Related provisions for DISP 1.2.4
61 - 80 of 230 items.
DTR 7.1 does not apply to:(1) any issuer which
is a subsidiary undertaking of
a parent undertaking where the parent undertaking is subject to DTR 7.1, or
to requirements implementing Article 41 of the Audit
Directive in any other EEA State;[Note: Article 41.6(a) of the Audit Directive](2) any issuer the sole
business of which is to act as the issuer of asset-backed
securities provided the entity makes a statement available to
the public setting out the reasons for which it considers
An announcement should be notified to a RIS no later than the date the terms of the disposal are agreed and should contain:(1) all relevant information required to be notified under LR 10.4.1 R;(2) the name of the acquirer and the expected date of completion of the disposal;(3) full disclosure about the continuing groups prospects for at least the current financial year;(4) a statement that the directors believe that the disposal is in the best interests of the company and shareholders
(1) The FSA will wish to examine the documents referred to in LR 10.8.3 G (including the RIS announcement) before it grants the modification and before the announcement is released.(2) The documents should ordinarily be lodged with the FSA:(a) in draft form at least five clear business days before the terms of the transaction are agreed; and(b) in final form on the day on which approval is sought.
A firm which is included within comparable disclosures provided on a consolidated basis by a parent undertaking whose head office is not in an EEA State may apply for a waiver from the relevant disclosure requirements in BIPRU 11.2.2 R - BIPRU 11.2.5 R. The FSA's approach to granting waivers is set out in the Supervision manual (see SUP 8).[Note: BCD Article 72(3)]
A firm applying for a waiver from one or more of the disclosure requirements in BIPRU 11.2.2 R - BIPRU 11.2.5 R will need to:(1) satisfy the FSA that it is included within comparable disclosures provided on a consolidated basis by a parent undertaking whose head office is not in an EEA State; and(2) notify the FSA of the location where the comparable disclosures are provided.
Principle 2 is intended to ensure that listed companies have adequate procedures, systems and controls to enable them to comply with their obligations under the listing rules and disclosure rules and transparency rules. In particular, the FSA considers that listed companies should place particular emphasis on ensuring that they have adequate procedures, systems and controls in relation to:(1) identifying whether any obligations arise under LR 10 (Significant transactions) and
Timely and accurate disclosure of information to the market is a key obligation of listed companies. For the purposes of Principle 2, a listed companywith a primary listing of equity securities should have adequate systems and controls to be able to:(1) ensure that it can properly identify information which requires disclosure under the listing rules or disclosure rules and transparency rules in a timely manner; and(2) ensure that any information identified under paragraph (1)
(1) A firm must provide the FSA by the end of February each year (or, if the firm has become subject to the Financial Ombudsman Service part way through the financial year, by the date requested by the FSA) with a statement of the total amount of relevant business (measured in accordance with the appropriate tariff base(s)) which it conducted, as at or in the year to 31 December of the previous year as appropriate, in relation to the tariff base for each of the relevant industry
A firm is required to provide the FSA with a wide range of information to enable the FSA to meet its responsibilities for monitoring the firm's compliance with requirements imposed by or under the Act. Some of this information is provided through regular reports, including those set out in SUP 16 (Reporting requirements) and SUP 17 (Transaction reporting). In addition, other chapters in the Handbook set out specific notification and reporting requirements. Principle 11 includes
This chapter sets out:(1) guidance on the type of event or change in condition which a firm should consider notifying in accordance with Principle 11; the purpose of this guidance is to set out examples and not to give comprehensive advice to firms on what they should notify in order to be in compliance with Principle 11;(2) rules on events and changes in condition that a firm must notify; these are the types of event that the FSA must be informed about, usually as soon as possible,
(1) MCOB 4.4 (Initial disclosure requirements) applies only in relation to varying the terms of a regulated mortgage contract entered into by the customer in any of the following ways:(a) adding or removing a party;(b) taking out a further advance; or(c) switching all or part of the regulated mortgage contract from one interest rate to another.1(2) Otherwise, this chapter, MCOB 4, applies in relation to any form of variation of a regulated mortgage contract.
If a firm provides elements of status disclosure information orally as part of an interactive dialogue, it should do so for all elements of the information. In the case of telephone selling, the information may be given in accordance with the distance marketing disclosure rules (see ICOBS 3.1.14 R).
(1) Prior to the conclusion of an initial contract and, if necessary, on its amendment or renewal, an insurer must disclose to the customer at least:(a) the statutory status disclosure statement (see GEN 4);(b) whose policies it offers; and(c) whether it is providing a personal recommendation or information.(2) If this is done orally, the disclosure must be provided in writing or any other durable medium no later than immediately after the conclusion of the contract.
A person who wishes the FSA to vet an equivalent document referred to in PR 1.2.2 R (2) or (3) or PR 1.2.3R (3) or (4) must submit to the FSA:(1) a copy of the document;(2) a cross reference list identifying the pages in the document where each item that is equivalent to the disclosure requirements for a prospectus may be found;(3) contact details of individuals who are:(a) sufficiently knowledgeable about the documentation to be able to answer queries from the FSA; and(b) available
(1) A firm must,
in good time before a retail client is
bound by any agreement relating to designated
investment business or ancillary
services or before the provision of those services, whichever
is the earlier, provide that client with:(a) the terms of any such agreement;
and(b) the information about the firm and its services relating to that agreement
or to those services required by COBS 6.1.4 R, including information on communications, conflicts
of interest and authorised
When considering its approach to
client agreements, a firm should
be aware of other obligations in the Handbook which
may be relevant. These include the fair,
clear and not misleading rule and the rules on
disclosure of information to a client before
providing services and the rules on
distance communications (principally in COBS 2.2, 5, 6 and 13).
(1) This section deals with matters relating to the register of unitholders of units in an AUT including its establishment and contents. The manager or trustee may be responsible for the register. In any event, the person responsible for the register must be stated in the trust deed and this section details what his duties are. The provisions relating to documentsevidencingtitle to units, including the issue of bearer certificates are dependent on the provisions in the trust deed
(1) Either the manager or the trustee (as nominated in the trust deed) must establish and maintain a register of unitholders as a document in accordance with this section.(2) The manager or trustee in accordance with their duties under (1) must exercise all due diligence and take all reasonable steps to ensure the information contained on the register is at all times complete and up to date.(3) The register must contain:(a) the name and address of each unitholder (for joint unitholders,
The accounting policies and presentation applied to half-yearly figures must be consistent with those applied in the latest published annual accounts except where:(1) the accounting policies and presentation are to be changed in the subsequent annual financial statements, in which case the new accounting policies and presentation should be followed and the changes and the reasons for the changes should be disclosed in the half-yearly report; or(2) the FSA otherwise agrees.
(1) In addition to the requirement set out in DTR 4.2.7 R, an issuer of shares must disclose in the interim management report the following information, as a minimum:(a) related parties transactions that have taken place in the first six months of the current financial year and that have materially affected the financial position or the performance of the enterprise during that period; and(b) any changes in the related parties transactions described in the last annual report that
Where the FSA appoints an investigator in response to a request from an overseas regulator it may, under section 169(7) of the Act,
direct him to permit a representative of that regulator to attend and take
part in any interviews conducted for the purposes of the investigation. The FSA may
only give a direction under section 169(7) if it is satisfied that any information
obtained by an overseas regulator as a result of the interview will
be subject to the safeguards equivalent
There are other pre-contract information requirements outside this chapter, including:(1) for financial promotions, inthe financial promotion rules;55(2) for designated investment business, inCOBS 8 (Client agreements), COBS 5 (Distance Communications), COBS 6 (Information about the firm, its services and remuneration), COBS 13 and 14 (which relate to product information)5 and CASS (Client assets);5(3) for non-investment insurance contracts3, distance communication requirements
Behaviour conforming with any of the rules of the Takeover Codeabout the timing, dissemination or availability, content and standard of care applicable to a disclosure, announcement, communication or release of information, does not, of itself, amount to market abuse, if:1(1) the rule is one of those specified in the table in MAR 1.10.5 C;(2) the behaviour is expressly required or expressly permitted by the rule in question (the notes for the time being associated with the rules
1Table: Provisions of the Takeover Code conformity with which will not, of itself, amount to market abuse (This table belongs to MAR 1.10.4C):1
Takeover Code provisions: |
|
Disclosure of information which is not generally available |
1(a) 2.1 plus notes, 2.5, 2.6, 2.9 plus notes 8 19.7 20.1, 20.2, 20.3 28.4 37.3(b) and 37.4(a) |
Standards of care |
2.8 first sentence and note 4 19.1, 19.5 second sentence and note 2, 19.8 23 plus notes 28.1 |
Timing of announcements, documentation and dealings |
2.2, 2.4(b) 5.4 6.2(b) 7.1 11.1 note 6 only 17.1 21.2 30 31.6(c), 31.9 33 (in so far as it refers 31.6(c) and 31.9 only) 38.5 |
Content of announcements |
2.4 (a) and (b) 19.31 |
The FSA will have regard to circumstances relating to the firm, for example:(1) attitude of the firm: whether the firm is being cooperative;(2) history of similar issues: whether similar issues have arisen in the past and, if so, whether timely corrective action was taken;(3) quality of a firm's systems and records: whether the FSA has confidence that the firm has the ability to provide the required information;(4) objectivity: whether the FSA has confidence in the firm's willingness
The FSA will have regard to alternative tools that may be available, including for example:(1) obtaining what is required without using specific statutory powers (for example, by a visit by FSA staff or a request for information on an informal basis); (2) requiring information from firms and others, including authorising an agent to require information, under section 165 of the Act (Authority's power to require information);(3) appointing investigators to carry out general investigations
In accordance with section 1 of PIDA:(1) a "protected disclosure" is a qualifying disclosure which meets the relevant requirements set out in that section;(2) a "qualifying disclosure" is a disclosure, made in good faith, of information which, in the reasonable belief of the worker making the disclosure, tends to show that one or more of the following (a "failure") has been, is being, or is likely to be, committed:(a) a criminal offence; or(b) a failure to comply with any legal
Section 80 (1) of the Act (general duty of disclosure in listing
particulars) requires listing particulars submitted
to the FSA to contain all such information as investors
and their professional advisers would reasonably require, and reasonably expect
to find there, for the purpose of making an informed assessment of:(1) the assets and liabilities, financial
position, profits and losses, and prospects of the issuer of
the securities; and(2) the rights attaching to the securi
The FSA would not normally seek to gather information using the methods described in SUP 2.3 or SUP 2.4 in a situation where the FSA could not have obtained it under the powers in Part XI of the Act (Information Gathering and Investigations). In particular, the limitations in the following sections of the Act are relevant to this chapter:(1) section 175(5) (Information and documents: supplementary powers) under which no person may be required under Part XI of the Act (Information
When the FSA obtains confidential information using the methods of information gathering described in SUP 2.3 or SUP 2.4, it is obliged under Part XXIII of the Act (Public Record, Disclosure of Information and Co-operation) to treat that information as confidential. The FSA will not disclose confidential information without lawful authority, for example if an exception applies under the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Disclosure of Confidential Information) Regulations