Related provisions for SUP App 2.7.2
1 - 20 of 121 items.
Under section 148(4) of the Act, the FSA may not give a waiver unless it is satisfied that:(1) compliance by the firm with the rules, or with the rules as unmodified, would be unduly burdensome, or would not achieve the purpose for which the rules were made; and(2) the waiver would not result in undue risk to persons whose interests the rules are intended to protect.
The FSA will acknowledge an application promptly and if necessary will seek further information from the firm. The time taken to determine an application will depend on the issues it raises. However, the FSA will aim to give waiver decisions within 20 business days of receiving an application which includes sufficient information. If the FSA expects to take longer, it will tell the firm and give an estimated decision date. A firm should make it clear in the application if it needs
The FSA will treat a firm's application for a waiver as withdrawn if it does not hear from the firm within 20 business days of sending a communication which requests or requires a response from the firm. The FSA will not do this if the firm has made it clear to the FSA in some other way that it intends to pursue the application. 3
In some cases, the FSA may give a modification of a rule rather than direct that the rule is not to apply. The FSA may also impose conditions on a waiver, for example additional reporting requirements. A waiver may be given for a specified period of time only, after which time it will cease to apply. A firm wishing to extend the duration of a waiver should follow the procedure in SUP 8.3.3 D. A waiver will not apply retrospectively.
If the FSA believes that a particular waiver given to a firm may have relevance to other firms, it may publish general details about the possible availability of the waiver. For example, IPRU(INV) 3-80(10)G explains that a firm that wishes to use its own internal model to calculate its position risk requirement (PRR) will need to apply for a waiver of the relevant rules.
Under section 148(2) of the Act the FSA may give a waiver with the consent of a firm. This power may be used by the FSA in exceptional circumstances where the FSA considers that a waiver should apply to a number of firms (for example, where a rule unmodified may not meet the particular circumstances of a particular category of firm). In such cases the FSA will inform the firms concerned that the waiver is available, either by contacting firms individually or by publishing details
When considering whether it is satisfied under section 148(6), the FSA is required by section 148(7) of the Act:(1) to take into account whether the waiver relates to a rule contravention of which is actionable under section 150 of the Act (Actions for damages); Schedule 5 identifies such rules;(2) to consider whether its publication would prejudice, to an unreasonable degree, the commercial interests of the firm concerned, or any other member of its immediate group; and(3) to
Waivers can affect the legal rights of third parties, including consumers. In the FSA's view it is important that the fact and effect of such waivers should be transparent. So the fact that a waiver relates to a rule that is actionable under section 150 of the Act (see SUP 8.6.2 G (1)) will tend to argue in favour of publication.
In considering whether commercial interests would be prejudiced to an unreasonable degree (see SUP 8.6.2 G (2)), the FSA will weigh the prejudice to firms' commercial interests against the interests of consumers, markets and other third parties in disclosure. In doing so the FSA will consider factors such as the extent to which publication of the waiver would involve the premature release of proprietary information to commercial rivals, for example relating to a product innovation,
If, after taking into account the matters in SUP 8.3.3 D to SUP 8.6.6 G, a firm believes there are good grounds for the FSA either to withhold publication or to publish the waiver without disclosing the identity of the firm, it should make this clear in its application (see SUP 8.3.3 D (7)). If the FSAproposes to publish a waiver against the wishes of the firm, the FSA will give the firm the opportunity to withdraw its application before the waiver is given.
A decision to withhold a waiver or identity of a firm from publication may be for a limited period only, usually as long as the duration of the relevant grounds for non-publication. If the FSA proposes to publish information about a waiver that had previously been withheld, it will first give the firm an opportunity to make representations.
GENPRU 2.2.17 R requires a firm to calculate its capital resources for the purpose of GENPRU in accordance with the capital resources table, subject to the limits in GENPRU 2.2.32 R to GENPRU 2.2.41 R. The capital resources table and GENPRU 2.2.251 R require a firm to deduct from total capital resources the value of any asset included in an insurance fund which is not an admissible asset as listed in GENPRU 2 Annex 7. GENPRU 2 Annex 7 provides that a derivative, quasi-derivative
For the purpose of GENPRU 2 Annex 7 (Admissible assets in insurance), and also in relation to permitted links,1 a derivative or quasi-derivative is approved if:(1) it is held for the purpose of efficient portfolio management (INSPRU 3.2.6 R to INSPRU 3.2.7 R) or reduction of investment risk (INSPRU 3.2.8 R to INSPRU 3.2.13 G);(2) it is covered (INSPRU 3.2.14 R to INSPRU 3.2.33 G); and(3) it is effected or issued:(a) on or under the rules of a regulated market; or(b) off-market
(1) 3GENPRU 2 Annex 7 R (3) requires firms to consider first whether an asset is a derivative or quasi-derivative transaction notwithstanding that it is also capable of falling within one or more other categories in GENPRU 2 Annex 7 R (1). If it is a derivative or quasi-derivative transaction it is only admissible if it satisfies the conditions for it to be approved under INSPRU 3.2.5 R. Firms should be able to justify whether or not their assets are derivatives or quasi-derivatives.(2)
For the purposes of INSPRU 3.2.8 R, investment risk is the risk that the assets held by a firm:(1) (where they are admissible assets held by the firm to cover its technical provisions) might not be:(a) of a value at least equal to the amount of those technical provisions as required by INSPRU 1.1.20 R; or(b) of appropriate safety, yield and marketability as required by INSPRU 1.1.34R (1)(a); or(c) of an appropriate currency match as required by INSPRU 3.1.53 R;(2) (where they
An obligation to pay a monetary amount (whether or not falling in INSPRU 3.2.16 R) is covered if:(1) the firm holds admissible assets or permitted links1 that are sufficient in value so that the firm reasonably believes that following reasonably foreseeable adverse variations (relying solely on cashflows from, or from realising, those assets) it could pay the monetary amount in the right currency when it falls due; or(2) the obligation to pay the monetary amount is offset by a
For the purpose of INSPRU 3.2.5R (3)(b), a derivative or quasi-derivative is on approved terms only if the firm reasonably believes that it could, in all reasonably foreseeable circumstances and under normal market conditions, readily enter into a further transaction with the counterparty or a third party to close out the derivative or quasi-derivative at a price not less than the value attributed to it by the firm, taking into account any valuation adjustments or reserves established
For the purpose of INSPRU 3.2.5R (3)(b), a derivative or quasi-derivative is capable of valuation only if the firm:(1) is able to value it with reasonable accuracy on a reliable basis in compliance with GENPRU 1.3.4 R; and(2) reasonably believes that it will be able to do so throughout the life of the transaction.
(1) For the purposes of GENPRU 2 Annex 7 (Admissible assets in insurance), a stock lending transaction (including a repo transaction) 3is approved if:(a) the assets lent are admissible assets;(b) , the counterparty is an authorised person, an approved counterparty, a person registered as a broker-dealer with the Securities and Exchange Commission of the United States of America or a bank, or a branch of a bank, supervised, and authorised to deal in investments as principal, with
For the purposes of assessing adequate quality in INSPRU 3.2.38R (3), reference should be made to the criteria for credit risk loss mitigation set out in INSPRU 2.1.16 R. The valuation rules in GENPRU 1.3 apply for the purpose of determining the value of both collateral received, and the securities transferred, by the firm. In addition, where collateral takes the form of assets transferred, under the rules in GENPRU any such asset that is not an admissible asset (see GENPRU 2
A firm authorised under Part IV of the Act (Permission to carry on regulated activity) has a single Part IV permission granted by the FSA. A firm's Part IV permission specifies all or some of the following elements (see PERG 2 Annex 2 (Regulated activities and the permission regime) and the FSA website "How do I get authorised": http://www.fsa.gov.uk/Pages/Doing/how/index.shtml3):3(1) a description of the activities the firm may carry on, including any limitations;(2) the specified
1If a firm intends to transfer its business to a different legal entity (for example, the business is to be transferred from a sole trader to a partnership or the other way around) it will need to apply to the FSA for cancellation of its Part IV permission and the entity to which the business is to be transferred will need to apply for a Part IV permission.
Variation and cancellation of Part IV permission. See ofSUP 6.2.3 G
Question |
Variation of Part IV permission |
Cancellation of Part IV permission |
What does the application apply to? |
Individual elements of a firm's Part IV permission. Variations may involve adding or removing categories of regulated activity or specified investments or varying or removing any limitations or requirements in the firm's Part IV permission. |
A firm's entire Part IV permission and not individual elements within it. |
In what circumstances is it usually appropriate to make an application? |
If a firm: 1. wishes to change the regulated activities it carries on in the United Kingdom under a Part IV permission (SUP 6.3); or 2. has the ultimate intention of ceasing carrying on regulated activities but due to the nature of those regulated activities (for example, accepting deposits, or insurance business) it will require a long term (normally over six months) to wind down (run off) its business (see SUP 6.2.8 G to SUP 6.2.11 G and SUP 6 Annex 4). |
If a firm: 1. has ceased to carry on all of the regulated activities for which it has Part IV permission (SUP 6.4); or 2. wishes or expects to cease carrying on all of the regulated activities for which it has Part IV permission in the short term (normally not more than six months). In this case, the firm may apply to cancel its Part IV permission prior to ceasing the regulated activities (see SUP 6.4.3 G). |
Where do I find a summary of the application procedures? |
See SUP 6 Annex 2 . |
See SUP 6 Annex 3. |
Actuaries appointed under this chapter2 are subject to regulations made by the Treasury under section 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (Information given by auditor or actuary to the Authority). These regulations oblige actuaries to report certain matters to the FSA. Sections 342(3) and 343(3) of the Act provide that an actuary does not contravene any duty by giving information or expressing an opinion to the FSA, if he is acting in good faith and he reasonably believes that the information
An actuary2 who has ceased to be appointed under this chapter2, or who has been formally notified that he will cease to be so 2appointed, must notify the FSA without delay:222(1) of any matter connected with the cessation which he thinks ought to be drawn to the FSA's attention; or(2) that there is no such matter.
(1) Threshold condition 4 (Adequate resources), requires the FSA to ensure that a firm has adequate resources in relation to the specific regulated activity or regulated activities which it seeks to carry on, or carries on.(2) In this context, the FSA will interpret the term 'adequate' as meaning sufficient in terms of quantity, quality and availability, and 'resources' as including all financial resources, non-financial resources and means of managing its resources; for example,
(1) When assessing this threshold condition, the FSA may have regard to any person appearing to it to be, or likely to be, in a relevant relationship with the firm, in accordance with section 49 of the Act (Persons connected with an applicant); for example, a firm's controllers, its directors or partners, other persons with close links to the firm (see COND 2.3), and other persons that exert influence on the firm which might pose a risk to the firm's satisfaction of the threshold
(1) When assessing whether a firm will satisfy and continue to satisfy threshold condition 4, the FSA will have regard to all relevant matters, whether arising in the United Kingdom or elsewhere.(2) Relevant matters may include but are not limited to:(a) whether there are any indications that the firm may have difficulties if the application is granted (see COND 2.4.6 G), at the time of the grant or in the future, in complying with any of the FSA'sprudential rules (see the relevant
(1) Where a firm is submitting an application for variation of Part IV permission which would lead to a change in the controlled functions of its approved persons, it should, at the same time and as appropriate:(a) make an application to the FSA for an internal transfer of an approved person, Form E (Internal transfer), or make an application to the FSA for an individual to perform additional controlled functions, the relevant11 Form A (Application); seeSUP 10.13.3 D to SUP 10.13.5
Information which may be required. See SUP 6.3.24 G
Type of business |
Information which may be required |
All |
1. Details of how the firm plans to comply with the FSA's regulatory requirements relating to any additional regulated activities it is seeking to carry on. |
2. Descriptions of the firm's key controls, senior management arrangements and audit and proposed compliance arrangements in respect of any new regulated activity (see SYSC). |
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3. Organisation charts and details of individuals transferring or being recruited to perform new controlled functions (see SUP 10 for details of the application or transfer procedures under the approved persons regime). |
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1. A scheme of operations in accordance with SUP App 2. |
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2. (If the application seeks to vary a permission to include motor vehicle liability insurance business) details of the claims representatives12 required by threshold condition 2A (Appointment of claims representatives), if applicable. 12 |
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1. A business plan which includes the impact of the variation on the firm's existing or continuing business financial projections for the firm, including the impact of the requested variation of Part IV permission on the firm's financial resources and capital adequacy requirements.2 |
(1) Firms should be aware that the FSA may exercise its own-initiative power to vary or cancel their Part IV permission if they do not (see EG 8 (Variation and cancellation of permission on the FSA's own initiative and intervention against incoming firms))9:(a) commence a regulated activity for which they have Part IV permission within a period of at least 12 months from the date of being given; or(b) carry on a regulated activity for which they have Part IV permission for a period
Section 395 of the Act (The FSA's procedures)
requires the FSA to
publish a statement of its procedure for the giving of statutory
notices. The procedure must be designed to secure, among other
things, that the decision which gives rise to the obligation to give a statutory notice is taken by a person not
directly involved in establishing the evidence on which that decision is based. The
types of statutory notices and
related notices, and the principal references to them in the
Before a firm applies for approval of the person it proposes to appoint as an actuary under SUP 4.3.1 R1, it must take reasonable steps to ensure that the actuary:1(1) has the required skill and experience to perform his functions under the regulatory system; and(2) is a Fellow of the Institute of Actuaries or of the Faculty of Actuaries.
1A firm must take reasonable steps to ensure that an actuary who is to be, or has been, appointed under SUP 4.3.1 R:(1) does not perform the function of chairman or chief executive of the firm, or does not, if he is to perform the with-profits actuary function, become a member of the firm's governing body; and(2) does not perform any other function on behalf of the firm which could give rise to a significant conflict of interest.
An actuary appointed to perform the actuarial function must, in respect of those classes of the firm's long-term insurance business which are covered by his appointment1:1(1) advise the firm's management, at the level of seniority that is reasonably appropriate, on1 the risks the firm runs in1 so far as they may have a material impact on the firm's ability to meet liabilities to policyholders in respect of long-term insurance contracts as they fall due and on the capital needed
IPRU(INS) 9.4R and IPRU(FSOC) 5.1R require firms to which this section applies to cause an investigation to be made at least yearly by the actuary or actuaries appointed to perform the actuarial function, and to report on the result of that investigation. INSPRU 1.34 requires realistic basis life firms to calculate the with-profits insurance component as part of their capital resources requirements. The firm is responsible for the methods and assumptions used to determine the
(1) The emphasis of this threshold condition is on the suitability of the firm itself. The suitability of each person who performs a controlled function will be assessed by the FSA under the approved persons regime (see SUP 10 (Approved persons) and FIT). In certain circumstances, however, the FSA may consider that the firm is not suitable because of doubts over the individual or collective suitability of persons connected with the firm.8(2) When assessing this threshold condition
In determining whether a firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, threshold condition 5 in respect of conducting its business with integrity and in compliance with proper standards, the relevant matters, as referred to in COND 2.5.4 G (2), may include but are not limited to whether:(1) the firm has been open and co-operative in all its dealings with the FSA and any other regulatory body (see Principle 11 (Relations with regulators)) and is ready, willing and organised to comply
(1) Neither an incoming EEA firm nor an incoming Treaty firm is authorised by the FSA when acting as such.(2) It is likely to be misleading for a firm that is not authorised by the FSA to state or imply that it is so authorised. It is also likely to be misleading for a firm to state or imply that a client will have recourse to the Financial Ombudsman Service or the FSCS where this is not the case.(3) As well as potentially breaching the requirements in this section, misleading
The FSA may revoke a waiver at any time. In deciding whether to revoke a waiver, the FSA will consider whether the conditions in section 148(4) of the Act are no longer satisfied (see SUP 8.3.1 G), and whether the waiver is otherwise no longer appropriate. The FSA may revoke a waiver with immediate effect, if it considers that this is necessary, for example, in order to prevent undue risk to consumers.
If the FSA proposes to revoke a waiver, or revokes a waiver with immediate effect, it will:(1) give the firm written notice either of its proposal, or of its action, giving reasons;(2) state in the notice a reasonable period (usually 28 days) within which the firm can make representations about the proposal or action; if a firm wants to make oral representations, it should inform the FSA as quickly as possible , specify who will make the representations and which matters will
The periodic fee referred to in FEES 4.3.1 R is (except in relation to the Society) calculated as follows:(1) identify each of the tariffs set out in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 2 which apply to the business of the firm for the period specified in that annex;(2) for each of thosetariffs, calculate the sum payable in relation to the business of the firm for that period, applying any minimum fee discount as may be applicable (see FEES 4.3.16 R)9;(3) add together the amounts calculated
(1) If the firm's,periodic fee for the previous financial year was at least £50,000, the firm must pay:(a) an amount equal to 50% of the periodic fee payable for the previous year, by 30 April in the financial yearto which the sum due under FEES 4.2.1 R relates; and (b) the balance of the periodic fee due for the current financial year by 1 September in the financial yearto which that sum relates.(2) If the firm's,periodic fee for the previous financial year was less than £50,000,
A firm which is a member of a group may pay all of the amounts due from other firms in the same group under FEES 4.2.1 R, if:(1) it notifies the FSA in writing of the name of each other firm within the group for which it will pay; and(2) it pays the fees, in accordance with this chapter, as a single amount as if that were the amount required from the firm under FEES 4.2.1 R.
If the payment made does not satisfy in full the periodic fees payable by all of the members of the group notified to the FSA under FEES 4.3.7 R, the FSA will apply the sum received among the firms which have been identified in the notification given under FEES 4.3.7R (1) in proportion to the amounts due from them. Each firm will remain responsible for the payment of the outstanding balance attributable to it.
In assessing this threshold condition, factors which the FSA will take into consideration include, among other things, whether: (1) it is likely that the FSA will receive adequate information from the firm, and those persons with whom the firm has close links, to enable it to determine whether the firm is complying with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system and to identify and assess the impact on the regulatory objectives in section 2 of the Act (The FSA's
(1) A written notice from a Treaty firm under paragraph 5(2) of Schedule 4 to the Act must be: (a) given to a member of, or addressed for the attention of , the Authorisation Department; and(b) delivered to the FSA by one of the methods in (2).(2) The written notice may be delivered by:(a) post to the address in SUP 13A.3.9 G below; or(b) leaving the application at the address in SUP 13A.3.9 G below and obtaining a time-stamped receipt; or(c) hand delivery to a member of the Authorisation
In most cases a firm will provide the information required by this section as part of its compliance with the provisions of SUP. To the extent that the FSA does not obtain sufficient, or sufficiently detailed, information it may seek this by using its general information gathering powers (see SUP 2 (Information gathering by the FSA on its own initiative)).
(1) Given the complexity of issues raised by passporting, UK firms are advised to consult legislation and also to obtain legal advice at earliest opportunity. Firms are encouraged to contact their usual supervisory contact at the FSA to discuss their proposals. However, a UK firm which is seeking guidance on procedural or notification issues relating to passporting should contact the Passport Notifications Unit.(2) An applicant for Part IV permission which is submitting a notice
To contact the Passport Notifications Unit, from which a standard form of notice of intention can be obtained:33(1) telephone on 020 7066 1000; fax on 020 7066 97983; or3(2) write to: The Passport Notifications Unit, The Financial Services Authority, 25 The North Colonnade, Canary Wharf, London E14 5HS; or(3) Email: passport.notifications@fsa.gov.uk