Related provisions for PRIN 3.1.5

181 - 200 of 391 items.
Results filter

Search Term(s)

Filter by Modules

Filter by Documents

Filter by Keywords

Effective Period

Similar To

To access the FCA Handbook Archive choose a date between 1 January 2001 and 31 December 2004 (From field only).

DEPP 4.1.2GRP
In either case, the decision will be taken by FSA staff who have not been directly involved in establishing the evidence on which the decision is based, except in accordance with section 395(3) of the Act.
SUP 12.8.2GRP
In assessing whether to terminate a relationship with an appointed representative, a firm should be aware that the notification rules in SUP 15 require notification to be made immediately to the FSA if certain events occur. Examples include a matter having a serious regulatory impact or involving an offence or a breach of any requirement imposed by the Act or by regulations or orders made under the Act by the Treasury.
SUP 12.8.3RRP
If a contract with an appointed representative is terminated, or if it is amended in a way which gives rise to a requirement to notify under SUP 12.8.1R, a firm must take all reasonable steps to ensure that:(1) if the termination is by the firm, the appointed representative is notified in writing before, or if not possible, immediately on, the termination of the contract and informed that it will no longer be an exempt person for the purpose of the Act because of the contract
SUP 16.4.4GRP
A firm and its controllers are required to notify certain changes in control (See SUP 11 (Controllers and close links)). The purpose of the rules and guidance in this section is:(1) to ensure that, in addition to such notifications, the FSA receives regular and comprehensive information about the identities of all of the controllers of a firm, which is relevant to a firm's continuing to satisfy the threshold conditions (see COND 2.3) and to the protection of consumers; (2) to
SUP 12.1.2GRP
This chapter gives guidance to a firm, which is considering appointing an appointed representative, on how the provisions of section 39 of the Act (Exemption of appointed representatives) work. For example, it gives guidance on the conditions that must be satisfied for a person to be appointed as an appointed representative. It also gives guidance to a firm on the implications, for the firm itself, of appointing an appointed representative.
SUP 12.1.5GRP
2This chapter also sets out guidance about section 39A of the Act, which is relevant to a UK MiFID investment firm that is considering appointing an FSA registered tied agent. It also sets out the FSA'srules, and guidance on those rules, in relation to the appointment of an EEA tied agent by a UK MiFID investment firm.
SUP 13.2.1GRP
This chapter gives guidance to UK firms. In most cases UK firms will be authorised persons under the Act. However, under the Banking Consolidation Directive, a subsidiary of a firm which is a credit institution which meets the criteria set out in that Directive also has an EEA right. Such an unauthorised subsidiary is known as a financial institution. References in this chapter to a UK firm include a financial institution.
SUP 13.2.2GRP
A UK firm should be aware that the guidance is the FSA's interpretation of the Single Market Directives, the Act and the legislation made under the Act. The guidance is not exhaustive and is not a substitute for firms consulting the legislation or taking their own legal advice in the United Kingdom and in the relevant EEA States.
REC 1.1.1GRP
The rules and guidance in this sourcebook apply to recognised bodies and to applicants for recognition as recognised bodies under Part XVIII of the Act (Recognised Investment Exchanges and Clearing Houses).
REC 1.1.2GRP
(1) Recognised bodies are exempt persons under section 285 of the Act (Exemption for recognised investment exchanges and clearing houses).(2) UK recognised bodies must satisfy recognition requirements prescribed by the Treasury (in certain cases with the approval of the Secretary of State) in the Recognition Requirements Regulations. UK RIEs must also satisfy the MiFID implementing requirements in the MiFID Regulation.2Overseas recognised bodies must satisfy recognition requirements
COLL 7.5.1GRP
(1) The FSA expects that the majority of requests it will receive for the winding up of an authorised fund (under regulation 21(1) of the OEIC Regulations or under section 256 of the Act) or termination of a sub-fund will be from authorised fund managers and depositaries who consider that the AUT, ICVC or sub-fund in question is no longer commercially viable.(2) It is in consumers' interests to minimise, as far as possible, the period between which the FSA receives such requests
COLL 7.5.2GRP
The information referred to in COLL 7.5.1 G is listed below:(1) the name of the authorised fund or sub-fund;(2) the size of the authorised fund or sub-fund;(3) the number of unitholders; (4) whether dealing in units has been suspended;(5) why the request is being made; (6) what consideration has been given to the authorised fund or sub-fund entering into a scheme of arrangement with another regulated collective investment scheme and the reasons why a scheme of arrangement is not
SUP 3.3.7RRP
(1) Paragraph (2) applies to a firm which is not under an obligation to appoint an auditor imposed by an enactment other than the Act.(2) If a firm fails to appoint an auditor within 28 days of a vacancy arising, the FSA may appoint an auditor for it on the following terms:(a) the auditor to be remunerated by the firm on the basis agreed between the auditor and firm or, in the absence of agreement, on a reasonable basis; and(b) the auditor to hold office until he resigns or the
GEN 6.1.1RRP
1This chapter applies to every firm, but only with respect to business that can be regulated under section 138of the Act (General rule-making power).
GEN 6.1.4RRP
In this chapter 'financial penalty' means a financial penalty that the FSA has imposed, or may impose, under the Act. It does not include a financial penalty imposed by any other body.
REC 6.1.1GRP
The Act prohibits any person from carrying on, or purporting to carry on, regulated activities in the United Kingdom unless that person is an authorised person or an exempt person. If an overseas investment exchange or overseas clearing house wishes to undertake regulated activities in the United Kingdom, it will need to:(1) obtain a Part IV permission from the FSA; (2) (in the case of an EEA firm or a Treaty firm) qualify for authorisation under Schedule 3 (EEA Passport Rights)
SYSC 1.2.1GRP
The purposes of SYSC are:(1) to encourage firms' directors and senior managers to take appropriate practical responsibility for their firms' arrangements on matters likely to be of interest to the FSA because they impinge on the FSA's functions under the Act;(2) to increase certainty by amplifying Principle 3, under which a firm must take reasonable care to organise and control its affairs responsibly and effectively, with adequate risk management systems;1(3) to encourage firms
PR 5.1.1RRP
1A prospectus is valid for 12 months after its publication for an offer or an admission to trading, provided that the prospectus is updated by a supplementary prospectus (if required) under section 87G of the Act. [Note: article 9.1 PD]
SUP 13.10.1GRP
UK firms are reminded that conduct of business rules, and other rules made for the general good, may apply to business carried on in the Host State by a UK firm. These are known in the Act as the applicable provisions (paragraph 19(13) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act).
REC 4.2B.1GRP
1Under section 312C of the Act, if a UK RIE wishes to make arrangements in an EEA State other than the UK to facilitate access to or use of a regulated market or multilateral trading facility operated by it, it must give the FSAwritten notice of its intention to do so. The notice must:(1) describe the arrangements; and(2) identify the EEA State in which the UK RIE intends to make them.
DEPP 6.1.1GRP
1DEPP 6 includes the FSA's statement of policy with respect to the imposition and amount of penalties under the Act, as required by sections 69(1), 93(1), 124(1), and 210(1) of the Act.