Related provisions for GEN 1.1.2
141 - 160 of 391 items.
A person who is concerned to know whether his proposed activities may require authorisation will need to consider the following questions (these questions are a summary of the issues to be considered and have been reproduced, in slightly fuller form, in the flowchart in PERG 4.18):(1) will I be carrying on my activities by way of business (see PERG 4.3.3 G (The business test))?(2) if so, will my activities relate to regulated mortgage contracts (see PERG 4.4 (What is a regulated
An unauthorised person who intends to carry on activities connected with mortgages will also need to comply with section 21 of the Act (Restrictions on financial promotion). This guidance does not cover financial promotions that relate to mortgages. Persons should refer to the general guidance on financial promotion in Appendix 1 to the Authorisation manual, PERG 8 (Financial promotion and related activities)) and, in particular, to PERG 8.17 (Financial promotions concerning agreements
The nature of many bodies corporate means that they will, in most if not all circumstances, come within the definition of collective investment scheme in section 235(1) to (3) of the Act (Collective investment schemes). The property concerned will generally be managed as a whole under the control of the directors of the body corporate or some other person for the purpose of running its business. The idea underlying the investment is that the investors will participate in or receive
However, there are a number of exclusions that apply to prevent certain arrangements from being a collective investment scheme. These are in the Schedule to the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Collective Investment Schemes) Order 2001 (SI 2001/1062) (Arrangements not amounting to a collective investment scheme). The exclusion in paragraph 21 of the Schedule to that Order is of particular significance for bodies corporate. It excludes from being a collective investment
(1) This chapter sets out the requirements that a person must follow in applying for an authorisation order for a scheme under regulation 12 of the OEIC Regulations (Applications for authorisation) or section 242 of the Act (Applications for authorisation of unit trust schemes).(2) COLLG 3 (The FSA's responsibilities under the Act) and COLLG 4 (The FSA's responsibilities under the OEIC Regulations) provide more information on what the Act and the OEIC Regulations require in
Section 21(3) of the Act states that, in the case of a communication originating outside the United Kingdom, the restriction in section 21(1) applies only if it is capable of having an effect in the United Kingdom. In this respect, it is irrelevant whether the communication has an effect provided it is capable of doing so.
Where communications by persons in another EEA State are made to or directed at persons in the United Kingdom account must be taken of the effect of any relevant EU Directives. For example, the E-Commerce Directive will, with limited exceptions, prevent the United Kingdom from imposing restrictions on incoming financial promotions in information society services. The Treasury has given effect to this through the Financial Promotion Order (see1PERG 8.12.38 G). Other potentially
Firms are reminded that section 398 of the Act (Misleading the Authority: residual cases) makes it an offence for a firm knowingly or recklessly to provide the FSA with information which is false or misleading in a material particular in purported compliance with the FSA'srules or any other requirement imposed by or under the Act. An offence by a body corporate, partnership or unincorporated association may be attributed to an officer or certain other persons (section 400 of the
DTR 7.1 does not apply to:(1) any issuer which
is a subsidiary undertaking of
a parent undertaking where the parent undertaking is subject to DTR 7.1, or
to requirements implementing Article 41 of the Audit
Directive in any other EEA State;[Note: Article 41.6(a) of the Audit Directive](2) any issuer the sole
business of which is to act as the issuer of asset-backed
securities provided the entity makes a statement available to
the public setting out the reasons for which it considers
If a person established in the EEA: (1) does not have an EEA right; (2) does not have permission as a UCITS qualifier; and(3) does not have, or does not wish to exercise, a Treaty right (see SUP 13A.3.4 G to SUP 13A.3.11 G);to carry on a particular regulated activity in the United Kingdom, it must seek Part IV permission from the FSA to do so (see the FSA website "How do I get authorised": http://www.fsa.gov.uk/Pages/Doing/how/index.shtml1). This might arise if the activity itself
For guidance on how to apply for Part IV permission under the Act, see the FSA website "How do I get authorised": http://www.fsa.gov.uk/Pages/Doing/how/index.shtml.1 If an EEA firm or Treaty firm wishes to make any subsequent changes to its top-up permission, it can make an application for variation of that permission (see SUP 6 (Applications to vary and cancel Part IV permission)).1
Recognition Requirements Regulations, Regulation 6
2(1) In considering whether a [UK recognised body] or applicant satisfiesrecognition requirements applying to it under these [Recognition Requirements Regulations], the [FSA] may take into account all relevant circumstances including the constitution of the person concerned and its regulatory provisions within the meaning of section 302(1) of the Act. |
(2) Without prejudice to the generality of paragraph (1), a [UK recognised body] or applicant may satisfyrecognition requirements applying to it under these [Recognition Requirements Regulations] by making arrangements for functions to be performed on its behalf by any otherperson. |
(3) Where a [UK recognised body] or applicant makes arrangements of the kind mentioned in paragraph (2), the arrangements do not affect the responsibility imposed by the Act on the [UK recognised body] or applicant to satisfy recognition requirements applying to it under these [Recognition Requirements Regulations ], but it is in addition a recognition requirement applying to the [UK recognised body] or applicant that the person who performs (or is to perform) the functions is a fit and proper person who is able and willing to perform them. |
In determining whether the UK recognised body meets the recognition requirement in Regulation 6(3), the FSA may have regard to whether that body has ensured that the person who performs that function on its behalf:(1) has sufficient resources to be able to perform the function (after allowing for any other activities);(2) has adequate systems and controls to manage that function and to report on its performance to the UK recognised body;(3) is managed by persons of sufficient
Where collective investment schemes are concerned additional restrictions are placed on their promotion to ensure that only those which are regulated are promoted to the general public. This is achieved by a combination of sections 21 and 238 (Restrictions on promotion) of the Act as explained in PERG 8.20.2 G. A regulated collective investment scheme is:(1) an authorised unit trust scheme; or(2) an investment company with variable capital; or(3) a scheme recognised under section
Section 21 precludes the promotion by unauthorised persons of unregulated collective investment schemes unless the financial promotion is approved by an authorised person or is exempt. Section 238 then precludes the promotion of an unregulated collective investment scheme by authorised persons except where:(1) there is an exemption in an order made by the Treasury under section 238(6); or(2) the financial promotion is permitted under rules made by the FSA under section 238(5)
For an amalgamation the successor society, and for a transfer the transferee, may need to apply for permission, or to vary its permission, under Part IVof the Act. The FSA will need time before confirming a transferto consider whether any necessary permission or variation should be given. If the transferee is an EEA firm or a Swiss general insurance company, then confirmation will be needed from its Home State regulator that it meets the Home State's solvency margin requirements
The criteria that the FSA must use in determining whether to confirm a proposed amalgamation or transfer are set out in schedule 15 to the Friendly Societies Act 1992. These criteria include that:(1) confirmation must not be given if the FSA considers that:(a) there is a substantial risk that the successor society or transferee will be unable lawfully to carry out the engagements to be transferred to it;(b) information material to the members' decision about the amalgamation or
There is power in the Act for the Treasury to change the meaning of the business element by including or excluding certain things. They have exercised this power (see the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Carrying on Regulated Activities by Way of Business) Order 2001 (SI 2001/1177), the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No.2) Order 2003 (SI 2003/1476) and the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Carrying on Regulated Activities
Under section 21(4) of the Act, the Treasury has the power to specify circumstances in which a person is viewed as ‘acting in the course of business’ or ‘not acting in the course of business’. The power under section 21(4) relates only to financial promotions and is distinct from the power in section 419 which relates to regulated activities. To date, the Treasury has not used the power in section 21(4). As a result, the phrase has its ordinary or natural meaning.
The FSA considers that ‘in the course of business’ requires a commercial interest on the part of the communicator. This does not necessarily have to be a direct interest. And the communicator does not need to be carrying on regulated activities (the test in section 19 of the Act) as or as part of his business. Neither does the communication need to be made in the course of carrying on activities as a business in their own right (the test in article 3 of the Financial Services
The purpose of BIPRU 7.9 is to provide guidance on the FSA's policy for granting CAD 1 model waivers under section 148 of the Act (Modification or waiver of rules). The policy recognises that CAD 1 models may vary across firms but, as a minimum, the FSA will need to be satisfied:(1) about the quality of the internal controls and risk management relating to the model (see BIPRU 7.9.19G - BIPRU 7.9.23G for further details);(2) about the quality of the model standards; and(3) that
No changes should be made to a CAD 1 model unless the change is not material. Material changes to a CAD 1 model will require a renewed waiver to be issued. Materiality is measured from the time that the waiver is granted or, if the waiver has been varied in accordance with section 148 of the Act, any later time that may be specified in the waiver for these purposes. If a firm is considering making material changes to its CAD 1 model, then it should notify the FSA at once. If a
If the CAD 1 model ceases to meet the requirements of the waiver, the firm should notify the FSA at once. The FSA may then revoke the waiver unless it is varied in accordance with section 148 of the Act. If the CAD 1 model waiver contains conditions it is a condition of using the CAD 1 model approach that the firm should continue to comply with those conditions.
As with any other contract, a contract of insurance that is not effected by way of a deed will only be legally binding if, amongst other things, it is entered into for valuable consideration. Determining what amounts to sufficient consideration in any given case is a matter for the courts. In practice, however, the legal definition of consideration is very wide. In particular, just because a contract of insurance is 'free' in the colloquial sense does not mean that there is no
(1) Where a restriction under MAR 4.3.1 R applies, an authorised professional firm is not prevented from providing professional advice or representation in any proceedings to the person where that falls within section 327(8) of the Act. This means that the person can obtain legal advice or representation in any proceedings from a law firm and accounting advice from an accounting firm: see MAR 4.4.1 R (2).(2) While the FSA recognises the duty of authorised professional firms to