Related provisions for PERG 8.3.4
101 - 120 of 608 items.
The test in section 236(3)(a) of the Act is whether the reasonable investor would expect that, were he to invest, he would be in a position to realise his investment within a period appearing to him to be reasonable. In the FSA's view, this is an objective test with the appropriate objective judgment to be applied being that of the hypothetical reasonable investor with qualities such as those mentioned in PERG 9.7.2 G (The investment condition: the 'reasonable investor').
In the FSA's view, the 'realisation' of an investment means converting an asset into cash or money. The FSA does not consider that 'in specie' redemptions (in the sense of exchanging shares or securities of BC with other shares or securities) will generally count as realisation. Section 236(3)(a) refers to the realisation of an investment, the investment being represented by the 'value' of shares or securities held in BC. In the FSA's view, there is no realisation of value where
The most typical means of realising BC's shares or securities will be by their being redeemed or repurchased, whether by BC or otherwise. There are, of course, other ways in which a realisation may occur. However, the FSA considers that these will often not satisfy all the elements of the definition of an open-ended investment company considered together. For example, the mere fact that shares or securities may be realised on a market will not meet the requirements of the 'satisfaction
An investor in a body corporate may be able to realise part, but not all, of his investment. The FSA considers that the fact that partial realisations may take place at different times does not prevent the body corporate coming within the definition of an open-ended investment company. But, in any particular case, the 'expectation test' will only be met if the overall period for realising the whole of the investment can be considered to be reasonable. Apart from this, the simple
The use of an expectation test ensures that the definition of an open-ended investment company is not limited to a situation where a holder of shares in, or securities of, a body corporate has an entitlement or an option to realise his investment. It is enough if, on the facts of any particular case, the reasonable investor would expect that he would be able to realise the investment. The following are examples of circumstances in which the FSA considers that a reasonable investor
In the FSA's view, the fact that a person may invest in the period shortly before a redemption date would not cause a body corporate, that would not otherwise be regarded as such, to be open-ended. This is because the investment condition must be applied in relation to BC as a whole (see PERG 9.6.3 G (The investment condition (section 236(3) of the Act): general).
As indicated in PERG 9.3.5 G (The definition), the potential for variation in the form and operation of a body corporate is considerable. So, it is only possible in general guidance to give examples of the factors that the FSA considers may affect any particular judgment. These should be read bearing in mind any specific points considered elsewhere in the guidance. Such factors include:(1) the terms of the body corporate's constitution;(2) the applicable law;(3) any public representations
1Under section 312C of the Act, if a UK RIE wishes to make arrangements in an EEA State other than the UK to facilitate access to or use of a regulated market or multilateral trading facility operated by it, it must give the FSAwritten notice of its intention to do so. The notice must:(1) describe the arrangements; and(2) identify the EEA State in which the UK RIE intends to make them.
If a certificate is granted then, until it is revoked, it is conclusive evidence that the exclusion under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order applies. A person to whom a certificate is given should notify the FSA of any significant changes to the purpose or nature of the content of the relevant publication or service. The FSA will need to keep the content of the publication or service in question under review.
The FSA may revoke a certificate at the request of its holder or on the FSA's own initiative if the FSA considers that it is no longer justified. If the FSA revokes a certificate on its own initiative, it would normally expect to give advance notice to the holder of the certificate together with a statement of the reasons for the proposed revocation, and give the holder of the certificate an opportunity to make representations. Where a certificate is revoked, the holder of the
The fact of a person holding a certificate granted under article 54(3) is information which may be of relevance to other persons (including investors or potential investors). For this reason, the FSA considers it appropriate that details of certificates granted under article 54(3) should be included in a list on the public record which the FSA is required to maintain under section 347 of the Act (The record of authorised persons, etc).
The decision maker will:(1) consider whether the material on which the recommendation is based is adequate to support it; the decision maker may seek additional information about or clarification of the recommendation, which may necessitate additional work by the relevant FSA staff;(2) satisfy itself that the action recommended is appropriate in all the circumstances;(3) decide whether to give the notice and the terms of any notice given.
1DEPP 7 applies when the FSA:(1) has appointed an investigator at
the request of an overseas regulator,
under section 169(1)(b) (Assistance to overseas regulators) of the Act;
and(2) has directed, or is considering
directing, the investigator, under section 169(7) of the Act,
to permit a representative of the overseas
regulator to attend, and take part in, any interview conducted for the
purposes of the investigation.
The purpose of DEPP 7 is to set out the FSA's statement of policy on the conduct of interviews to which a direction
under section 169(7) has been given or the FSA is considering giving. The FSA is required to prepare and publish this statement of policy by
section 169(9) and (11) of the Act.
As required by section 169(10) of the Act, the Treasury has approved
the statement of policy.
Unless otherwise stated, the issuer or the owner, as the case may be, must send the relevant forms and information to the FSA's address marked for the attention of the "Covered Bonds Team, Capital Markets Sector" by any of the following methods:(1) post; or(2) leaving it at the FSA's address and obtaining a time-stamped receipt; or(3) e-mail to rcb@fsa.gov.uk.
Energy market participants should bear in mind that section 148 of the Act requires that in order to give a waiver of particular rules, the FSA must be satisfied that:(1) compliance with the rules, or with the rules as unmodified, would be unduly burdensome or would not achieve the purpose for which the rules were made; and(2) the waiver would not result in undue risk to persons whose interests the rules are intended to protect.
In particular, clause 4 of the form of waiver in SUP 21 Annex 1 will not ordinarily be inserted in waivers for energy market participants that will not, at the time the waiver will take effect, clearly satisfy the conditions set out in that clause. For these purposes the FSA will take into account the relative proportions of the energy market participant's assets and revenues that are referable to the various parts of its business, as well as to any other factor that the FSA considers
The FSA will try to notify the applicant
of its decision on an application for approval of listing
particulars or supplementary
listing particulars within the same time limits as are specified
in section 87C of the Act (consideration
of application for approval) for an application for approval of a prospectus or supplementary
prospectus.
Article 25(1) applies only where the arrangements bring about or would bring about the particular transaction in question. This is because of the exclusion in article 26. In the FSA's view, a person brings about or would bring about a transaction only if his involvement in the chain of events leading to the transaction is of enough importance that without that involvement it would not take place. The second limb (article 25(2)) is potentially much wider as it does not require
The ordinary business of a publisher or broadcaster can involve him in publishing or broadcasting financial promotions (for example, advertisements) on behalf of authorised or exempt persons. Journalists who write about investments or financial services may promote the services of an authorised or exempt person. In the FSA's opinion, such persons would not normally be regarded as making arrangements under article 25(2). This is the case even if any arrangements they may have made
The Regulated Activities Order contains an exclusion (article 27: Enabling parties to communicate) to bring a degree of certainty to this area. This applies to arrangements which might otherwise fall within article 25(2) merely because they provide the means by which one party to a transaction (or potential transaction) is able to communicate with other parties. In the FSA's view, the crucial element of the exclusion is the inclusion of the word ‘merely’. So that, where a publisher,
For example, in the FSA's view a publisher or broadcaster would be likely to be making arrangements within the meaning of article 25(2) and be unable to make use of the exclusion in article 27 if:(1) he enters into an agreement with a provider of investment services such as a broker or product provider for the purpose of carrying their financial promotion; and(2) as part of the arrangements, the publisher or broadcaster does one or more of the following:(a) brands the investment
Other persons who may benefit from the exclusion in article 27 include persons who provide the means for someone to route an order to another person. A person providing such order routing services would not, in the FSA's view, be merely facilitating communication (of the orders) if he provides added value. This added value could be in the form, for example, of such things as formatted screens, audit trails, checking completeness of orders or matching orders or reconciling tra
General guidance on the perimeter is also contained in various FSA documents (mainly fact sheets and frequently asked questions) that are available on the FSA website at www.fsa.gov.uk.These documents, and the URL on which they may be accessed, include:(1) [deleted]212(2) [deleted]212(3) [deleted](4) guidance about the position under the Insurance Mediation Directive and the Regulated Activities Order of property owners and tenants - http://www.fsa.gov.uk/pages/Doing/small_firms/insurance/faq/property.shtml;11(5)
Any person who, having read relevant general guidance and, where appropriate, taken legal advice, remains uncertain about whether his activities amount to regulated activities or his communications will be subject to the restriction in section 21 of the Act, may seek individual guidance from the FSA. Requests for individual guidance should be made in line with SUP 9.
In addition, the FSA has established a team to provide general assistance and guidance to persons generally about the scope of the Act. Enquiries of this kind may be made:(1) by authorised firms, to either the FirmContact Centre (email fcc@fsa.gov.uk, Tel 0845 606 9966) or their normal supervisory contact; or(2) by individuals or non-authorised firms, to the Consumer Contact Centre (email ccc@fsa.gov.uk, Tel 0845 606 1234) or the Perimeter Enquiries Team (email authorisationenquiries@fsa.gov.uk,
In the FSA's view, this means that the reasonable investor must be satisfied that what he will get when he realises his investment is his proportionate share in the value of BC's underlying assets, less any dealing costs. In other words, that he is satisfied he will get net asset value. The investment condition focuses on the way the body corporate operates over time, and not by reference to particular issues of shares or securities (see PERG 9.6.3 G (The investment condition
For the 'satisfaction test' to be met, there must be objectively justifiable grounds on which the reasonable investor could form a view. He must be satisfied that the value of BC's property will be the basis of a calculation used for the whole, or substantially the whole, of his investment. The FSA considers that the circumstances, or combination of circumstances, in which a reasonable investor would be in a position to form this view include:(1) where the basis of net asset valuation
PERG 9.9.3 G (2)and PERG 9.9.3 G (3) refer to circumstances where the reasonable investor may be satisfied that he can realise his investment at net asset value because of arrangements made to ensure that the shares or securities trade at net asset value on a market. There may, for example, be cases of market dealing where the price of shares or securities will not depend on the market. An example is where BC or a third party undertakes to ensure that the market value reflects
However, where there is a market, the FSA does not consider that the test in section 236(3)(b) would be met if the price the investor receives for his investment is wholly dependent on the market rather than specifically on net asset value. In the FSA's view, typical market pricing mechanisms introduce too many uncertainties to be able to form a basis for calculating the value of an investment (linked to net asset value) of the kind contemplated by the satisfaction test. As a
The fact that the definition must be applied to BC as a whole (see PERG 9.6.3 G (The investment condition (section 236(3) of the Act): general)) is also relevant here. So, for example, in a take-over situation the fact that a bidder may be willing to provide an exit route for an investment at net asset value will be irrelevant within the context of the definition. This is so even if an investor invests in particular shares or securities in the knowledge or expectation or in anticipation
An overseascompany must forward to the FSA, for publication through the document viewing facility, two copies of:(1) all circulars, notices, reports or other documents to which the listingrules apply, at the same time as any such documents are issued; and(2) all resolutions passed by the company other than resolutions concerning ordinary business at an annual general meeting, as soon as possible after the relevant general meeting.
An overseascompany must ensure that the FSA is provided with up to date contact details of appropriate persons nominated by it to act as the first point of contact with the FSA in relation to the overseascompany's compliance with the listing rules and the disclosure rules and transparency rules, as applicable.
When making a decision on an application
for registration under the RCB Regulations,
or in relation to material changes to the contractual terms of the regulated covered bond, or in relation to
a change of owner, or when
seeking to use direction, revocation or penalty powers, the RCB
Regulations require the FSA to give the subject of the intended
action a warning notice and
a decision notice. The recipient
of a warning notice has the
right to make representations to the decision
Regulation 44 of the RCB Regulations (Warning notices and decision
notices) applies Part XXVI of the Act (Notices)
in respect of notices that we give under the RCB
Regulations. This means that the provisions of section 393
of the Act (Third party rights)
and section 394 of the Act (Access
to Authority material) apply to penalty procedures under the RCB Regulations and that, if the matter
is not referred to the Tribunal,
then upon taking the action to which a decision
notice relates,
Decisions on applications for registration,
in relation to material changes to contractual terms of the regulated
covered bond, or in relation to a change of owner, or decisions
to issue a direction under the RCB Regulations or
to revoke an issuer's registration,
will be taken under executive procedures following
the process set out in DEPP 4.
(1) An issuer that has the listing of any of its securities suspended may request the FSA to have them restored.(2) The request should be made sufficiently in advance of the time and date the issuer wishes the securities to be restored.(3) Requests received for when the market opens should allow sufficient time for the FSA to deal with the request.(4) The request may be an oral request. The FSA may require documentary evidence that the events that lead to the suspension are no
(1) If an issuer has requested the FSA to restore the listing of any securities, it may withdraw its request at any time while the securities are still suspended. The withdrawal request should initially be made by telephone and then confirmed in writing as soon as possible.(2) Even if a request to restore has been withdrawn, the FSA may restore the listing of securities if it believes the circumstances justify it.
(1) If an underlying instrument is restored, the securitised derivative'slisting will normally be restored.(2) For a securitised derivative relating to a basket of underlying instruments that has been suspended, the securitised derivative's listing may be restored by the FSA, irrespective of whether or not the underlying instrument has been restored, if:(a) the issuer of the securitised derivative confirms to the FSA that despite the relevant underlying instrument(s) suspension
(1) The FSA may dispense with, or modify, the transparency rules in such cases and by reference to such circumstances as it considers appropriate (subject to the terms of directives and the Act).(2) A dispensation or modification may be either unconditional or subject to specified conditions.(3) If an issuer, or other person has applied for, or been granted, a dispensation or modification, it must notify the FSA immediately it becomes aware of any matter which is material to the
(1) An application to the FSA to dispense with or modify, a transparency rule must be in writing.(2) The application must:(a) contain a clear explanation of why the dispensation or modification is requested;(b) include details of any special requirements, for example, the date by which the dispensation or modification is required;(c) contain all relevant information that should reasonably be brought to the FSA's attention;(d) contain any statement or information that is required
An issuer or other person should consult with the FSA at the earliest possible stage if they:
- (1)
are in doubt about how the transparency rules apply in a particular situation; or
- (2)
consider that it may be necessary for the FSA to dispense with or modify a transparency rule.
Address for correspondence
Note: The FSA's address for correspondence in relation to the disclosure rules is:
Company Monitoring Team |
Markets Division |
The Financial Services Authority |
25 The North Colonnade |
Canary Wharf |
London E14 5HS |
Fax: 020 7066 8368 |
1The reports of transactions in financial instrument shall be made in an electronic form except under exceptional circumstances, when they may be made in a medium which allows for the storing of the information in a way accessible for future reference by the competent authorities other than an electronic form, and the methods by which those reports are made shall satisfy the following conditions: |
|
(a) |
they ensure the safety and confidentiality of the data reported; |
(b) |
they incorporate mechanisms for identifying and correcting errors in a transaction report; |
(c) |
they incorporate mechanisms for authenticating the source of the transaction report; |
(d) |
they include appropriate precautionary measures to enable the timely resumption of reporting in the case of system failure; |
(e) |
they are capable of reporting the information required under Article 13 of the MiFID Regulation in the format specified in SUP 17 Annex 1 EU required by the FSA and in accordance with this paragraph, within the time-limits set out in SUP 17.2.7 R. |
[Note: article 12(1) of the MiFID Regulation] |
|
1A trade matching or reporting system shall be approved by the FSA for the purposes of Article 25(5) of MiFID if the arrangements for reporting transactions established by that system comply with SUP 17.3.1EU and are subject to monitoring by a competent authority in respect of their continuing compliance. |
[Note: article 12(2) of the MiFID Regulation] |