition requirements and guidance

Recognition Requirements Regulations

Subject

Section in REC 2

Regulation 6

Method of satisfying recognition requirements

2.2

Part I of the Schedule

UK RIE recognition requirements

Paragraph 1

Financial resources

2.3

Paragraph 2

Suitability

2.4

Paragraph 3

Systems and controls

2.5

Paragraphs 4(1) and 4(2)(aa)2

2

General safeguards for investors

2.6

Paragraph 4(2)(a)

Access to facilities

2.7

Paragraph 4(2)(b)

Proper markets

2.12

Paragraph 4(2)(c)

Availability of relevant information

2.12

Paragraph 4(2)(d)

Settlement

2.8

Paragraph 4(2)(e)

Transaction recording

2.9

2Paragraph 4(2)(ea)

Conflicts

2.5

Paragraph 4(2)(f)

Financial crime and market abuse

2.10

Paragraph 4(2)(g)

Custody

2.11

Paragraph 4(3)

Definition of relevant information

2.12

2Paragraph 4A

Provision of pre-trade information about share trading

2.6

2Paragraph 4B

Provision of post-trade information about share trading

2.6

Paragraph 6

Promotion and maintenance of standards

2.13

Paragraph 7

Rules and consultation

2.14

2Paragraph 7A

Admission of financial instruments to trading

2.12

2Paragraph 7B and 7C

Access to facilities

2.7

2Paragraph 7D

Settlement

2.8

2Paragraph 7E

Suspension and removal of financial instruments from trading

2.6

Paragraph 8

Discipline

2.15

Paragraph 9

Complaints

2.16

2Paragraph 9A

Operation of a multilateral trading facility

2.16A

Part II of the Schedule

UK RIE default rules in respect of market contracts

2.17

Part III of the Schedule

UK RCH recognition requirements

Paragraph 16

Financial resources

2.3

Paragraph 17

Suitability

2.4

Paragraph 18

Systems and controls

2.5

Paragraph 19(1)

General safeguards for investors

2.6

Paragraph 19(2)(a)

Access to facilities

2.7

Paragraph 19(2)(b)

Clearing services

2.8

Paragraph 19(2)(c)

Transactions recording

2.9

Paragraph 19(2)(d)

Financial crime and market abuse

2.10

Paragraph 19(2)(e)

Custody

2.11

Paragraph 20

Promotion and maintenance of standards

2.13

Paragraph 21

Rules

2.14

Paragraph 22

Discipline

2.15

Paragraph 23

Complaints

2.16

Part IV of the Schedule

UK RCH default rules in respect of market contracts

2.17

MCOB 2.3.5GRP
MCOB 2.3.2 R does not prevent a firm: (1) assisting a home finance intermediary2 so that the quality of the home finance intermediary's2 service to customers is enhanced; or 22(2) giving or receiving indirect benefits (such as gifts, hospitality and promotional competition prizes); providing in either case this is not likely to give rise to a conflict with the duties that the recipient owes to the customer. In particular, such benefits should not be of a kind or value that is
APER 4.7.14GRP
Where independent reviews of systems and procedures have been undertaken and result in recommendations for improvement, the approved person performing a significant influence function should ensure that, unless there are good reasons not to, any reasonable recommendations are implemented in a timely manner (APER 4.7.10 E). What is reasonable will depend on the nature of the inadequacy and the cost of the improvement. It will be reasonable for the approved person performing a significant
PERG 4.6.22GRP
Undertaking the process of scripted questioning gives rise to particular issues concerning advice. These mainly involve two aspects of this regulated activity. These are that advice must relate to a particular regulated mortgage contract (see PERG 4.6.5 G) and the distinction between information and advice (see PERG 4.6.13 G). Whether or not scripted questioning in any particular case is advising on regulated mortgage contracts will depend on all the circumstances. If the process
SYSC 3.2.14GRP
(1) SYSC 3.2.13 G includes assessing an individual's honesty, and competence. This assessment should normally be made at the point of recruitment. An individual's honesty need not normally be revisited unless something happens to make a fresh look appropriate.(2) Any assessment of an individual's suitability should take into account the level of responsibility that the individual will assume within the firm. The nature of this assessment will generally differ depending upon whether
APER 4.1.5ERP
Deliberately recommending an investment to a customer, or carrying out a discretionary transaction for a customer where the approved person knows that he is unable to justify its suitability for that customer, falls within APER 4.1.2 E.