Related provisions for SUP 18.2.50

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COLL 5.2.10RRP
(1) A market is eligible for the purposes of the rules in this sourcebook if it is:(a) a regulated market;(b) a market in an EEA State which is regulated, operates regularly and is open to the public; or(c) any market within (2).(2) A market not falling within (1)(a) and (b) is eligible for the purposes of the rules in this sourcebook if:(a) the authorised fund manager, after consultation with and notification to the depositary (and in the case of an ICVC, any other directors),
BIPRU 4.10.8GRP
(1) Under paragraph 16 of Part 1 of Annex VIII of the Banking Consolidation Directive, a competent authority may only disapply the condition in BIPRU 4.10.6 R (3) if the competent authority has evidence that the relevant market is well-developed and long-established with loss-rates which are sufficiently low to justify such action.(2) If the evidence were to change so that the action was no longer justified the FSA would expect to revoke BIPRU 4.10.7 R.
BIPRU 4.10.17GRP
If a firm wishes to recognise other types of collateral in accordance with BIPRU 4.10.16 R (whether as part of its application for an IRB permission or under a variation of its IRB permission) it should demonstrate to the FSA how the criteria in BIPRU 4.10.16 R (1) - BIPRU 4.10.16 R (3) have been met with respect to that type of collateral.
BIPRU 5.4.16RRP
A firm must not use both the financial collateral simple method and the financial collateral comprehensive method.[Note:BCD Annex VIII Part 3 point 24 (part)]
BIPRU 5.4.55GRP
The FSA may also require a firm to calculate its volatility adjustments using a shorter observation period if, in the FSA's judgement, this is justified by a significant upsurge in price volatility.
DTR 5.8.2RRP
(1) A notification required of voting rights arising from the holding of financial instruments must include the following information:(a) the resulting situation in terms of voting rights;(b) if applicable, the chain of controlled undertakings through which financial instruments are effectively held;(c) the date on which the threshold was reached or crossed;(d) for instruments with an exercise period, an indication of the date or time period where shares will or can be acquired,
DISP 2.6.4RRP
The Voluntary Jurisdiction covers only complaints about the activities of a VJ participant carried on from an establishment:519(1) in the United Kingdom; or(2) elsewhere in the EEA if the following conditions are met:(a) the activity is directed wholly or partly at the United Kingdom (or part of it);(b) contracts governing the activity are (or, in the case of a potential customer, would have been) made under the law of England and Wales, Scotland or Northern Ireland; and(c) the
PERG 8.21.20GRP
Article 702 applies to a non-real time financial promotion included in:2(1) listing particulars1; or21(2) supplementary listing particulars1; or21(3) a prospectus or supplementary prospectus approved in line with Prospectus Rules or by the competent authority of another EEA State (provided the requirements of section 87H of the Act are met) – including part of such a prospectus or supplementary prospectus2; or2112(4) any other document required or permitted to be published by
SUP 15.7.9GRP
Firms wishing to communicate with the FSA by electronic mail or fax should obtain the appropriate address or number from the FSA
FEES 3.2.7RRP

Table of application, notification and vetting fees

(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable

Due date

(a) Any applicant for Part IV permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission)

(1) Unless (2) applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application.

(2) In respect of a particular application which is:

(i) a straightforward or moderately complex case for the purposes of FEES 3 Annex 1 part 1, and

(ii) only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6,

the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11

1

On or before the application is made

(b) Any Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right, except for a firm providing cross border services only4

(1) Where no certificate has been issued under paragraph 3(4) of Schedule 4 to the Act the fee payable is, in respect of a particular exercise, set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, part 4

(2) Where a certificate in (i) has been issued no fee is payable

On or before the notice of exercise is given

(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order

2,000

On or before the application is made

(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition of, a collective investment scheme

FEES 3 Annex 2, part 1

On or before the application is made

(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body.

10,000

30 days after the order is granted

(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body under section 287 or section 288 of the Act

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(h) Any applicant for recognition as an overseas recognised body under section 287 or section 288 and section 292 of the Act

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(i) An applicant for listing (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(j) Applicant for approval as sponsor (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(k) Issuers of tranches from debt issuance programmes and securitised derivative tranches

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

An upfront fee is required per tranche for draw downs in the following 12 months

(l) Under the listing rules, an issuer involved in specific events or transactions during the year where documentation is subject to a transaction vetting

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 1, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA

(m) Under the prospectus rules, an issuer or person requesting approval or vetting of the documents arising in relation to specific events or transactions that it might be involved in during the year

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 2, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA

(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges

50,000

On or before the date the application is made

2(o) Either:5

(i) a firm applying to the FSA for permission to use one of the advanced prudential calculation approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6 R (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the FSA as EEA consolidated supervisor under the ) any firm making such an application ;5 or

(ii) in the case of an application to 5a Home State regulator other than the FSA5for the use of the Internal Ratings Based approach and the Home State regulator requesting the FSA's assistance in accordance with the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 , any firm to which the FSA would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach.5

112555

(1) Unless5 (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6.5

(2) (a) Unless5 (b) applies a1firm submitting a second application for the permission or5guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application

(b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission5 based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1

(c) No fee is payable where the Home State regulator has requested the assistance of the FSAas described in paragraph (o)(ii) of column 1 except in the cases specified in 5FEES 3 Annex 6.2

5251255555

Where the firm has made an application directly to the FSA, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the FSA notifies the firm that its EEA parent's Home State regulator has requested the FSA's assistance.2

2

(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part IV permission

(1) Unless (2) applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1 not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in which apply to that application.

(2) If the only change is that the1 A.12 activity group tariff applied to the firm's business before the variation and the A.13 activity group will apply after variation, no fee is payable(3) In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250, unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part IV permission in which case no fee is payable.1

11

On or before the date the application is made

2(q) A significanttransaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 1.5 billion and it is a new applicant for a primary listing under the listing rules, or involved in a reverse or hostile takeover or a significant restructuring; or

(ii) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 5 billion and is involved in a class 1 transaction or a transaction requiring vetting of an equity prospectus or equivalent document

; or (iii) the issuer is proposing a Depositary Receipt issue intended to raise more than 5billion.

50,000

On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA.3

33

2(r) Providers of reporting or trade matching systems applying for recognition under MiFID as an Approved Reporting Mechanism.

100,0006

6

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FSA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.6

56

5(s) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme, a transferor.

Note - for the purpose of this paragraph an insurance business transfer scheme consists of a single transferor and a single transferee. Where however such a scheme is part of a single larger scheme, that larger scheme is treated as a single insurance business transfer scheme. If an insurance business transfer scheme includes more than one transferor in accordance with this paragraph, the transferors are liable to pay the fee under column (2) jointly.

Either (1) or (2) as set out below:

(1) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme involving long term insurance business, 18,500; or

(2) in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme not involving long term insurance business, 10,000.

On or before any application is made to the FSA for the appointment of a person as an independent expert.

6(t) A firm, a third party acting on a firm's behalf, an operator of a regulated market or an operator of an MTF applying to the FSA to report transaction reports directly to the FSA other than through the FSA's Transaction Reporting System (see FEES 4.2.11 R and FEES 4 Annex 3 for the fees payable for firms using the FSA's Transaction Reporting System).

100,000

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FSA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.
DISP 3.5.12GRP
15The Ombudsman may take into account evidence from third parties, including (but not limited to) the FSA , other regulators, experts in industry matters and experts in consumer matters.
SUP 4.2.5GRP
Actuaries3 act as a valuable source of information to the FSA in carrying out its functions. For example, in determining whether a firm satisfies the threshold conditions, the FSA has regard to whether the firm has appointed an actuary3 with sufficient experience in the areas of business to be conducted by the firm (COND 2.5.7 G (11)).3
SYSC 9.1.1RRP
A firm must arrange for orderly records to be kept of its business and internal organisation, including all services and transactions undertaken by it, which must be sufficient to enable the FSA or any other relevant competent authority under MiFID to monitor the firm's compliance with the requirements under the regulatory system, and in particular to ascertain that the firm has complied with all obligations with respect to clients.[Note: article 13(6) of MiFID and article 5(1)(f)
PR 1.1.1RRP
(1) 1PR 2, PR 3, PR 4.2, PR 5.1, PR 5.3.1 UK to PR 5.3.3 G and PR 5.5 only apply (subject to paragraph (2)) in relation to:(a) an offer, or a request for admission to trading of transferable securities, in respect of which section 85 of the Act applies (other than an exempt offer under section 86 of the Act) and in relation to which the United Kingdom is the Home State;(b) an offer, or a request for admission to trading of transferable securities, where under section 87 of the
SUP 11.1.2RRP

Applicable sections (see SUP 11.1.1 R)

Category of firm

Applicable sections

(1)

A UK domestic firm other than a building society, a non-directive friendly society or a UK insurance intermediary3

All except SUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2A RandSUP 11.4.4 R3

(1A)

A building society

(a) In the case of an exempt change in control (see Note), SUP 11.1, SUP 11.2andSUP 11.9

(b) In any other case, all except SUP 11.3, RandSUP 11.4.4 R3

(2)

A non-directive friendly society

SUP 11.1, SUP 11.2, andSUP 11.9

(2A) 3

A UK insurance intermediary3

all exceptSUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2 R, SUP 11.4.3 GandSUP 11.4.4 R3

(3)

An overseas firm

All except SUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2 R, SUP 11.4.2A R, SUP 11.4.3 G, SUP 11.4.9 G, SUP 11.5.8 G to SUP 11.5.10 G, SUP 11.6.2 R, SUP 11.6.3 R, SUP 11.6.6 G, SUP 11.73

Note

In row (1A), a change in control is exempt if the controller or proposed controller is exempt from any obligation to notify the FSA under Part XII of the Act (Control over Authorised Persons) because of The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Controllers) (Exemption) (No 2) Order 2001 (SI 2001/3338). (See SUP 11.3.2A G).21
SUP App 2.15.14GRP
The FSA may request additional information and explanations from the firm. (See section 165 (Authority's power to require information) of the Act.)
REC 2.9.3GRP
In determining whether a UK recognised body has satisfactory arrangements for recording the transactions effected on, or cleared or to be cleared by means of, its facilities, the FSA may have regard to:(1) whether the UK recognised body has arrangements for creating, maintaining and safeguarding an audit trail of transactions for at least three years (five years in respect of transactions carried out by members who are not incorporated in the United Kingdom if the UK recognised
PRIN 4.1.2GRP
Under PRIN 3.3.1 R, the territorial application of a number of Principles to a UK MiFID investment firm is extended to the extent that another applicable rule which is relevant to an activity has a wider territorial scope. Under PRIN 3.1.1 R, the territorial application of a number of Principles to an EEAMiFID investment firm is narrowed to the extent that responsibility for the matter in question is reserved to the firm'sHome State regulator. These modifications are relevant
SUP 15.9.4RRP
A firm does not have to give notice to the FSA under SUP 15.9.1 R if it or another member of the consolidation group has already given notice of the relevant fact to:(1) the FSA; or(2) (if another competent authority is co-ordinator of the financial conglomerate ) that competent authority; or(3) (in the case of a financial conglomerate that does not yet have a co-ordinator ) the competent authority who would be co-ordinator under Article 10(2) of the Financial Groups Directive