Related provisions for PERG 6.1.1
121 - 140 of 391 items.
The FSAmay seek to vary a firm's Part IV permission on its own initiative
in certain situations including
the following:(1) If
the FSA determines
that a firm's management, business
or internal controls give rise
to material risks that are not fully addressed by its rules,
the FSAmay
seek to vary
the firm's Part
IV permission and impose an additional requirement or limitation on the firm.(2) If
a firm becomes or is to become
involved with new products or selling practices which
The FSA may seek to impose requirements or limitations which
include but are not restricted to:(1) requiring
a firm to submit regular reports
covering, for example, trading results, management accounts, customer complaints, connected party transactions;(2) requiring a firm to
maintain prudential limits, for example on large exposures,
foreign currency exposures or
liquidity gaps;(3) requiring
a firm to submit a business
plan (or
for an insurer, a scheme of operations (see SUP
The FSA will seek to give a firm reasonable
notice of an intent to vary its permission and to agree with the firm an
appropriate timescale. However, if the FSA considers
that a delay may be prejudicial to the interest of consumers, the FSA may need to act immediately using its powers under section 45 of the Actto vary a firm's Part IV permission with
immediate effect.
Section 39 of the Act makes provision exempting appointed representatives from the need to obtain authorisation. An appointed representative is a person who is a party to a contract with an authorised person which permits or requires the appointed representative to carry on certain regulated activities. SUP 12 (Appointed representatives) contains guidance relating to appointed representatives.
Where a person is already an appointed representative (in relation to any non-mortgage activities) and he proposes to carry on any regulated mortgage activities, he will need to consider the following matters.(1) He must become authorised if his proposed mortgage activities include either entering into a regulated mortgage contract or administering a regulated mortgage contract. These activities may not be carried on by appointed representatives and the Act does not permit any
Section 39 of the Act (Exemption of appointed representatives) exempts appointed representatives from the need to obtain authorisation. An appointed representative is a person who is party to a contract with an authorised person which permits or requires him to carry on certain regulated activities (see Glossary for full definition). SUP 12 (Appointed representatives) contains rules and guidance relating to appointed representatives.
Where a person is already an appointed representative and he proposes to carry on any insurance mediation activities, he will need to consider the following matters.(1) He must become authorised if his proposed insurance mediation activities include activities that do not fall within the table in PERG 5.13.4 G (for example, dealing as agent in pure protection contracts) and he wishes to carry on these activities. The Act does not permit any person to be exempt for some activities
The FSA will send a notice in writing requiring the person in SUP 5.2.1 G to provide a report by a skilled person on any matter if it is reasonably required in connection with the exercise of its functions conferred by or under the Act. The FSA may require the report to be in whatever form it specifies in the notice (SUP 5 Annex 2 summarises the appointment and reporting processes).
The skilled person is appointed by the person in SUP 5.2.1 G. The FSA will normally seek to agree in advance with the person in SUP 5.2.1 G the skilled person who will make the report. The Act requires that the skilled person be nominated or approved by the FSA:(1) if the FSA decides to nominate the skilled person who is to make the report report, it will notify the person in SUP 5.2.1 G accordingly; and (2) alternatively, if the FSA is content to approve a skilled person selected
Any person who concludes or is advised that he will need to make an application for Part IV permission should look at PERG 2 Annex 2 G to determine the categories of specified investment and regulated activities that are relevant to the next step and should then refer to the FSA website How do I get authorised: http://www.fsa.gov.uk/Pages/Doing/how/index.shtml1 for details of the application process.1
Section 236(3) of the Act states clearly that the investment condition must be met 'in relation to BC'. In the FSA's view, this means that the investment condition should not be applied rigidly in relation to specific events such as particular issues of shares or securities or in relation to particular points in time. The requirements of the investment condition must be satisfied in relation to the overall impression of the body corporate itself, having regard to all the circ
Certain matters are to be disregarded in determining whether the investment condition is satisfied. Section 236(4) of the Act states that, for these purposes, no account is to be taken of any actual or potential redemption or repurchase of shares or securities under:(1) Chapter VII of Part V of the Companies Act 1985;or(2) Chapter VII of Part VI of the Companies (Northern Ireland) Order 1986; or(3) corresponding provisions in force in another EEA State; or(4) provisions in force
The FSA's views on the following three elements of the investment condition are explained separately:(1) the 'reasonable investor' (see PERG 9.7 (The investment condition: the 'reasonable investor'));(2) the 'expectation' test (see PERG 9.8 (The investment condition: the 'expectation test' (section 236(3)(a) of the Act))); and(3) the 'satisfaction' test (see PERG 9.9 (The investment condition: the 'satisfaction test' (section 236(3)(b) of the Act)).
(1) This section deals with the circumstances and manner in which an AUT is to be wound up or a sub-fund of an AUT is to be terminated. Under section 256 of the Act (Requests for revocation of authorisation order), the manager or trustee of an AUT may request the FSA to revoke the authorisation order in respect of that AUT. Section 257 of the Act (Directions) gives the FSA the power to make certain directions.(2) The termination of a sub-fund under this section will be subject
(1) Upon the happening of any of the events or dates referred to in paragraph (2) and not otherwise:(a) COLL 6.2 (Dealing), COLL 6.3 (Valuation and pricing) and COLL 5 (Investment and borrowing powers) cease to apply to the AUT;(b) the trustee must cease to issue and cancel units;(c) the manager must cease to sell and redeem units; (d) the manager must cease to arrange the issue or cancellation of units under COLL 6.2.7 R (Issue and cancellation of units through an authorised
The purpose of this guidance is two fold:(1) to outline the restriction on financial promotion under section 21 of the Act (Restrictions on financial promotion) and the main exemptions from this restriction; and(2) to outline the main circumstances in which persons who are primarily involved in making or helping others to make financial promotions may be conducting regulated activities requiring authorisation or exemption themselves; this part of the guidance may also be of more
This guidance is issued under section 157 of the Act. It represents the FSA's views and does not bind the courts. For example, it would not bind the courts in an action for damages brought by a private person for breach of a rule (see section 150 of the Act (Actions for damages)), or in relation to the enforceability of a contract where there has been a breach of sections 19 (The general prohibition) or 21 (Restrictions on financial promotion) of the Act (see sections 26 to 30
A firm and its controller or proposed controller may discharge an obligation to notify the FSA by submitting a single joint notificationcontaining the information required from the firm and the controller or proposed controller. In this case, the relevant controllers form3 may be used to submit a notification on behalf of both the firm and the controller or proposed controller.3
If a person is proposing a change in control over more than one firm within a group, then the controller or proposed controller may submit a singlenotification in respect of all those firms. The notificationshould contain all the required information as if separate notifications had been made, but information and documentation need not be duplicated.
When an event occurs (for example, a group restructuring or a merger) as a result of which: (1) more than one firm in a group would undergo a change in control; or(2) a single firm would experience more than one change in control;then, to avoid duplication of documentation, all the firms and their controllers or proposed controllers may discharge their respective obligations to notify the FSA by submitting a single notification containing one set of information.
This chapter applies to a UK firm, that is, a person whose head office is in the United Kingdom and which is entitled to carry on an activity in another EEA State subject to the conditions of a Single Market Directive. Such an entitlement is referred to in the Act as an EEA right and its exercise is referred to in the Handbook as passporting.1
This chapter gives guidance on Schedule 3 to the Act for a UK firm which wishes to exercise its EEA right and establish a branch in, or provide cross border services into, another EEA State. That is, when a UK firm wishes to establish its first branch in, or provide cross border services for the first time into, a particular EEA State.
The word ‘communicate’ is extended under section 21(13) of the Act and includes causing a communication to be made. This means that a person who causes the communication of a financial promotion by another person is also subject to the restriction in section 21. Article 6(d) of the Financial Promotion Order also states that the word ‘communicate’ has the same meaning when used in exemptions in the Order. Article 6(a) also states that the word ‘communication’ has the same meaning
1The position of an unauthorised person (‘U’) who, in the course of business, causes an authorised person to communicate a financial promotion is somewhat different. This is because the authorised person (‘A’) is not subject to section 21 of the Act and so will not necessarily be communicating the financial promotion in circumstances in which an exemption would apply. To avoid any doubt about the application of section 21 to U, a specific exemption is provided in article 17A of
Section 21(1) of the Act refers only to the communication of an invitation or inducement. It says nothing about communications being 'made to' or 'directed at' persons or about who the 'recipient' of a communication will be. These facts are determined by the following sequence:(1) section 21(13) of the Act indicates that communications are 'made';(2) article 6 of the Financial Promotion Order (Interpretation: communications) indicates that communications are made by being 'addressed
A UCITS scheme must not invest in units in a collective investment scheme ("second scheme") unless the second scheme satisfies all of the following conditions, and provided that no more than 30% of the value of the UCITS scheme is invested in second schemes within (1)(b) to (d):(1) the second scheme must:(a) satisfy the conditions necessary for it to enjoy the rights conferred by the UCITS Directive; or(b) be recognised under the provisions of section 270 of the Act (Schemes authorised
(1) COLL 9.3 gives further detail as to the recognition of a scheme under section 270of the Act.(2) Article 19 of the UCITS Directive sets out the general investment limits. So, a non-UCITS retail scheme, or its equivalent EEAscheme which has the power to invest in gold or immovables would not meet the criteria set in COLL 5.2.13R (1)(c) and COLL 5.2.13R (1)(d).
(1) A proposal that an authorised fund should be involved in a scheme of arrangement is subject to written notice to and approval by the FSA under section 251 of the Act (Alteration of schemes and changes of manager or trustee) or regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations (The Authority's approval for certain changes in respect of a company). Effect cannot be given to such a change except in accordance with that section or regulation.(2) The issue of units in exchange for assets as
(1) If a scheme of arrangement is entered into in relation to an authorised fund ("transferor fund") or a sub-fund of a scheme which is an umbrella ("transferor sub-fund"), an authorised fund manager must ensure that the unitholders of the transferor fund or sub-fund do not become unitholders of units in a collective investment scheme other than a regulated collective investment scheme.(2) For a UCITS scheme or a sub-fund of a UCITS scheme, (1) applies as if the reference to a
If it appears to the FSA that an auditor of a firm has failed to comply with a duty imposed on him under the Act, it may disqualify him under section 345 of the Act. For more detail about what happens when the disqualification of an auditor is being considered or put into effect, see EG 151. A list of persons who are disqualified by the FSA under section 345 of the Act may be found on the FSA website (www.fsa.gov.uk).1
As explained in SUP 8, under of the Act, the FSA may not grant a waiver to a firm unless it is satisfied that:(1) compliance by the firm with the rules, or with the rules as modified, would be unduly burdensome or would not achieve the purpose for which the rules were made; and(2) the waiver would not result in undue risk to persons whose interests the rules are intended to protect objects.
The conditions relating to the use of an approach listed in BIPRU 1.3.2 G referred to in the relevant chapter of BIPRU are minimum standards. Satisfaction of those conditions does not automatically mean the FSA will grant a waiver referred to in those paragraphs. The FSA will in addition also apply the tests in section 148 of the Act.
However, where there is a market, the FSA does not consider that the test in section 236(3)(b) would be met if the price the investor receives for his investment is wholly dependent on the market rather than specifically on net asset value. In the FSA's view, typical market pricing mechanisms introduce too many uncertainties to be able to form a basis for calculating the value of an investment (linked to net asset value) of the kind contemplated by the satisfaction test. As a