Related provisions for DISP App 1.4.12

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SUP 14.1.2GRP
SUP 14.6 (Cancelling qualification for authorisation), which sets out how to cancel qualification for authorisation under the Act, also applies to:(1) an incoming Treaty firm that qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act; and(2) a UCITS qualifier that is an authorised person under Schedule 5 to the Act; a UCITS qualifier should, however, refer to COLL 9.4.2 R and CIS for full details of applicable rules and guidance.2
SUP 14.1.4GRP
This chapter gives guidance on the Act and the EEA Passport Rights Regulations made under the Act, for an incoming EEA firm which has established a branch in, or is providing cross border services into, the United Kingdom and wishes to change the details of the branch or cross border services. 5
SUP 14.1.6GRP
This chapter does not, however, give guidance on the procedures for the establishment of a branch in, or the providing of cross border services into, the United Kingdom for the first time. So, an incoming EEA firm that wishes to change or supplement the nature of its operations in the United Kingdom from the providing of cross border services to the establishment of a branch (or vice versa) should refer to 3SUP 13A3 (Qualifying for authorisation under the Act).
SUP 14.1.7GRP
In addition, the chapter does not give guidance on the procedures for making an application for top-up permission, to carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom which are outside the scope of the Single Market Directives and for which the firm cannot exercise Treaty rights. Incoming EEA firms seeking a top-up permission should refer to 3SUP 13A3.
PERG 4.1.2GRP
With effect from 31 October 2004 certain activities relating to mortgages have been regulated by the FSA. The purpose of this guidance is to help persons decide whether they need authorisation and, if they do, to determine the scope of the Part IV permission for which they will need to apply.
PERG 4.1.3GRP
This guidance is issued under section 157 of Act (Guidance). It is designed to throw light on particular aspects of regulatory requirements, not to be an exhaustive description of a person's obligations. If a person acts in line with the guidance in the circumstances contemplated by it, then the FSA will proceed on the footing that the person has complied with aspects of the requirement to which the guidance relates.
PERG 4.1.4GRP
Rights conferred on third parties cannot be affected by guidance given by the FSA. This guidance represents the FSA's view, and does not bind the courts, for example, in relation to an action for damages brought by a private person for breach of a rule (see section 150 of the Act (Action for damages)), or in relation to the enforceability of a contract where there has been a breach of the general prohibition on carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom without authorisation
PERG 4.1.5GRP
Anyone reading this guidance should refer to the Act and to the various Orders that are referred to in this guidance. These should be used to find out the precise scope and effect of any particular provision referred to in this guidance.
PERG 4.1.6GRP
A person may be intending to carry on activities related to other forms of investment in connection with mortgages, such as advising on and arranging an endowment policy or ISA to repay an interest-only mortgage. Such a person should also consult the guidance in PERG 2 (Authorisation and regulated activities) PERG 5 (Guidance on insurance mediation activities) and PERG 8 (Financial promotion and related activities). In addition, PERG 14 (Guidance on home reversion and home purchase
SUP 9.3.1GRP
Business and internal control risks vary from firm to firm, according to the nature and complexity of the business. The FSA's assessment of these risks is reflected in how its rules apply to different categories of firm as well as in the use of its other regulatory tools. One of the tools the FSA has available is to give a firm individual guidance on the application of the requirements or standards under the regulatory system in the firm's particular circumstances.
SUP 9.3.2GRP
The FSA may give individual guidance to a firm on its own initiative if it considers it appropriate to do so. For example:(1) the FSA may consider that general guidance in the Handbook does not appropriately fit a firm's particular circumstances (which may be permanent or temporary) and therefore decide to give additional individual guidance to the firm;(2) some of the FSA's requirements are expressed in general terms; however, there may be times when the FSA will wish to respond
SUP 9.3.3GRP
If the FSA intends to give a firm individual guidance on its own initiative, it will normally seek to discuss the issue with the firm and agree suitable individual guidance.
SUP 9.3.4GRP
Individual guidance given to a firm on the FSA's own initiative will normally be given in writing.
SUP 15.3.4GRP
Guidance on satisfaction of the threshold conditions is given in COND.
SUP 15.3.5GRP
A firm making a notification in accordance with SUP 15.3.1 R should consider the guidance in SUP 15.7.2 G and notify the FSA by telephone if appropriate.
SUP 15.3.8GRP
Compliance with Principle 11 includes, but is not limited to, giving the FSA notice of:(1) any proposed restructuring, reorganisation or business expansion which could have a significant impact on the firm's risk profile or resources, including, but not limited to:(a) setting up a new undertaking within a firm'sgroup, or a new branch (whether in the United Kingdom or overseas); or (b) commencing the provision of cross border services into a new territory; or(c) commencing the
SUP 15.3.10GRP
A notification under Principle 11 may be given orally or in writing (as set out in SUP 15.7.1 R and SUP 15.7.2 G), although the FSA may request written confirmation of a matter. However, it is the responsibility of a firm to ensure that matters are properly and clearly communicated to the FSA. A firm should provide a written notification if a matter either is complex or may be such as to make it necessary for the FSA to take action. A firm should also have regard to Principle
SUP 15.3.11AGRP
6SUP 15.3.11 R (1)(e) relates to the standard requirement in the permission of those firms which fall outside MiFID because of the Treasury's implementation of Article 3 of MiFID. Guidance on how the Treasury has exercised the Article 3 exemption for the United Kingdom is given in Q48 and the following questions and answers in PERG 13.5 (Exemptions from MiFID).
SUP 15.3.13GRP
In assessing whether an event that may occur in the foreseeable future should be notified to the FSA, a firm should consider the guidance in SUP 15.3.3 G.
SUP 12.1.2GRP
This chapter gives guidance to a firm, which is considering appointing an appointed representative, on how the provisions of section 39 of the Act (Exemption of appointed representatives) work. For example, it gives guidance on the conditions that must be satisfied for a person to be appointed as an appointed representative. It also gives guidance to a firm on the implications, for the firm itself, of appointing an appointed representative.
SUP 12.1.3GRP
The chapter also sets out the FSA'srules, and guidance on these rules, that apply to a firm before it appoints, when it appoints and when it has appointed an appointed representative. The main purpose of these rules is to place responsibility on a firm for seeking to ensure that: (1) its appointed representatives are fit and proper to deal with clients in its name; and (2) clients dealing with its appointed representatives are afforded the same level of protection as if they had
SUP 12.1.5GRP
2This chapter also sets out guidance about section 39A of the Act, which is relevant to a UK MiFID investment firm that is considering appointing an FSA registered tied agent. It also sets out the FSA'srules, and guidance on those rules, in relation to the appointment of an EEA tied agent by a UK MiFID investment firm.
BIPRU 4.3.34GRP
(1) This paragraph sets out guidance on assessing the adequacy of a rating system's discriminative power (see BIPRU 4.3.30 R (3) on the meaning of discriminative power).(2) A firm should be able to explain the performance of its rating systems against its chosen measure (or measures) of discriminative power. In making this comparison a firm should rely primarily on actual historic default experience where this is available. In particular, a firm should be able to explain:(a) the
BIPRU 4.3.49GRP
(1) This paragraph contains guidance on BIPRU 4.3.43 R and more general guidance about the governance of rating systems.(2) In determining the assignment referred to in BIPRU 4.3.43 R, a firm should have regard to the sensitivity of the rating to movements in fundamental risk drivers.(3) A firm should, for any rating system, be able to demonstrate that it acts appropriately or has an appropriate policy, as applicable, with respect to:(a) any deficiencies caused by its not being
BIPRU 4.3.52GRP
(1) This paragraph contains guidance on BIPRU 4.3.51 R (7).(2) BIPRU 4.3.51 R (7) does not require that each individual assignment of an exposure to a pool or grade should be the subject of an open-ended review by reference to factors not covered by the model if:(a) that is not necessary in order to meet the requirements of BIPRU 4 about the ability of the rating system to predict and to discriminate (as referred to in BIPRU 4.3.29 R to BIPRU 4.3.30 R (Validation of internal estimates));
BIPRU 4.3.53GRP
(1) This paragraph contains guidance on BIPRU 4.3.51 R for the use of external models.(2) BIPRU 4.3.51 R (2) - BIPRU 4.3.51 R (8) also apply to mechanical methods to assign exposures or obligors to facility grades or pools and to a combination of models and mechanical methods.(3) The standards which a firm applies to an external model should not be lower than those for internal models. (4) The FSA will not accredit any individual model or vendor. The burden is on a firm to satisfy
BIPRU 4.3.60GRP
(1) This paragraph contains guidance on the definition of default.(2) If:(a) a firm ordinarily assigns exposures in the sovereign, institution and corporate IRB exposure class to a member of a group substantially on the basis of membership of that group and a common group rating; and(b) the firm does so in the case of a particular group;(3) the firm should consider whether members of that group should be treated as a single obligor for the purpose of the definition of default.(4)
BIPRU 4.3.61GRP
(1) This paragraph contains guidance on the meaning of days past due for the purposes of the definition of default.(2) If an amount is overdue by the relevant number of days past due because of administrative oversight on the part of the obligor or the firm, a firm with sufficient information may, retrospectively if necessary, treat that as not involving a default if:(a) that failure is not associated with any increase in the risk referred to in BIPRU 4.3.56 R (1); and(b) treating
BIPRU 4.3.75GRP
(1) This paragraph provides guidance on BIPRU 4.3.73 R.(2) Relevant data and information under BIPRU 4.3.73 R includes external data.(3) Where internal default and loss experience is scarce, a firm should consider using material relevant external information. When using external information such as industry averages when determining LGD or conversion factors, a firm should consider whether this data is appropriate to its own experience and whether adjustments are necessary.
BIPRU 4.3.132GRP
(1) This paragraph contains guidance about the interpretation of the requirements relating to comparability in BIPRU 4.3.85 R. It is also relevant to the requirement for representative data in BIPRU 4.3.51 R (5), to the references to comparability in the additional guidance in BIPRU 4.3.53 G (7)(b) and to the requirements for similarity in BIPRU 4.3.92 R.(2) In general, comparability should be based on analyses of the population of exposures represented in the data, the lending
BIPRU 4.2.4GRP
(1) This guidance sets out the basis on which a firm may rely upon a rating system or data provided by another member of its group.(2) A firm may rely upon a rating system or data provided by another member of its group if the following conditions are satisfied:(a) the firm only does so to the extent that it is appropriate, given the nature and scale of the firm's business and portfolios and the firm's position within the group;(b) the group is an EEA banking and investment group;(c)
BIPRU 4.2.5GRP
(1) This paragraph provides guidance on BIPRU 4.2.2 R and in particular BIPRU 4.2.2 R (1).(2) The information that a firm produces or uses for the purpose of the IRB approach should be reliable and take proper account of the different users of the information produced (customers, shareholders, regulators and other market participants).(3) A firm should establish quantified and documented targets and standards, against which it should test the accuracy of data used in its rating
BIPRU 4.2.7GRP
(1) This paragraph provides guidance on BIPRU 4.2.2 R and in particular BIPRU 4.2.2 R (2).(2) The IRB approach as applicable to a firm should be an integral part of its business and risk management processes and procedures to the extent that credit risk is relevant to them. It should also have a substantial influence on its decision-making and actions.21(a) particular regard should be had to the use of the IRB approach in: (i) credit approval;(ii) individual and portfolio limit
BIPRU 4.2.8GRP
This paragraph provides further guidance on BIPRU 4.2.2 R and in particular BIPRU 4.2.2 R (2). In the FSA's view risk management has an essential role in informing risk decisions. However, an essential role does not necessarily mean an exclusive role or even always a primary role. There may be justifiable differences between the IRB approach and the firm's use of rating systems for its internal purposes as referred to in BIPRU 4.2.2 R (2). For example, internal standards and policies
BIPRU 4.2.21GRP
(1) A firm should achieve full roll-out of the IRB approach to all its exposures, subject to the exemptions outlined in BIPRU 4.2.26 R, within the period specified in its IRB permission. A firm should not retain a permanent mix of portfolios on the standardised approach and the IRB approach, on the foundation IRB approach and the advanced IRB approach or on a mixture of all approaches with the exception of portfolios covered by those exemptions.(2) This applies to a move:(a) from
BIPRU 4.2.35GRP
(1) This guidance deals with some possible effects of acquiring a major new business after the grant of an IRB permission.(2) A firm should if possible ensure that the exposures arising through the acquisition are dealt with in accordance with the firm'sIRB permission.(3) If the acquisition is made during the currency of a roll out plan under BIPRU 4.2.18 R, a firm should ensure that the exposures arising through the acquisition are dealt with in accordance with that plan. For
SUP 9.1.2GRP
Individual guidance is guidance that is not given to persons or regulated persons generally or to a class of regulated person. It will normally be given to one particular person, which relates to its own particular circumstances or plans. It may be oral or written. Individual guidance will not be published but may at the FSA's discretion be converted to general guidance and published in the Handbook. Written individual guidance will often be labelled as such1
SUP 9.1.3GRP
A person may need to ask the FSA for individual guidance on how the rules and general guidance in the Handbook, the Act or other regulatory requirements apply in their particular circumstances. This chapter describes how a person may do this. Section 157 of the Act gives the FSA the power to give guidance consisting of such information and advice as it considers appropriate.
SUP 9.1.4GRP
The FSA may at times also consider it appropriate to give a firm individual guidance on its own initiative, for example on how it considers a firm should comply with a rule. SUP 9.3 describes when and how the FSA will seek to do this.
PERG 8.23.2GRP
Anyone who is carrying on a regulated activity is likely to make financial promotions in the course of or for the purposes of carrying on that activity. It is beyond the scope of this guidance to cover regulated activities as such (for a general guide see PERG 2). There are circumstances, however, where persons whose main aim is either:(1) to make financial promotions for their own purposes or on behalf of others; or(2) to help other persons to make financial promotions;may find
PERG 8.23.4GRP
The guidance that follows is concerned with the regulated activities of making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments1and advising on investments. Guidance on the regulated activities of making arrangements with a view to regulated mortgage contracts1and advising on regulated mortgage contracts is in PERG 4 (Guidance on regulated activities1 connected with mortgages). Guidance on the regulated activities of making arrangements with a view to a home reversion plan
FEES 3.2.7RRP

Table of application, notification and vetting fees

(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable

Due date

(a) Any applicant for Part IV permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission)

(1) Unless (2) applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application.

(2) In respect of a particular application which is:

(i) a straightforward or moderately complex case for the purposes of FEES 3 Annex 1 part 1, and

(ii) only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6,

the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11

1

On or before the application is made

(b) Any Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right, except for a firm providing cross border services only4

(1) Where no certificate has been issued under paragraph 3(4) of Schedule 4 to the Act the fee payable is, in respect of a particular exercise, set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, part 4

(2) Where a certificate in (i) has been issued no fee is payable

On or before the notice of exercise is given

(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order

2,000

On or before the application is made

(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition of, a collective investment scheme

FEES 3 Annex 2, part 1

On or before the application is made

(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body.

10,000

30 days after the order is granted

(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body under section 287 or section 288 of the Act

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(h) Any applicant for recognition as an overseas recognised body under section 287 or section 288 and section 292 of the Act

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(i) An applicant for listing (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(j) Applicant for approval as sponsor (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(k) Issuers of tranches from debt issuance programmes and securitised derivative tranches

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

An upfront fee is required per tranche for draw downs in the following 12 months

(l) Under the listing rules, an issuer involved in specific events or transactions during the year where documentation is subject to a transaction vetting

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 1, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA

(m) Under the prospectus rules, an issuer or person requesting approval or vetting of the documents arising in relation to specific events or transactions that it might be involved in during the year

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 2, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA

(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges

50,000

On or before the date the application is made

2(o) Either:5

(i) a firm applying to the FSA for permission to use one of the advanced prudential calculation approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6 R (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the FSA as EEA consolidated supervisor under the ) any firm making such an application ;5 or

(ii) in the case of an application to 5a Home State regulator other than the FSA5for the use of the Internal Ratings Based approach and the Home State regulator requesting the FSA's assistance in accordance with the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 , any firm to which the FSA would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach.5

112555

(1) Unless5 (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6.5

(2) (a) Unless5 (b) applies a1firm submitting a second application for the permission or5guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application

(b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission5 based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1

(c) No fee is payable where the Home State regulator has requested the assistance of the FSAas described in paragraph (o)(ii) of column 1 except in the cases specified in 5FEES 3 Annex 6.2

5251255555

Where the firm has made an application directly to the FSA, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the FSA notifies the firm that its EEA parent's Home State regulator has requested the FSA's assistance.2

2

(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part IV permission

(1) Unless (2) applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1 not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in which apply to that application.

(2) If the only change is that the1 A.12 activity group tariff applied to the firm's business before the variation and the A.13 activity group will apply after variation, no fee is payable(3) In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250, unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part IV permission in which case no fee is payable.1

11

On or before the date the application is made

2(q) A significanttransaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 1.5 billion and it is a new applicant for a primary listing under the listing rules, or involved in a reverse or hostile takeover or a significant restructuring; or

(ii) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 5 billion and is involved in a class 1 transaction or a transaction requiring vetting of an equity prospectus or equivalent document

; or (iii) the issuer is proposing a Depositary Receipt issue intended to raise more than 5billion.

50,000

On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA.3

33

2(r) Providers of reporting or trade matching systems applying for recognition under MiFID as an Approved Reporting Mechanism.

100,0006

6

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FSA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.6

56

5(s) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme, a transferor.

Note - for the purpose of this paragraph an insurance business transfer scheme consists of a single transferor and a single transferee. Where however such a scheme is part of a single larger scheme, that larger scheme is treated as a single insurance business transfer scheme. If an insurance business transfer scheme includes more than one transferor in accordance with this paragraph, the transferors are liable to pay the fee under column (2) jointly.

Either (1) or (2) as set out below:

(1) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme involving long term insurance business, 18,500; or

(2) in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme not involving long term insurance business, 10,000.

On or before any application is made to the FSA for the appointment of a person as an independent expert.

6(t) A firm, a third party acting on a firm's behalf, an operator of a regulated market or an operator of an MTF applying to the FSA to report transaction reports directly to the FSA other than through the FSA's Transaction Reporting System (see FEES 4.2.11 R and FEES 4 Annex 3 for the fees payable for firms using the FSA's Transaction Reporting System).

100,000

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FSA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.
SUP 13A.1.1GRP
(1) 1This chapter applies to an EEA firm that wishes to exercise an entitlement to establish a branch in, or provide cross border services into, the United Kingdom under a Single Market Directive. (The Act refers to such an entitlement as an EEA right and its exercise is referred to in the Handbook as "passporting".) (See SUP App 3 (Guidance on passporting issues) for further guidance on passporting.)(2) This chapter also applies to:(a) a Treaty firm that wishes to exercise rights
SUP 13A.1.2GRP
This chapter does not apply to:(1) an EEA firm that wishes to carry on in the United Kingdom activities which are outside the scope of its EEA right and the scope of a permission granted under Schedule 4 to the Act; in this case the EEA firm requires a "top-up permission" under Part IV of the Act (see the FSA website "How do I get authorised":http://www.fsa.gov.uk/Pages/Doing/how/index.shtml3); or 3(2) an EEA firm that carries on any insurance activity:(a) by the provision of
SUP 13A.1.4GRP
(1) This chapter explains how an EEA firm and a Treaty firm can qualify for authorisation under Schedules 3 and 4 to the Act and how a UCITS qualifier is authorised under Schedule 5 to the Act. (2) This chapter also provides guidance on Schedule 3 to the Act for an incoming EEA firm that wishes to establish a branch in the United Kingdom instead of, or in addition to, providing cross border services into the United Kingdom or vice versa.
SUP 13A.1.5GRP
(1) EEA firms should note that this chapter only addresses the procedures which the FSA will follow under the Act after it has received a consent notice or been notified of an EEA firm's intentions by its Home State regulator. So, an EEA firm should consider this guidance in conjunction with the requirements with which it will have to comply in its Home State. (2) The guidance in this chapter represents the FSA's interpretation of the Single Market Directives, the Act and the
DTR 1.1.1RRP
1The disclosure rules apply as follows:(1) DTR 1 and DTR 2 apply to an issuer whose financial instruments are admitted to trading on a regulated market in the United Kingdom or for which a request for admission to trading on a regulated market in the United Kingdom has been made;(2) DTR 3 applies to an issuer that is incorporated in the United Kingdom:(a) whose financial instruments are admitted to trading on a regulated market; or(b) for whose financial instruments a request
DTR 1.1.2GRP
The purpose of the disclosure rules is to implement:(1) Article 6 of the Market Abuse Directive;(2) Articles 2 and 3 of Commission Directive 2003/124/EC; and(3) Articles 5 and 6 of Commission Directive 2004/72/EC.
DTR 1.1.3GRP
In relation to the disclosure rules, the FSA is exercising its functions as the competent authority under Part VI of the Act (see section 72(1) of the Act).Other relevant parts of HandbookNote: Other parts of the Handbook that may also be relevant to persons to whom the disclosure rules apply include DEPP (Decision Procedure and Penalties Manual)3 and 3Chapter 9 of SUP (the Supervision manual).The following Regulatory Guides are also relevant:31. The Enforcement Guide (EG)32.
COND 2.3.12GRP
The guidance in COND 2.3 is not comprehensive and is not a substitute for consulting the relevant legislation, for example the Companies Act 1985, the Companies (Northern Ireland) Order 1986, the Friendly Societies Act 1992 and the Seventh Company Law Directive, or obtaining appropriate professional advice.
PERG 1.2.1GRP
(1) The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (the Act) is the UK legislation under which bodies corporate, partnerships, individuals and unincorporated associations are permitted by the FSA to carry on various financial activities which are subject to regulation (referred to as regulated activities).(2) The activities which are regulated activities are specified in the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001 (the Regulated Activities Order):
PERG 1.2.2GRP
(1) The Act, and the secondary legislation made under the Act, is complex. Although PERG gives guidance about regulated activities and financial promotions, it does not aim to, nor can it, be exhaustive.(2) References have been made to relevant provisions in the Act or secondary legislation. However, since reproducing an entire statutory provision would sometimes require a lengthy quotation, or considerable further explanation, many provisions of the Act, or secondary legislation
PERG 1.2.4GRP
PERG 1.4.1 G (General guidance to be found in PERG) summarises the general guidance contained in PERG. Readers should note that in a cross-reference, as explained in paragraph 40 of the Readers' Guide, the code letters of the manual or sourcebook immediately precede the chapter number. For example, PERG 1 is the first chapter of the Perimeter Guidance manual. PERG 1.5 provides details of and links to other general guidance on perimeter issues that is available on the FSA webs
SUP 15.1.5GRP
Firms are reminded that, unless expressly stated otherwise, where a rule or guidance includes a reference to a firm this includes all UK and overseas branches and representative offices of that firm, whether or not those branches or offices carry on any regulated activities.44
REC 2.5A.2GRP
(1) The purposes of this section are to:(a) provide UK recognised bodies with guidance regarding the provisions of PIDA; and(b) Encourage UK recognised bodies to consider adopting and communicating to workers appropriate internal procedures for handling workers' concerns as part of an effective risk management system.(2) In this section "worker" includes, but is not limited to, an individual who has entered into a contract of employment.
REC 2.5A.3GRP
The guidance in this section concerns the effect of PIDA in the context of the relationship between UK recognised bodies and the FSA. It is not comprehensive guidance on PIDA itself.
REC 2.5A.6GRP
(1) UK recognised bodies are encouraged to consider adopting appropriate internal procedures which will encourage their workers with concerns to blow the whistle internally about matters which are relevant to the functions of the FSA.(2) In considering appropriate internal procedures, UK recognised bodiesmay find the guidance provided to firms in SYSC 18.2.2 G (2) and SYSC 18.2.2 G (3)1 helpful.1
SYSC 2.1.5GRP
SYSC 2.1.3 R and SYSC 2.1.4 R give a firm some flexibility in the individuals to whom the functions may be allocated. It will be common for both the functions to be allocated solely to the firm's chief executive. SYSC 2.1.6 G contains further guidance on the requirements of SYSC 2.1.3 R and SYSC 2.1.4 R in a question and answer form.
SYSC 2.1.6GRP

Frequently asked questions about allocation of functions in SYSC 2.1.3 R

This table belongs to SYSC 2.1.5 G

Question

Answer

1

Does an individual to whom a function is allocated under SYSC 2.1.3 R need to be an approved person?

An individual to whom a function is allocated under SYSC 2.1.3 R will be performing the apportionment and oversight function (CF 8, see SUP 10.7.1 R) and an application must be made to the FSA for approval of the individual before the function is performed under section 59 of the Act (Approval for particular arrangements). There are exceptions from this in SUP 10.1 (Approved persons - Application).

5

2

If the allocation is to more than one individual, can they perform the functions, or aspects of the functions, separately?

If the functions are allocated to joint chief executives under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2, they are expected to act jointly. If the functions are allocated to an individual under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2, in addition to individuals under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 3, the former may normally be expected to perform a leading role in relation to the functions that reflects his position. Otherwise, yes.

3

What is meant by "appropriately allocate" in this context?

The allocation of functions should be compatible with delivering compliance with Principle 3, SYSC 2.1.1 R and SYSC 3.1.1 R. The FSA considers that allocation to one or two individuals is likely to be appropriate for most firms.

4

If a committee of management governs a firm or group, can the functions be allocated to every member of that committee?

Yes, as long as the allocation remains appropriate (see Question 3).If the firm also has an individual as chief executive, then the functions must be allocated to that individual as well under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2 (see Question 7).

5

Does the definition of chief executive include the possessor of equivalent responsibilities with another title, such as a managing director or managing partner?

Yes.

6

Is it possible for a firm to have more than one individual as its chief executive?

Although unusual, some firm may wish the responsibility of a chief executive to be held jointly by more than one individual. In that case, each of them will be a chief executive and the functions must be allocated to all of them under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2 (see also Questions 2 and 7).

7

If a firm has an individual as chief executive, must the functions be allocated to that individual?

Normally, yes, under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2.

But if the firm is a body corporate and a member of a group, the functions may, instead of to the firm's chief executive, be allocated to a director or senior manager from the group responsible for the overall management of the group or of a relevant group division, so long as this is appropriate (see Question 3). Such individuals willnevertheless require approval by the FSA (see Question 1).

If the firm chooses to allocate the functions to a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of a relevant group division, the FSA would expect that individual to be of a seniority equivalent to or greater than a chief executive of the firm for the allocation to be appropriate.

See also Question 14.

8

If a firm has a chief executive, can the functions be allocated to other individuals in addition to the chief executive?

Yes. SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 3, permits a firm to allocate the functions, additionally, to the firm's (or where applicable the group's) directors and senior managers as long as this is appropriate (see Question 3).

9

What if a firm does not have a chief executive?

Normally, the functions must be allocated to one or more individuals selected from the firm's (or where applicable the group's) directors and senior managers under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 3.

But if the firm:

(1) is a body corporate and a member of a group; and

(2) the group has a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of the group or of a relevant group division;

then the functions must be allocated to that individual (together, optionally, with individuals from column 3 if appropriate) under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2.2

10

What do you mean by "group division within which some or all of the firm's regulated activities fall"?

A "division" in this context should be interpreted by reference to geographical operations, product lines or any other method by which the group's business is divided.

If the firm's regulated activities fall within more than one division and the firm does not wish to allocate the functions to its chief executive, the allocation must, under SYSC 2.1.4 R, be to:

(1) a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of the group; or

(2) a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of one of those divisions;

together, optionally, with individuals from column 3 if appropriate. (See also Questions 7 and 9.)

11

How does the requirement to allocate the functions in SYSC 2.1.3R apply to an overseas firm which is not an incoming EEA firm, incoming Treaty firm or UCITS qualifier?

The firm must appropriately allocate those functions to one or more individuals, in accordance with SYSC 2.1.4 R, but:

(1) The responsibilities that must be apportioned and the systems and controls that must be overseen are those relating to activities carried on from a UK establishment with certain exceptions (see SYSC 1.1.7 R). Note that SYSC 1.1.10 R does not extend the territorial scope of SYSC 2 for an overseas firm.

(2) The chief executive of an overseas firm is the person responsible for the conduct of the firm's business within the United Kingdom (see the definition of "chief executive"). This might, for example, be the manager of the firm's UK establishment, or it might be the chief executive of the firm as a whole, if he has that responsibility.

The apportionment and oversight function applies to such a firm, unless it falls within a particular exception from the approved persons regime (see Question 1).

12

How does the requirement to allocate the functions in SYSC 2.1.3R apply to an incoming EEA firm or incoming Treaty firm?

SYSC 1.1.1 R (2) and SYSC 1.1.7 R restrict the application of SYSC 2.1.3 R for such a firm. Accordingly:

(1) Such a firm is not required to allocate the function of dealing with apportionment in SYSC 2.1.3 R (1).

(2) Such a firm is required to allocate the function of oversight in SYSC 2.1.3 R (2). However, the systems and controls that must be overseen are those relating to matters which the FSA, as Host State regulator, is entitled to regulate (there is guidance on this in SUP 13A Annex 2 G3). Those are primarily, but not exclusively, the systems and controls relating to the conduct of the firm's activities carried on from its UK branch.

(3) Such a firm need not allocate the function of oversight to its chief executive; it must allocate it to one or more directors and senior managers of the firm or the firm's group under SYSC 2.1.4 R, row (2).

(4) An incoming EEA firm which has provision only for cross border services is not required to allocate either function if it does not carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom; for example if they fall within the overseas persons exclusions in article 72 of the Regulated Activities Order.

See also Questions 1 and 15.1

3

13

What about a firm that is a partnership or a limited liability partnership?

The FSA envisages that most if not all partners or members will be either directors or senior managers, but this will depend on the constitution of the partnership (particularly in the case of a limited partnership) or limited liability partnership. A partnership or limited liability partnership may also have a chief executive (see Question 5). A limited liability partnership is a body corporate and, if a member of a group, will fall within SYSC 2.1.4 R, row (1) or (2).

14

What if generally accepted principles of good corporate governance recommend that the chief executive should not be involved in an aspect of corporate governance?

The Note to SYSC 2.1.4 R provides that the chief executive or other executive director or senior manager need not be involved in such circumstances. For example, the Combined Code developed by the Committee on Corporate Governancerecommends that the board of a listed company should establish an audit committee of non-executive directors to be responsible for oversight of the audit. That aspect of the oversight function may therefore be allocated to the members of such a committee without involving the chief executive. Such individuals may require approval by the FSA in relation to that function (see Question 1).

15

What about electronic commerce activities carried on from an establishment in another EEA State with or for a person in the United Kingdom?4

4

SYSC does not apply to an incoming ECA provider acting as such.1

4