Related provisions for PERG 2.4.4

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SUP 13A.3.2GRP
(1) On qualifying for authorisation, subject to SUP 13A.3.2G (2), an EEA firm will have permission to carry on each permitted activity (see (3) below) which is a regulated activity.(2) (a) Paragraph (1) does not apply to the activity of dealing in units in a collective investment scheme in the United Kingdom where:(i) the firm is an EEA UCITS management company;(ii) the firm satisfies the establishment conditions in SUP 13A.4.1 G; and(iii) the FSA notifies the EEA firm and the
PERG 2.6.9GRP
Shares are defined in the Regulated Activities Order as shares or stock in a wide range of entities; that is, any body corporate wherever incorporated and unincorporated bodies formed under the law of a country other than the United Kingdom. They include deferred shares issued by building societies as well as transferable shares in industrial and provident societies, credit unions and equivalent EEA bodies. These shares are transferable and negotiable in a way similar to other
PERG 2.10.8GRP
The exemptions apply so as to confer exemption on persons from the general prohibition in respect of four distinct categories of regulated activities.(1) The first category is carrying on any regulated activity, apart from effecting or carrying out contracts of insurance (or agreeing to do so). Exempt persons here are generally supranational bodies of which the United Kingdom or another EEA State is a member.(2) The second category is the regulated activity of accepting deposits.
COND 2.4.4GRP
(1) When assessing whether a firm will satisfy and continue to satisfy threshold condition 4, the FSA will have regard to all relevant matters, whether arising in the United Kingdom or elsewhere.(2) Relevant matters may include but are not limited to:(a) whether there are any indications that the firm may have difficulties if the application is granted (see COND 2.4.6 G), at the time of the grant or in the future, in complying with any of the FSA'sprudential rules (see the relevant
SUP 15.5.1RRP
A firm must give the FSA reasonable advance notice of a change in:(1) the firm's name (which is the registered name if the firm is a body corporate); (2) any business name under which the firm carries on a regulated activity or ancillary activity either from an establishment in the United Kingdom or with or for clients in the United Kingdom.
SUP 15.3.8GRP
Compliance with Principle 11 includes, but is not limited to, giving the FSA notice of:(1) any proposed restructuring, reorganisation or business expansion which could have a significant impact on the firm's risk profile or resources, including, but not limited to:(a) setting up a new undertaking within a firm'sgroup, or a new branch (whether in the United Kingdom or overseas); or (b) commencing the provision of cross border services into a new territory; or(c) commencing the
FEES 3.2.7RRP

Table of application, notification and vetting fees

(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable

Due date

(a) Any applicant for Part IV permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission)

(1) Unless (2) applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application.

(2) In respect of a particular application which is:

(i) a straightforward or moderately complex case for the purposes of FEES 3 Annex 1 part 1, and

(ii) only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6,

the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11

1

On or before the application is made

(b) Any Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right, except for a firm providing cross border services only4

(1) Where no certificate has been issued under paragraph 3(4) of Schedule 4 to the Act the fee payable is, in respect of a particular exercise, set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, part 4

(2) Where a certificate in (i) has been issued no fee is payable

On or before the notice of exercise is given

(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order

2,000

On or before the application is made

(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition of, a collective investment scheme

FEES 3 Annex 2, part 1

On or before the application is made

(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body.

10,000

30 days after the order is granted

(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body under section 287 or section 288 of the Act

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(h) Any applicant for recognition as an overseas recognised body under section 287 or section 288 and section 292 of the Act

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(i) An applicant for listing (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(j) Applicant for approval as sponsor (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(k) Issuers of tranches from debt issuance programmes and securitised derivative tranches

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

An upfront fee is required per tranche for draw downs in the following 12 months

(l) Under the listing rules, an issuer involved in specific events or transactions during the year where documentation is subject to a transaction vetting

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 1, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA

(m) Under the prospectus rules, an issuer or person requesting approval or vetting of the documents arising in relation to specific events or transactions that it might be involved in during the year

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 2, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA

(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges

50,000

On or before the date the application is made

2(o) Either:5

(i) a firm applying to the FSA for permission to use one of the advanced prudential calculation approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6 R (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the FSA as EEA consolidated supervisor under the ) any firm making such an application ;5 or

(ii) in the case of an application to 5a Home State regulator other than the FSA5for the use of the Internal Ratings Based approach and the Home State regulator requesting the FSA's assistance in accordance with the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 , any firm to which the FSA would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach.5

112555

(1) Unless5 (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6.5

(2) (a) Unless5 (b) applies a1firm submitting a second application for the permission or5guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application

(b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission5 based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1

(c) No fee is payable where the Home State regulator has requested the assistance of the FSAas described in paragraph (o)(ii) of column 1 except in the cases specified in 5FEES 3 Annex 6.2

5251255555

Where the firm has made an application directly to the FSA, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the FSA notifies the firm that its EEA parent's Home State regulator has requested the FSA's assistance.2

2

(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part IV permission

(1) Unless (2) applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1 not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in which apply to that application.

(2) If the only change is that the1 A.12 activity group tariff applied to the firm's business before the variation and the A.13 activity group will apply after variation, no fee is payable(3) In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250, unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part IV permission in which case no fee is payable.1

11

On or before the date the application is made

2(q) A significanttransaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 1.5 billion and it is a new applicant for a primary listing under the listing rules, or involved in a reverse or hostile takeover or a significant restructuring; or

(ii) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 5 billion and is involved in a class 1 transaction or a transaction requiring vetting of an equity prospectus or equivalent document

; or (iii) the issuer is proposing a Depositary Receipt issue intended to raise more than 5billion.

50,000

On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA.3

33

2(r) Providers of reporting or trade matching systems applying for recognition under MiFID as an Approved Reporting Mechanism.

100,0006

6

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FSA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.6

56

5(s) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme, a transferor.

Note - for the purpose of this paragraph an insurance business transfer scheme consists of a single transferor and a single transferee. Where however such a scheme is part of a single larger scheme, that larger scheme is treated as a single insurance business transfer scheme. If an insurance business transfer scheme includes more than one transferor in accordance with this paragraph, the transferors are liable to pay the fee under column (2) jointly.

Either (1) or (2) as set out below:

(1) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme involving long term insurance business, 18,500; or

(2) in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme not involving long term insurance business, 10,000.

On or before any application is made to the FSA for the appointment of a person as an independent expert.

6(t) A firm, a third party acting on a firm's behalf, an operator of a regulated market or an operator of an MTF applying to the FSA to report transaction reports directly to the FSA other than through the FSA's Transaction Reporting System (see FEES 4.2.11 R and FEES 4 Annex 3 for the fees payable for firms using the FSA's Transaction Reporting System).

100,000

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FSA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.
PERG 5.15.2GRP
Flow chart: regulated activities related to insurance mediation activities – do you need authorisation?
PERG 5.15.7GRP
The flow chart in PERG 5.15.8 G sets out the questions a person needs to consider in determining whether or not his regulated activities are carried on 'in the United Kingdom'.
PERG 5.15.8GRP
Flow chart: am I carrying on regulated activities in the United Kingdom?
REC 2.13.1UKRP

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 6

2(1) The [UK RIE] must be able and willing to promote and maintain high standards of integrity and fair dealing in the carrying on of regulated activities by persons in the course of using the facilities provided by the [UK RIE].

(2) The [UK RIE] must be able and willing to cooperate by the sharing of information or otherwise, with the [FSA],with any other authority, body or person having responsibility in the United Kingdom for the supervision or regulation of any regulated activity or other financial service, or with an overseas regulator within the meaning of section 195 of the Act.
REC 2.13.3GRP
In determining whether a UK recognised body is able and willing to promote and maintain high standards of integrity and fair dealing in the carrying on of regulated activities, the FSA may have regard to the extent to which the UK recognised body seeks to promote and encourage, through its rules, practices and procedures, conduct in regulated activities which is consistent with the Code of Market Conduct (see MAR 1) and with any other codes of conduct, rules or principles relating
SUP 14.6.3GRP
Regulation 8 states that where an incoming EEA firm which qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 3:(1) has ceased, or is to cease, to carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom; and(2) gives notice of that fact to the FSA;the notice is treated under regulation 8 as a request for cancellation of the incoming EEA firm's qualification for authorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act and so as a request under section 34(2) of the Act.
REC 6A.1.3GRP
An EEA market operator has exempt person status as respects any regulated activity which is carried on as a part of its business of operating a regulated market or multilateral trading facility if the operator made arrangements in the United Kingdom on or before 31 October 2007 to facilitate access to, or use of, that regulated market or multilateral trading facility.
PERG 8.17.12GRP
Article 28B (Real time communications: introductions) exempts a real time financial promotion that relates to one or more of the controlled activities about regulated mortgage contracts, as well as home reversion plans and home purchase plans2. The exemption is subject to the following conditions being satisfied:2(1) the financial promotion must be made for the purpose of, or with a view to, introducing the recipient to a person ('N') who is:(a) an authorised person who carries
PERG 5.6.17GRP
Article 33 of the Regulated Activities Order (Introducing) excludes arrangements which would otherwise fall under article 25(2) where:(1) they are arrangements under which persons will be introduced to another person;(2) the person to whom introductions are to be made is:(a) an authorised person; or(b) an exempt person acting in the course of business comprising a regulated activity in relation to which he is exempt; or(c) a person who is not unlawfully carrying on regulated activities
PERG 4.5.18GRP
In addition to the exclusion in article 33A, introducers may be able to take advantage of the exclusion in article 33 of the Regulated Activities Order (Introducing). This excludes arrangements where:(1) they are arrangements under which persons will be introduced to another person;(2) the person to whom the introduction is to be made is:(a) an authorised person; or(b) an exempt person acting in the course of business comprising a regulated activity in relation to which he is
PERG 4.5.19GRP
The Regulated Activities Order contains a number of other exclusions which have the effect of preventing certain activities from amounting to regulated activities within article 25. These are referred to in PERG 4.10 (Exclusions applying to more than one regulated activity). There is also an exclusion where both the arranger and borrower are overseas, which is referred to in PERG 4.11 (Link between activities and the United Kingdom).
PERG 5.11.9GRP
Article 67 excludes from the activities of dealing as agent, arranging (bringing about) deals in investments, making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments, assisting in the administration and performance of a contract of insurance and advising on investments, any activity which:(1) is carried on in the course of carrying on any profession or business which does not otherwise consist of the carrying on of regulated activities in the United Kingdom; and(2) may
SUP 13A.7.1GRP
If a person established in the EEA: (1) does not have an EEA right; (2) does not have permission as a UCITS qualifier; and(3) does not have, or does not wish to exercise, a Treaty right (see SUP 13A.3.4 G to SUP 13A.3.11 G);to carry on a particular regulated activity in the United Kingdom, it must seek Part IV permission from the FSA to do so (see the FSA website "How do I get authorised": http://www.fsa.gov.uk/Pages/Doing/how/index.shtml1). This might arise if the activity itself
SUP 13A.7.2GRP
Where the FSA grants a top-up permission to an incoming EEA firm to carry on regulated activities for which it has neither an EEA right nor a Treaty right, the FSA is responsible for the prudential supervision of the incoming EEA firm, to the extent that the responsibility is not reserved to the incoming EEA firm'sHome State regulator.
GEN 4.1.1RRP
1This chapter applies to every firm and with respect to every regulated activity, except that:(1) for an incoming ECA provider, this chapter does not apply when the firm is acting as such;(2) for an incoming EEA firm which has permission only for cross-border services and which does not carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom, this chapter does not apply;(3) for an incoming firm not falling under (1) or (2), this chapter does not apply to the extent that the firm is
REC 6.7.8RRP
Where an overseas recognised body has notice that any licence, permission or authorisation which it requires to conduct any regulated activity in its home territory has been or is about to be:(1) revoked; or(2) modified in any way which would materially restrict the overseas recognised body in performing any regulated activity in its home territory or in the United Kingdom;it must immediately notify the FSA of that fact and must give the FSA the information specified for the purposes
REC 6.7.9RRP
The following information is specified for the purposes of REC 6.7.8 R:(1) particulars of the licence, permission or authorisation which has been or is to be revoked or modified, including particulars of the overseas recognised body's regulated activities to which it relates;(2) an explanation of how the revocation or modification restricts or will restrict the overseas recognised body in carrying on any regulated activity in its home territory or in the United Kingdom;(3) the