Related provisions for PERG 6.5.2
Table: This table belongs to COLL 6.3.2 G (2) (a) and COLL 6.3.3 R (Valuation)1.
Valuation and pricing |
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1 |
The valuation of scheme property |
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(1) |
Where possible, investments should be valued using a reputable source. The reliability of the source of prices should be kept under regular review. |
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(2) |
For some or all of the investments comprising the scheme property, different prices may quoted according to whether they are being bought (offer prices) or sold (bid prices). The valuation of a single-priced authorised fund should reflect the mid-market value of such investments. In the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, the issue basis of the valuation will be carried out by reference to the offer prices of investments and the cancellation basis by reference to the bid prices of those same investments. The prospectus should explain how investments will be valued for which a single price is quoted for both buying and selling.1 1 |
|
3(2A) |
Schemes investing in approved money-market instruments5should value such instruments on an amortised cost basis on condition that:5
|
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[Note:CESR's UCITS eligible assets guidelines with respect to article 4(2) of the UCITS eligible assets Directive] |
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(3) |
Any part of the scheme property of an authorised fund that is not an investment should be valued at a fair value, but for immovables this is subject to COLL 5.6.20 R (3) (f) (Standing independent valuer and valuation). |
|
(4) |
For the purposes of (2) and (3), any fiscal charges, commissions, professional fees or other charges that were paid, or would be payable on acquiring or disposing of the investment or other part of the scheme property should, in the case of a single-priced authorised fund,2 be excluded from the value of an investment or other part of the scheme property. In the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, any such payments should be added to the issue basis of the valuation, or subtracted from the cancellation basis of the valuation, as appropriate. Alternatively, the prospectus of a dual-priced authorised fund may prescribe any other method of calculating unitprices that ensures an equivalent treatment of the effect of these payments.2 |
|
(5) |
Where the authorised fund manager has reasonable grounds to believe that:
|
|
(6) |
The circumstances which may give rise to a fair value price being used include:
|
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(7) |
In determining whether to use such a fair value price , the authorised fund manager should include in his consideration:
|
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4(7A) |
Where the authorised fund manager, the depositary or the standing independent valuer have reasonable grounds to believe that the most recent valuation of an immovable does not reflect the current value of that immovable, the authorised fund manager should consult and agree with the standing independent valuer a fair and reasonable value for the immovable. |
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(8) |
The authorised fund manager should document the basis of valuation (including any fair value pricing policy) and, where appropriate, the basis of any methodology and ensure that the procedures are applied consistently and fairly. |
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(9) |
Where a unit price is determined using properly applied fair value prices in accordance with policies in (8), subsequent information that indicates the price should have been different from that calculated will not normally give rise to an instance of incorrect pricing. |
|
2 |
The pricing controls of the authorised fund manager |
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(1) |
An authorised fund manager needs to be able to demonstrate that it has effective controls over its calculations of unit prices. |
|
(2) |
The controls referred to in (1) should ensure that:
|
|
(3) |
In exercising its pricing controls, the authorised fund manager may exercise reasonable discretion in determining the appropriate frequency of the operation of the controls and may choose a longer interval, if appropriate, given the level of activity on the authorised fund1or the materiality of any effect on the price. |
|
(4) |
Evidence of the exercise of the pricing controls should be retained. |
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(5) |
Evidence of persistent or repetitive errors in relation to these matters, and in particular any evidence of a pattern of errors working in an authorised fund manager's favour, will make demonstrating effective controls more difficult. |
|
(6) |
Where the pricing1function is delegated to a third party, COLL 6.6.15 R (1) (Committees and delegation) will apply. |
|
3 |
The depositary's review of the authorised fund manager's systems and controls |
|
(1) |
This section provides details of the types of checks a depositary should carry out to be satisfied that the authorised fund manager adopts systems and controls which are appropriate to ensure that prices of units are calculated in accordance with this section and to ensure that the likelihood of incorrect prices will be minimised. These checks also apply where an authorised fund manager has delegated all or some of its pricing1 functions to one or more third parties5. 5 |
|
(2) |
A depositary should thoroughly review an authorised fund manager's systems and controls to confirm that they are satisfactory. The depositary's review should include an analysis of the controls in place to determine the extent to which reliance can be placed on them. |
|
(3) |
A review should be performed when the depositary is appointed and thereafter as it feels appropriate given its knowledge of the robustness and the stability of the systems and controls and their operation. |
|
(4) |
A review should be carried out more frequently where a depositary knows or suspects that an authorised fund manager's systems and controls are weak or are otherwise unsatisfactory. |
|
(5) |
Additionally, a depositary should from time to time review other aspects of the valuation of the scheme property of each authorised fund for which it is responsible, verifying, on a sample basis, if necessary, the assets, liabilities, accruals, units in issue1, securities prices (and in particular the prices of OTC derivatives,5unapproved securities and the basis for the valuation of unquoted securities) and any other relevant matters, for example an accumulation factor or a currency conversion factor. |
|
(6) |
A depositary should ensure that any issues, which are identified in any such review, are properly followed up and resolved. |
|
4 |
The recording and reporting of instances of incorrect pricing |
|
(1) |
An authorised fund manager should record each instance where the price of a unit is incorrect as soon as the error is discovered, and report the fact to the depositary together with details of the action taken, or to be taken, to avoid repetition as soon as practicable. |
|
(2) |
In accordance with COLL 6.6.11 G (Duty to inform the FSA), the depositary should report any breach of the rules in COLL 6.3 immediately to the FSA. However, notification should relate to instances which the depositary considers material only. |
|
(3) |
A depositary should also report to the FSA immediately any instance of incorrect pricing1where the error is 0.5% or more of the price of a unit, where a depositary believes that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate and should not be paid by an authorised fund manager. |
|
(4) |
In accordance with SUP 16.6.8 R, a depositary should also make a return to the FSA on a quarterly basis which summarises the number of instances of incorrect pricing1 during a particular period. |
|
5 |
The rectification of pricing breaches |
|
(1) |
COLL 6.6.3 R (1) (Functions of the authorised fund manager) places a duty on the authorised fund manager to take action to reimburse affected unitholders, former unitholders, and the scheme itself, for instances of incorrect pricing1, except if it appears to the depositary that the breach is of minimal significance. |
|
(2) |
A depositary may consider that the instance of incorrect pricing1is of minimal significance if:
|
|
(3) |
In determining (2), if the instance of incorrect pricing1 is due to one or more factors or exists over a period of time, each price should be considered separately. |
|
(4) |
If a depositary deems it appropriate, it may, in spite of the circumstances outlined in (2), require a payment from the authorised fund manager or from the authorised fund to the unitholders, former unitholders, the authorised fund or the authorised fund manager (where appropriate). |
|
(5) |
The depositary should satisfy itself that any payments required following an instance of incorrect pricing1 are accurately and promptly calculated and paid. |
|
(6) |
If a depositary considers that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate, it should report the matter to the FSA, together with its recommendation and justification. The depositary should take into account the need to avoid prejudice to the rights of unitholders, or the rights of unitholders in a class of units. |
|
(7) |
It may not be practicable, or in some cases legally permissible, for the authorised fund manager to obtain reimbursement from unitholders, where the unitholders have benefited from the incorrect price. |
|
(8) |
In all cases where reimbursement or payment is required, amounts due to be reimbursed to unitholders for individual sums which are reasonably considered by the authorised fund manager and depositary to be immaterial, need not normally be paid. |
1Note: The following definitions relevant to the prospectus rules are extracted from the Glossary.
Act |
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admission to trading |
admission to trading on a regulated market. |
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advertisement |
(as defined in the PD Regulation) announcements: |
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(1) |
relating to a specific offer to the public of securities or to an admission to trading on a regulated market; and |
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(2) |
aiming to specifically promote the potential subscription or acquisition of securities. |
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annual information update |
the document referred to in PR 5.2.1 R. |
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applicant |
an applicant for approval of a prospectus or supplementary prospectus relating to transferable securities. |
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asset backed security |
(as defined in the PD Regulation) securities which: |
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(1) |
represent an interest in assets, including any rights intended to assure servicing, or the receipt or timeliness of receipts by holders of assets of amounts payable thereunder; or |
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(2) |
are secured by assets and the terms of which provide for payments which relate to payments or reasonable projections of payments calculated by reference to identified or identifiable assets. |
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base prospectus |
a base prospectus referred to in PR 2.2.7 R. |
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body corporate |
(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions) any body corporate, including a body corporate constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom; |
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building block |
(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of additional information requirements, not included in one of the schedules, to be added to one or more schedules, as the case may be, depending on the type of instrument and/or transaction for which a prospectus or base prospectus is drawn up. |
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CARD |
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CESR recommendations |
the recommendations for the consistent implementation of the European Commission's Regulation on Prospectuses no 809/2004 published by the Committee of European Securities Regulators. |
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collective investment undertaking other than the closed-end type |
(in PR) (as defined in Article 2.1(o) of the prospectus directive) unit trusts and investment companies: |
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(1) |
the object of which is the collective investment of capital provided by the public, and which operate on the principle of risk-spreading; |
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(2) |
the units of which are, at the holder's request, repurchased or redeemed, directly or indirectly, out of the assets of these undertakings. |
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Consolidated Admissions and Reporting Directive |
Directive 2001/34/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council on the admission of securities to official stock exchange listing and on information to be published on those securities. |
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credit institution |
as defined in article 1(1) of the Banking Consolidation Directive. |
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director |
(in accordance with section 417(1)(a) of the Act) a person occupying in relation to it the position of a director (by whatever name called) and, in relation to an issuer which is not a body corporate, a person with corresponding powers and duties. |
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EEA State |
(in accordance with paragraph 8 of Schedule 3 to the Act (EEA Passport Rights)) a State which is a contracting party to the agreement on the European Economic Area signed at Oporto on 2 May 1992, as it has effect for the time being; as at 1 May 2004, the following are the EEA States: Austria, Belgium, Cyprus, the Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hungary, Iceland, Ireland, Italy, Latvia, Liechtenstein, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, the Netherlands, Norway, Poland, Portugal, the Slovak Republic, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden and the United Kingdom. |
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equity security |
(as defined in Article 2.1(b) of the prospectus directive) shares and other transferable securities equivalent to shares in companies, as well as any other type of transferable securities giving the right to acquire any of the aforementioned securities as a consequence of their being converted or the rights conferred by them being exercised, provided that securities of the latter type are issued by the issuer of the underlying shares or by an entity belonging to the group of the said issuer. |
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equity share |
shares comprised in a company'sequity share capital. |
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equity share capital |
(for a company), its issued share capital excluding any part of that capital which, neither as respects dividends nor as respects capital, carries any right to participate beyond a specified amount in a distribution. |
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executive procedures |
the procedures relating to the giving of warning notices, decision notices and supervisory notices that are described in DEPP 4 (Decision by FSA staff under executive procedures)2. 22 |
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FSA |
the Financial Services Authority. |
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guarantee |
(as defined in the PD Regulation) any arrangement intended to ensure that any obligation material to the issue will be duly serviced, whether in the form of guarantee, surety, keep well agreement, mono-line insurance policy or other equivalent commitment. |
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guarantor |
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Home State or Home Member State |
(as defined in section 102C of the Act) in relation to an issuer of transferable securities, the EEA State which is the "home Member State" for the purposes of the prospectus directive (which is to be determined in accordance with Article 2.1(m) of that directive). |
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Host State or Host Member State |
(as defined in Article 2.1(n) of the prospectus directive) the EEA State where an offer to the public is made or admission to trading is sought, when different from the home State. |
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3 | [deleted]3 3 |
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3 | [deleted]3 3 |
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issuer |
(as defined in section 102A of the Act) a legal person who issues or proposes to issue the transferable securities in question. |
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The European Parliament and Council Directive on markets in financial instruments (No. 2004/39/EC). See also MiFID Regulation and MiFID implementing Directive.3 |
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non-equity transferable securities |
(as defined in section 102A of the Act) all transferable securities that are not equity securities. |
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Note: In the prospectus directive and the PD Regulation, the Commission uses the term "non-equity securities" rather than "non-equity transferable securities". |
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offer |
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offer of transferable securities to the public |
(as defined in section 102B of the Act), in summary: |
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(a) |
a communication to any person which presents sufficient information on:
to enable an investor to decide to buy or subscribe for the securities in question; |
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(b) |
which is made in any form or by any means; |
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(c) |
including the placing of securities through a financial intermediary; |
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(d) |
but not including a communication in connection with trading on:
|
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Note: This is only a summary, to see the full text of the definition, readers should consult section 102B of the Act. |
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offering programme |
(as defined in Article 2.1(k) of the prospectus directive) a plan which would permit the issuance of non-equity securities, including warrants in any form, having a similar type and/or class, in a continuous or repeated manner during a specified issuing period. |
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offeror |
a person who makes an offer of transferable securities to the public. |
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overseas company |
a company incorporated outside the United Kingdom. |
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Part 6 rules |
(in accordance with section 73A(1) of the Act), rules made for the purposes of Part 6 of the Act. |
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PD |
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PD Regulation |
Regulation number 809/2004 of the European Commission. |
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person |
(in accordance with the Interpretation Act 1978) any person, including a body of persons corporate or unincorporated that is, a natural person, a legal person and, for example, a partnership). |
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PR |
the Prospectus Rules sourcebook. |
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profit estimate |
(as defined in the PD Regulation) a profit forecast for a financial period which has expired and for which results have not yet been published. |
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profit forecast |
(as defined in the PD Regulation) a form of words which expressly states or by implication indicates a figure or a minimum or maximum figure for the likely level of profits or losses for the current financial period and/or financial periods subsequent to that period, or contains data from which a calculation of such a figure for future profits or losses may be made, even if no particular figure is mentioned and the word "profit" is not used. |
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property collective investment undertaking |
(as defined in the PD Regulation) a collective investment undertaking whose investment objective is the participation in the holding of property in the long term. |
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prospectus |
a prospectus required under the prospectus directive. |
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prospectus directive |
the Directive of the European Parliament and of the Council of 4 November 2003 on the prospectus to be published when securities are offered to the public or admitted to trading (No 2003/71/EC). |
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Prospectus Rules |
(as defined in section 73A(4) of the Act) rules expressed to relate to transferable securities. |
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Public international body |
(as defined in the PD Regulation) a legal entity of public nature established by an international treaty between sovereign States and of which one or more Member States are members. |
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qualified investor |
(as defined in section 86(7) of the Act) : |
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(a) |
any entity falling within the meaning of Article 2(1)(e)(i), (ii) or (iii) of the prospectus directive; |
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(b) |
An investor registered on the register maintained by the competent authority under section 87R; |
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(c) |
An investor authorised by an EEA State other than the United Kingdom to be considered as a qualified investor for the purposes of the prospectus directive. |
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register |
register of qualified investors maintained by the FSA under section 87R of the Act. |
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registration document |
a registration document referred to in PR 2.2.2 R. |
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regulated information |
(as defined in the PD Regulation) all information which the issuer, or any person who has applied for the admission of securities to trading on a regulated market without the issuer’s consent, is required to disclose under Directive 2001/34/EC or under Article 6 of Directive 2003/6/EC.3 |
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regulated market |
a multilateral system operated and/or managed by a market operator, which brings together or facilitates the bringing together of multiple third-party buying and selling interests in financial instruments in the system and in accordance with its non-discretionary rules in a way that results in a contract, in respect of the financial instruments admitted to trading under its rules and/or systems, and which is authorised and functions regularly and in accordance with the provisions of Title III of MiFID.3 |
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RIS |
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risk factors |
(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of risks which are specific to the situation of the issuer and/or the securities and which are material for taking investment decisions. |
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rule |
(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions)) a rule made by the FSA under the Act. |
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schedule |
(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of minimum information requirements adapted to the particular nature of the different types of issuers and/or the different securities involved. |
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securities issued in a continuous and repeated manner |
(as defined in Article 2.1(l) of the prospectus directive) issues on tap or at least two separate issues of securities of a similar type and/or class over a period of 12 months. |
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securities note |
a securities note referred to in PR 2.2.2 R. |
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small and medium-sized enterprise |
(as defined in Article 2.1(f) of the prospectus directive) companies, which, according to their last annual or consolidated accounts, meet at least two of the following three criteria: an average number of employees during the financial year of less than 250, a total balance sheet not exceeding €43,000,000 and an annual net turnover not exceeding €50,000,000. |
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special purpose vehicle |
(as defined in the PD Regulation) an issuer whose objects and purposes are primarily the issue of securities. |
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statutory notice associated decision |
a decision which is made by the FSA and which is associated with a decision to give a statutory notice, including a decision: |
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statutory notice decision |
a decision by the FSA on whether or not to give a statutory notice. |
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(a) |
to determine or extend the period for making representations; |
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(b) |
to determine whether a copy of the statutory notice needs to be given to any third party and the period for him to make representations; |
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(c) |
to refuse access to FSA material; |
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(d) |
as to the information which it is appropriate to publish about the matter to which a final notice or an effective supervisory notice relates. |
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summary |
(in relation to a prospectus) the summary included in the prospectus. |
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supplementary prospectus |
a supplementary prospectus containing details of a new factor, mistake or inaccuracy. |
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transferable security |
(as defined in section 102A of the Act) anything which is a transferable security for the purposes of MiFID3, other than money-market instruments for the purposes of that directive which have a maturity of less than 12 months. 3 |
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Note: In the prospectus directive and PD regulation, the Commission uses the term "security" rather than "transferable security". |
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umbrella collective investment scheme |
(as defined in the PD Regulation) a collective investment undertaking invested in one or more collective investment undertakings, the asset of which is composed of separate class(es) or designation(s) of securities. |
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United Kingdom |
England and Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland (but not the Channel Islands or the Isle of Man). |
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units of a collective investment scheme |
(as defined in Article 2.1(p) of the prospectus directive) securities issued by a collective investment undertaking as representing the rights of the participants in such an undertaking over its assets. |
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working day |
(as defined in section 103 of the Act) any day other than a Saturday, a Sunday, Christmas Day, Good Friday or a day which is a bank holiday under the Banking and Financial Dealings Act 1971 in any part of the United Kingdom. |
This table belongs to COLL 3.2.4 R (Matters which must be included in the instrument constituting the scheme)
Name of scheme |
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1 |
A statement of: |
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(1) |
the name of the authorised fund; and |
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(2) |
whether the authorised fund is a UCITS scheme or a non-UCITS retail scheme. |
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Investment powers in eligible markets |
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2 |
A statement that, subject to any restriction in the rules in this sourcebook or the instrument constituting the scheme, the scheme has the power to invest in any eligible securities market or deal on any eligible derivatives market to the extent that power to do so is conferred by COLL 5 (Investment and borrowing powers). |
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Unitholder's liability to pay |
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3 |
A provision that a unitholder is not liable to make any further payment after he has paid the price of his units and that no further liability can be imposed on him in respect of the units which he holds. |
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Base currency |
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4 |
A statement of the base currency of the scheme. |
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Valuation and pricing |
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5 |
A statement setting out the basis for the valuation and pricing of the scheme. |
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Duration of the scheme |
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6 |
If the scheme is to be wound up after a particular period expires, a statement to that effect. |
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Object of the scheme |
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7 |
A statement: |
|
(1) |
as to the object of the scheme, in particular the types of investments and assets in which it and each sub-fund (where applicable) may invest; and |
|
(2) |
that the object of the scheme is to invest in property of that kind with the aim of spreading investment risk and giving unitholders the benefits of the results of the management of that property. |
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27A |
Where the authorised fund is a qualifying money market fund, a statement to that effect and a statement that the authorised fund's investment objectives and policies will meet the conditions specified in the definition of qualifying money market fund. |
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5Property Authorised Investment Funds |
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57B |
For a property authorised investment fund, a statement that: |
|
(1) |
it is a property authorised investment fund; |
|
(2) |
no body corporate may seek to obtain or intentionally maintain a holding of more than 10% of the net asset value of the fund; and |
|
(3) |
in the event that the authorised fund manager reasonably considers that a body corporate holds more than 10% of the net asset value of the fund, the authorised fund manager is entitled to delay any redemption or cancellation of units in accordance with 18 if the authorised fund manager reasonably considers such action to be: |
|
(a) necessary in order to enable an orderly reduction of the holding to below 10%; and |
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(b) in the interests of the unitholders as a whole. |
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Government and public securities: investment in one issuer |
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8 |
Where relevant, for a UCITS scheme, a statement in accordance with COLL 5.2.12 R (Spread: government and public securities) as to the individual states or bodies in which over 35% of the value of the scheme may be invested in government and public securities. |
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Classes of unit |
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9 |
A statement: |
|
(1) |
specifying the classes of unit that may be issued, and for a scheme which is an umbrella, the classes that may be issued in respect of each sub-fund; and |
|
(2) |
if the rights of any class of unit differ, a statement describing those differences in relation to the differing classes. |
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Authorised fund manager's charges and expenses |
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10 |
A statement setting out the basis on which the authorised fund manager may make a charge and recover expenses out of the scheme property. |
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Issue or cancellation directly through the ICVC or trustee |
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11 |
Where relevant, a statement authorising the issue or cancellation of units to take place through the ICVC or trustee directly. |
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In specie issue and cancellation |
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12 |
Where relevant, a statement authorising payment for the issue or cancellation of units to be made by the transfer of assets other than cash. |
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Restrictions on sale and redemption |
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13 |
Where relevant, the restrictions which will apply in relation to the sale and redemption of units under COLL 6.2.16 R (Sale and redemption). |
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Voting at meetings |
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14 |
The manner in which votes may be given at a meeting of unitholders under COLL 4.4.8 R (Voting rights). |
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Certificates |
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15 |
A statement: |
|
(1) |
authorising the issue of bearer certificates if any, and how such holders are to identify themselves; and |
|
(2) |
authorising the person responsible for the register to charge for issuing any document recording, or for amending, an entry on the register, other than on the issue or sale of units. |
|
Income |
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16 |
A statement setting out the basis for the distribution or re-investment of income. |
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Income equalisation |
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17 |
Where relevant, a provision for income equalisation. |
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Redemption or cancellation of units on breach of law or rules |
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18 |
A statement that where any holding of units by a unitholder is (or is reasonably considered by the authorised fund manager to be) an infringement of any law, governmental regulation or rule, those units must be redeemed or cancelled. |
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ICVCs: larger and smaller denomination shares |
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19 |
A statement of the proportion of a larger denomination share represented by a smaller denomination share for any relevant unit class. |
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ICVCs: resolution to remove a director |
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20 |
A statement that the ICVC may (without prejudice to the requirements of regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations (The Authority's approval for certain changes in respect of a company), by a resolution passed by a simple majority of the votes validly cast for and against the resolution at a general meeting of unitholders, remove a director before his period of office expires, despite anything else in the ICVC's instrument of incorporation or in any agreement between the ICVC and that director. |
|
ICVCs: unit transfers |
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21 |
A statement that the person designated for the purposes of paragraph 4 of Schedule 4 to the OEIC Regulations (Share transfers) or for an ICVC established in Northern Ireland, paragraph 3 of Schedule 4 to the Open-Ended Investment Companies Regulations (Northern Ireland) 2004 (SR 2004/335) is the person who, for the time being, is the ACD of the ICVC.1 |
|
ICVCs: Charges and expenses |
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22 |
A statement that charges or expenses of the ICVC may be taken out of the scheme property. |
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AUTs: governing law for a trust deed |
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23 |
A statement that the trust deed is made under and governed by the law of England and Wales, Wales or Scotland or Northern Ireland. |
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AUTs: trust deed to be binding and authoritative |
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24 |
A statement that the trust deed: |
|
(1) |
is binding on each unitholder as if it had been a party to it and that it is bound by its provisions; and |
|
(2) |
authorises and requires the trustee and the manager to do the things required or permitted of them by its terms. |
|
AUTs: declaration of trust |
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25 |
A declaration that, subject to the provisions of the trust deed and all rules made under section 247 of the Act (Trust scheme rules) and for the time being in force: |
|
(1) |
the scheme property (other than sums standing to the credit of the distribution account) is held by the trustee on trust for the unitholders according to the number of units held by each unitholder or, where relevant, according to the number of undivided shares in the scheme property represented by the units held by each unitholder; and |
|
(2) |
the sums standing to the credit of the distribution account are held by the trustee on trust to distribute or apply them in accordance with COLL 6.8 (Income: accounting, allocation and distribution). |
|
AUTs: trustee's remuneration |
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26 |
Where relevant, a statement authorising payments to the trustee by way of remuneration for its services to be paid (in whole or in part) out of the scheme property. |
|
AUTs: responsibility for the register |
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27 |
A statement identifying the person responsible under the rules for the maintenance of the register. |
|
3Investment in overseas4 property through an intermediate holding vehicle |
||
328 |
3If investment in an overseas4 immovable is to be made through an intermediate holding vehicle or a series of intermediate holding vehicles, a statement that the purpose of that intermediate holding vehicle or series of intermediate holding vehicles will be to enable the holding of overseas4 immovables by the scheme. |
Table: list of general guidance to be found in PERG.
Chapter: |
Applicable to: |
About: |
Authorisation and regulated activities |
|
|
Issuing e-money |
a person who needs to know
|
|
Regulated activities connected with mortgages |
any person who needs to know whether the activities he conducts in relation to mortgages are subject to FSA regulation. This is likely to include:
|
the scope of relevant orders (in particular, the Regulated Activities Order) as respects activities concerned with mortgages |
Insurance mediation activities |
any person who needs to know whether he carries on insurance mediation activities and is, thereby, subject to FSA regulation. This is likely to include:
|
the scope of relevant orders (in particular, the Regulated Activities Order) as respects activities concerned with the sale or administration of insurance |
Identification of contracts of insurance |
any person who needs to know whether a contract with which he is involved is a contract of insurance |
the general principles and range of specific factors that the FSA regards as relevant in deciding whether any arrangement is a contract of insurance |
Periodical publications, news services and broadcasts: application for certification |
any person who needs to know whether he will be regulated for providing advice about investments through the medium of a periodical publication, a broadcast or a news service |
|
Financial promotion and related activities |
any person who needs to know
|
|
Meaning of open-ended investment company |
any person who needs to know whether a body corporate is an open-ended investment company as defined in section 236 of the Act (Open-ended investment companies) and is therefore a collective investment scheme. |
the circumstances in which a body corporate will be an open-ended investment company |
Activities related to pension schemes |
Any person who needs to know whether his activities in relation to pension schemes will amount to regulated activities or whether the restriction in section 21 of the Act will apply to any financial promotions he may make.1 1 |
|
Property investment clubs and land investment schemes |
Any person who needs to know whether his activities in relation to property investment clubs and land investment schemes will amount to regulated activities or whether the restriction in section 21 of the Act will apply to any financial promotions he may make. |
|
Running or advising on personal pension schemes |
any person who needs to know whether his activities in relation to establishing, running, advising on or marketing personal pension schemes will amount to regulated activities |
the regulated activities that arise in connection with establishing, running, advising on or marketing personal pension schemes and any exclusions that may be relevant |
Guidance on the scope of the Markets in Financial Instruments Directive and the recast Capital Adequacy Directive 5 |
Any UK person who needs to know whether MiFID or the recast CADas implemented in the UK apply to him5 |
|
Home reversion and home finance activities |
Any person who needs to know whether his activities in relation to home reversion plans or home purchase plans will amount to regulated activities or whether the restriction in section 21 of the Act will apply to any financial promotions he may make. |
|
Table: Positions other than ones with short-term credit assessments
This table belongs to BIPRU 9.12.10 R
Credit Quality Step (CQS) |
Risk weight |
||
A |
B |
C |
|
CQS 1 |
7% |
12% |
20% |
CQS 2 |
8% |
15% |
25% |
CQS 3 |
10% |
18% |
35% |
CQS 4 |
12% |
20% |
|
CQS 5 |
20% |
35% |
|
CQS 6 |
35% |
50% |
|
CQS 7 |
60% |
75% |
|
CQS 8 |
100% |
||
CQS 9 |
250% |
||
CQS 10 |
425% |
||
CQS 11 |
650% |
||
Below CQS 11 |
1250% |
[Note: For mapping of the credit quality step to the credit assessments of eligible ECAIs, referto: www.fsa.gov.uk/pubs/international/ecais_securitisation.pdf ]