Related provisions for PERG 4.10.3

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SUP 6.3.15DRP
(1) If a firm wishes to apply for a variation of Part IV permission, it must complete and submit to the FSA the form in SUP 6 Annex 5 (Variation of permission application form).7(2) A firm's application for variation of Part IV permission must be given or addressed, and delivered in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.6 G (Form and method of notification).(3) Until the application has been determined, a firm which submits an application for variation of Part IV permission
SUP 6.3.42GRP
(1) Firms should be aware that the FSA may exercise its own-initiative power to vary or cancel their Part IV permission if they do not (see EG 8 (Variation and cancellation of permission on the FSA's own initiative and intervention against incoming firms))9:(a) commence a regulated activity for which they have Part IV permission within a period of at least 12 months from the date of being given; or(b) carry on a regulated activity for which they have Part IV permission for a period
SUP 15.3.7GRP
Principle 11 requires a firm to deal with its regulators in an open and cooperative way and to disclose to the FSAappropriately anything relating to the firm of which the FSA would reasonably expect notice. Principle 11 applies to unregulated activities as well as regulated activities and takes into account the activities of other members of a group
SUP 15.3.8GRP
Compliance with Principle 11 includes, but is not limited to, giving the FSA notice of:(1) any proposed restructuring, reorganisation or business expansion which could have a significant impact on the firm's risk profile or resources, including, but not limited to:(a) setting up a new undertaking within a firm'sgroup, or a new branch (whether in the United Kingdom or overseas); or (b) commencing the provision of cross border services into a new territory; or(c) commencing the
SUP 15.3.17RRP
A firm must notify the FSA immediately if one of the following events arises and the event is significant:(1) it becomes aware that an employee may have committed a fraud against one of its customers; or(2) it becomes aware that a person, whether or not employed by it, may have committed a fraud against it; or(3) it considers that any person, whether or not employed by it, is acting with intent to commit a fraud against it; or(4) it identifies irregularities in its accounting
SUP 15.3.22DRP
3SUP 15.3.23 D to SUP 15.3.25 D are given in relation to the exercise of the powers of the Society and of the Council generally, with a view to achieving the objective of enabling the FSAto:(1) comply with its general duty under section 314 of the Act (Authority's general duty);(2) determine whether underwriting agents, or approved persons acting for them or on their behalf, are complying with the requirements imposed on them by or under the Act;(3) enforce the provisions of the
SUP 15.3.23DRP
3The Society must immediately inform the FSA in writing if it becomes aware that any matter likely to be of material concern to the FSA may have arisen in relation to:(1) the regulated activities for which the Society has permission; or (2) underwriting agents; or (3) approved persons or individuals acting for or on behalf of underwriting agents.
SUP 15.3.25DRP
3The Society must inform the FSA if it commences investigations or disciplinary proceedings which do not fall within the scope of SUP 15.3.24 D but which:(1) involve an underwriting agent, or an approved person who carries out controlled functions for it or on its behalf; or (2) may indicate that an individual acting for or on behalf of an underwriting agent may not be a fit and proper person to perform functions in relation to regulated activities.
PERG 4.11.1GRP
Section 19 of the Act (The general prohibition) provides that the requirement to be authorised under the Act only applies in relation to regulated activities which are carried on 'in the United Kingdom'. In many cases, it will be quite straightforward to identify where an activity is carried on. But when there is a cross-border element, for example because a borrower is outside the United Kingdom or because some other element of the activity happens outside the United Kingdom,
PERG 4.11.6GRP
The exclusions in article 72(5A) to (5F) of the Regulated Activities Order (Overseas persons) provide that an overseas person does not carry on the regulated activities of:(1) arranging (bringing about) or making arrangements with view to a regulated mortgage contract;(2) entering into a regulated mortgage contract; or(3) administering a regulated mortgage contract;if the borrower (and each of them, if more than one) is an individual and is normally resident overseas. In the case
PERG 4.11.13GRP
When a person is arranging (bringing about) regulated mortgage contracts or making arrangements with a view to regulated mortgage contracts from overseas, the question of whether he will be carrying on regulated activities in the United Kingdom will depend on the relevant circumstances. In the FSA's view, factors to consider include:(1) the territorial limitation in the definition of regulated mortgage contract so that regulation only applies if the land is in the United Kingdom;(2)
PERG 4.11.14GRP
In the FSA's view:(1) if the borrower is normally resident in the United Kingdom, the clear territorial limitation in the definition of regulated mortgage contract carries most weight in determining where regulation should apply; it is likely that the arranger will be carrying on regulated activities in the United Kingdom;(2) if the borrower is normally resident overseas, the arrangements are excluded by the overseas persons exclusion.In the case of arranging (bringing about)
PERG 4.11.15GRP
In the FSA's view, advising on regulated mortgage contracts is carried on where the borrower receives the advice. Accordingly:(1) if the borrower is located in the United Kingdom, a person advising that borrower on regulated mortgage contracts is carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom; but(2) if the service provider and borrower are both located overseas, the regulated activity is not carried on in the United Kingdom.
PERG 4.11.20GRP
In most cases, there will be no preliminary agreement to enter into a regulated mortgage contract in advance of entering into the contract itself. Moreover, the exclusions relevant to a regulated activity are taken into account to determine whether a person is agreeing to carry on that regulated activity. So, for example, agreeing to arrange regulated mortgage contracts in cases where borrower and service provider are overseas, would not be regulated activities because the activities
PERG 8.14.16GRP
In order to make an unsolicited real time financial promotion, an overseas communicator must rely on either article 32 or article 33. Article 32 provides an exemption for unsolicited real time financial promotions made by an overseas communicator to persons who were previously overseas and were a customer of his then. This is subject to certain conditions, including that, in broad terms, the customer would reasonably expect to be contacted about the subject matter of the financial
PERG 8.14.18GRP
This exemption allows a person in another EEA State who lawfully carries on a controlled activity in that State to promote into the United Kingdom. The terms of the exemption are that the promotion must comply with the rules in COB 3 or MCOB 3 (as relevant). Care should be taken as any failure to satisfy any of the relevant requirements of these rules may mean that this exemption is not satisfied and that the financial promotion may breach section 21 if it has not been approved
PERG 8.14.20GRP
In the FSA's opinion;(1) it will not matter that a person enters into arrangements for investment or other purposes provided that he also enters them into for commercial purposes; and(2) each participant must be carrying on the business in question in their own right.This means that the sponsors or promoters of a company who arrange for private investors to become shareholders will not be setting up a joint enterprise simply because the company may intend to carry on a relevant
PERG 8.14.27GRP
To be a sophisticated investor for the purposes of article 50, the recipient of a financial promotion must have a current certificate from an authorised person stating that he has enough knowledge to be able to understand the risks associated with the description of investment to which the financial promotion relates. Where the financial promotion is an outgoing electronic commerce communication3, the certificate may be signed by a person who is entitled, under the law of an EEA
PERG 8.12.11GRP
This exemption applies to any financial promotion that is made with a view to or for the purposes of introducing the recipient to certain kinds of person. These are authorised persons who carry on the controlled activity to which the financial promotion relates, or exempt persons where the financial promotion relates to a controlled activity that is also a regulated activity in relation to which he is an exempt person. This is subject to the requirement that:11(1) the person making
SUP 6.4.11GRP
If the firm is carrying on designated investment business with retail clients7, the FSA may request confirmation that the firm has written, or intends to write, to all retail clients7with, or for whom, the firm has conducted regulated activities within a certain period.77
COND 2.4.2GRP
(1) Threshold condition 4 (Adequate resources), requires the FSA to ensure that a firm has adequate resources in relation to the specific regulated activity or regulated activities which it seeks to carry on, or carries on.(2) In this context, the FSA will interpret the term 'adequate' as meaning sufficient in terms of quantity, quality and availability, and 'resources' as including all financial resources, non-financial resources and means of managing its resources; for example,
COND 2.4.3GRP
(1) When assessing this threshold condition, the FSA may have regard to any person appearing to it to be, or likely to be, in a relevant relationship with the firm, in accordance with section 49 of the Act (Persons connected with an applicant); for example, a firm's controllers, its directors or partners, other persons with close links to the firm (see COND 2.3), and other persons that exert influence on the firm which might pose a risk to the firm's satisfaction of the threshold
COND 2.4.4GRP
(1) When assessing whether a firm will satisfy and continue to satisfy threshold condition 4, the FSA will have regard to all relevant matters, whether arising in the United Kingdom or elsewhere.(2) Relevant matters may include but are not limited to:(a) whether there are any indications that the firm may have difficulties if the application is granted (see COND 2.4.6 G), at the time of the grant or in the future, in complying with any of the FSA'sprudential rules (see the relevant
SUP 6.2.1GRP
A firm authorised under Part IV of the Act (Permission to carry on regulated activity) has a single Part IV permission granted by the FSA. A firm's Part IV permission specifies all or some of the following elements (see PERG 2 Annex 2 (Regulated activities and the permission regime) and the FSA website "How do I get authorised": http://www.fsa.gov.uk/Pages/Doing/how/index.shtml3):3(1) a description of the activities the firm may carry on, including any limitations;(2) the specified
SUP 6.2.5GRP

Variation and cancellation of Part IV permission. See ofSUP 6.2.3 G

Question

Variation of Part IV permission

Cancellation of Part IV permission

What does the application apply to?

Individual elements of a firm's Part IV permission. Variations may involve adding or removing categories of regulated activity or specified investments or varying or removing any limitations or requirements in the firm's Part IV permission.

A firm's entire Part IV permission and not individual elements within it.

In what circumstances is it usually appropriate to make an application?

If a firm:

1. wishes to change the regulated activities it carries on in the United Kingdom under a Part IV permission (SUP 6.3); or

2. has the ultimate intention of ceasing carrying on regulated activities but due to the nature of those regulated activities (for example, accepting deposits, or insurance business) it will require a long term (normally over six months) to wind down (run off) its business (see SUP 6.2.8 G to SUP 6.2.11 G and SUP 6 Annex 4).

If a firm:

1. has ceased to carry on all of the regulated activities for which it has Part IV permission (SUP 6.4); or

2. wishes or expects to cease carrying on all of the regulated activities for which it has Part IV permission in the short term (normally not more than six months). In this case, the firm may apply to cancel its Part IV permission prior to ceasing the regulated activities (see SUP 6.4.3 G).

Where do I find a summary of the application procedures?

See SUP 6 Annex 2 .

See SUP 6 Annex 3.
PERG 5.6.8GRP
This exclusion applies to a person whose profession or business does not otherwise consist of regulated activities. In the FSA's view, the fact that a person may carry on regulated activities in the course of the carrying on of a profession or business does not, of itself, mean that the profession or business consists of regulated activities. This is provided that the main focus of the profession or business does not involve regulated activities and that the regulated activities
PERG 5.6.16GRP
The restriction in the scope of article 28 raises an issue where there is a trust with co-trustees, where each trustee will be a policyholder with equal rights and obligations. If the activities of one of the trustees include arranging in respect of contracts of insurance, that trustee could be viewed as arranging on behalf of his co-trustees who will also be policyholders. Similar issues also arise in respect of trustees assisting in the administration and performance of a contract
COND 2.5.2GRP
(1) Threshold condition 5 (Suitability), requires the firm to satisfy the FSA that it is 'fit and proper' to have Part IV permission having regard to all the circumstances, including its connections with other persons, the range and nature of its proposed (or current) regulated activities and the overall need to be satisfied that its affairs are and will be conducted soundly and prudently (see also PRIN and SYSC).(2) The FSA will also take into consideration anything that could
COND 2.5.6GRP
In determining whether a firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, threshold condition 5 in respect of conducting its business with integrity and in compliance with proper standards, the relevant matters, as referred to in COND 2.5.4 G (2), may include but are not limited to whether:(1) the firm has been open and co-operative in all its dealings with the FSA and any other regulatory body (see Principle 11 (Relations with regulators)) and is ready, willing and organised to comply
PERG 4.5.2GRP
The first activity (article 25A(1)) is referred to in this guidance as arranging (bringing about) regulated mortgage contracts. Various points arise:(1) It is not necessary for the potential borrower himself to be involved in making the arrangements.(2) This activity is carried on only if the arrangements bring about, or would bring about a regulated mortgage contract. This is because of the exclusion in article 26 (see PERG 4.5.4 G).(3) This activity therefore includes the activities
PERG 4.5.11GRP
The exclusion applies for introductions to:(1) an authorised person who has permission to carry on a regulated activity specified in article 25A (Arranging regulated mortgage contracts) or article 53A (Advising on regulated mortgage contracts) or article 61(1) (Entering into a regulated mortgage contract as lender); introducers can check the status of an authorised person and its permission by visiting the FSA's registerat http://www.fsa.gov.uk/register/;(2) an appointed representative
COND 1.3.1GRP
The guidance in COND 2 explains each threshold condition in Part I of Schedule 6 (threshold conditions) to the Act and how the FSA will interpret it in practice. An overview of the threshold conditions is given in COND 1 Annex 1 G. This guidance is not, however, exhaustive and is written in very general terms. A firm will need to have regard to the obligation placed upon the FSA under section 41 (the threshold conditions) of the Act; that is, the FSA must ensure that the firm
COND 1.3.3GRP
Although the FSA may consider that a matter is relevant to its assessment of a firm, the fact that a matter is disclosed to the FSA, for example in an application, does not necessarily mean that the firm will fail to satisfy the threshold conditions. The FSA will consider each matter in relation to the regulated activities for which the firm has, or will have, permission, having regard to the regulatory objectives set out in section 2 of the Act (The FSA's general duties). A firm
COND 1.3.4GRP
(1) For ease of reference, the threshold conditions in or under Schedule 6 to the Act have been quoted in full in COND 2. (2) As these provisions impose obligations, they are printed in bold type. The use of bold type is not intended to indicate that these quotations are rules made by the FSA.(3) Where words have been substituted for the text of these provisions the substitutions are enclosed in square brackets ([ ]). However, none of the changes made by the FSA in these quotations
FEES 3.2.7RRP

Table of application, notification and vetting fees

(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable

Due date

(a) Any applicant for Part IV permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission)

(1) Unless (2) applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application.

(2) In respect of a particular application which is:

(i) a straightforward or moderately complex case for the purposes of FEES 3 Annex 1 part 1, and

(ii) only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6,

the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11

1

On or before the application is made

(b) Any Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right, except for a firm providing cross border services only4

(1) Where no certificate has been issued under paragraph 3(4) of Schedule 4 to the Act the fee payable is, in respect of a particular exercise, set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, part 4

(2) Where a certificate in (i) has been issued no fee is payable

On or before the notice of exercise is given

(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order

2,000

On or before the application is made

(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition of, a collective investment scheme

FEES 3 Annex 2, part 1

On or before the application is made

(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body.

10,000

30 days after the order is granted

(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body under section 287 or section 288 of the Act

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(h) Any applicant for recognition as an overseas recognised body under section 287 or section 288 and section 292 of the Act

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(i) An applicant for listing (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(j) Applicant for approval as sponsor (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(k) Issuers of tranches from debt issuance programmes and securitised derivative tranches

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

An upfront fee is required per tranche for draw downs in the following 12 months

(l) Under the listing rules, an issuer involved in specific events or transactions during the year where documentation is subject to a transaction vetting

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 1, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA

(m) Under the prospectus rules, an issuer or person requesting approval or vetting of the documents arising in relation to specific events or transactions that it might be involved in during the year

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 2, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA

(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges

50,000

On or before the date the application is made

2(o) In connection with rules (or future rules) implementing the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 (including any amendments):

(i) a firm applying to the FSA for a waiver or concession (or guidance on the availability of either): or

(ii) a firm'sEEA parent applying to its Home State regulator for the use of the Internal Ratings Based approach and the Home State regulator requesting the FSA's assistance in accordance with the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 .

112

If the firm is applying to the FSA:2

(1) unless2 (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6;2

(2) (a) unless2 (b) applies a1firm submitting a second application for a waiver or concession or1guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application

(b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a waiver or a concession based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1

(c) No fee is payable by a firm applying to its Home State regulator where the Home State regulator has requested the assistance of the FSAand the firm falls within Group 4 of 5Part 1 of 5FEES 3 Annex 6.2

212

Where the firm has made an application directly to the FSA, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the FSA notifies the firm that its EEA parent's Home State regulator has requested the FSA's assistance.2

2

(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part IV permission

(1) Unless (2) applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1 not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in which apply to that application.

(2) If the only change is that the1 A.12 activity group tariff applied to the firm's business before the variation and the A.13 activity group will apply after variation, no fee is payable(3) In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250, unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part IV permission in which case no fee is payable.1

11

On or before the date the application is made

2(q) A significanttransaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 1.5 billion and it is a new applicant for a primary listing under the listing rules, or involved in a reverse or hostile takeover or a significant restructuring; or

(ii) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 5 billion and is involved in a class 1 transaction or a transaction requiring vetting of an equity prospectus or equivalent document

; or (iii) the issuer is proposing a Depositary Receipt issue intended to raise more than 5billion.

50,000

On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA.3

33

2(r) Providers of reporting or trade matching systems applying for recognition under MiFID as an Approved Reporting Mechanism.

20,000

On or before the date the application is made.5

5(s) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme, a transferor.

Note - for the purpose of this paragraph an insurance business transfer scheme consists of a single transferor and a single transferee. Where however such a scheme is part of a single larger scheme, that larger scheme is treated as a single insurance business transfer scheme. If an insurance business transfer scheme includes more than one transferor in accordance with this paragraph, the transferors are liable to pay the fee under column (2) jointly.

Either (1) or (2) as set out below:

(1) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme involving long term insurance business, 18,500; or

(2) in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme not involving long term insurance business, 10,000.

On or before any application is made to the FSA for the appointment of a person as an independent expert.
PERG 2.10.5GRP
A person is exempt if he is an appointed representative of an authorised person. See SUP 12 (Appointed representatives). But where an appointed representative carries on insurance mediation or reinsurance mediation he will not be exempt unless he is included on the register kept by the FSA under article 93 of the Regulated Activities Order (Duty to maintain a record of unauthorised persons carrying on insurance mediation activities) (see PERG 5.13 (Appointed representatives
PERG 2.10.10GRP
But under section 316 of the Act (Direction by the FSA) the general prohibition does not apply to a person who is a member of the Society of Lloyds unless the FSA has made a direction that it should apply. The general prohibition is disapplied in relation to any regulated activity carried on by a member relating to contracts of insurance written at Lloyds. Directions can be made by the FSA in relation to individual members or the members of the Society of Lloyds taken together.
PERG 2.10.13GRP
Such a person may carry on regulated activities if the conditions outlined below are met, that is the person:(1) is not affected by an order or direction made by the FSA under section 328 or 329 of the Act (Directions and orders in relation to the general prohibition) which has the effect of re-imposing the general prohibition in any particular case;(2) is, or is controlled by, a member of a profession;(3) does not receive any pecuniary reward or other advantage from the regulated
PERG 2.10.16GRP
A person carrying on regulated activities under the regime for members of the professions will be subject to rules made by the professional body designated by the Treasury. Such bodies are obliged to make rules governing the carrying on by their members of those regulated activities that they are able to carry on without authorisation under the Act. Where such a person is carrying on insurance mediation or reinsurance mediation, he must also be included on the register kept by
DEPP 2.5.3GRP
FSA staff under executive procedures will take the decision to give a warning notice if the FSA proposes to:(1) refuse an application for a Part IV permission or to refuse an application to cancel a Part IV permission;(2) impose a limitation or a requirement which was not applied for, or specify a narrower description of regulated activity than that applied for, on the grant of a Part IV permission;(3) refuse an application to vary a Part IV permission, or to restrict a Part IV
DEPP 2.5.7GRP
The RDC will take the decision to give a supervisory notice exercising the FSA's own initiative power (by removing a regulated activity, by imposing a limitation or requirement or by specifying a narrower description of regulated activity) if the action involves a fundamental change (see DEPP 2.5.8 G) to the nature of a permission. Otherwise, the decision to give the decision notice will be taken by FSA staff under executive procedures.
DEPP 2.5.18GRP
Some of the distinguishing features of notices given under enactments other than the Act are as follows: (1) Building Societies Act 1986, section 36A: There is no right to refer a decision to issue a prohibition order under section 36A to the Tribunal. Accordingly, a decision notice under section 36A(5A) is not required to give an indication of whether any such right exists. A decision notice under section 36A(5A) may only relate to the issue of a prohibition order under section
PERG 8.17.5GRP
Providing qualifying credit is a controlled activity under paragraph 10 of Schedule 1 to the Financial Promotion Order. In the FSA's view, 'providing' means, in this context, providing as lender; an intermediary does not 'provide' qualifying credit.
PERG 8.17.13GRP
Introducers can check whether a person is an authorised person or an appointed representative by visiting the FSA's register at http://www.fsa.gov.uk/register/.If an authorised person has permission to carry on a regulated activity (which can be checked on the FSA's register) it is reasonable, in the FSA's view, to conclude that the authorised person carries on that activity (but not a controlled activity which is not a regulated activity). The FSA would normally expect introducers
PERG 2.9.22GRP
3[deleted]66
SUP 16.12.2GRP
(1) Principle 4 requires firms to maintain adequate financial resources. The Interim Prudential sourcebooks, PRU, BIPRU and GENPRU set out the FSA's detailed capital adequacy requirements. By submitting regular data, firms enable the FSA to monitor their compliance with Principle 4 and their prudential requirements in the FSA Handbook.(2) The data items submitted help the FSA analyse firms' financial and other conditions and performance and to understand their business. By
SUP 16.12.3RRP
(1) Any firm permitted to 5carry5 on any of the activities within each of the RAGs set out in column (1) of the table in SUP 16.12.4 R must:(a) (i) unless (ii) applies, submit to the FSA the duly completed data items or other items applicable to the firm as set out in the provision referred to in column (2) of that table;(ii) to the extent that a firm is required to submit completed data items in respect of more than one RAG, the firm must only submit the data item of the same
SUP 16.12.4RRP

Table of applicable rules containing data items4, frequency and submission periods

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

RAGnumber

Regulated Activities

Provisions containing:

applicabledata items

reporting frequency/ period

Due date

RAG 1

• accepting deposits

• issuing electronic money

SUP 16.12.5 R

SUP 16.12.6 R

SUP 16.12.7 R

RAG 2.1

• effecting contracts of insurance

• carrying out contracts of insurance

• entering as provider into a funeral plan contract

SUP 16.12.8 R2

SUP 16.12.8 R2

SUP 16.12.8 R2

RAG 2.2

• managing the underwriting capacity of a Lloyds syndicate as a managing agent at Lloyds

• advising on syndicate participation at Lloyds

• arranging deals in contracts of insurance written at Lloyds

SUP 16.12.9 R2

SUP 16.12.9 R2

SUP 16.12.9 R2

RAG 3

• dealing in investment as principal

• dealing in investments as agent

• advising on investments (excluding retail investment activities)

• arranging (bringing about) deals in investments (excluding retail investment activities)

SUP 16.12.10 R2

SUP 16.12.11 R

SUP 16.12.10 R2SUP 16.12.12 R

SUP 16.12.10 R2SUP 16.12.13 R

RAG 4

• managing investments

• establishing, operating or winding up a regulated collective investment scheme

• establishing, operating or winding up an unregulated collective investment scheme

• establishing, operating or winding up a stakeholder pension scheme

• establishing, operating or winding up a personal pension scheme2

5

SUP 16.12.14 R2

SUP 16.12.15 R

SUP 16.12.14 R2SUP 16.12.16 R

SUP 16.12.14 R2SUP 16.12.17 R

RAG 5

• entering into a regulated mortgage contract

• administering a regulated mortgage contract

SUP 16.12.18A R2

SUP 16.12.18A R2

SUP 16.12.18A R2

RAG 6

• acting as trustee of an authorised unit trust

• safeguarding and administration of assets (without arranging)

• arranging safeguarding and administration of assets

• acting as depository or sole director of an OEIC5

SUP 16.12.19A R2

SUP 16.12.20 R2

SUP 16.12.21 R2

RAG 7

• retail investment activities

• advising on pensions transfers & opt-outs

• arranging (bringing about deals) in retail investments

SUP 16.12.22A R

SUP 16.12.23 R

SUP 16.12.24 R

RAG 8

• making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments

• operating a multilateral trading facility4

SUP 16.12.25A R

SUP 16.12.26 R

SUP 16.12.27 R

RAG 9

• mortgage mediation activity

• insurance mediation activity (non-investment insurance contracts)

SUP 16.12.28 R2

SUP 16.12.28 R2

SUP 16.12.28 R2

RAG 10

• the activities of an RIE/RCH

SUP 16.12.29 G2

SUP 16.12.29 G2

SUP 16.12.29 G2
SUP 16.12.28ARRP

2The applicable data items, reporting frequencies and submission deadlines referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R are set out in the table below. Reporting frequencies are calculated from a firm'saccounting reference date, unless indicated otherwise. The due dates are the last day of the periods given in the table below following the relevant reporting frequency period.

Description of data item

Data item (note 1)

Frequency

Submission deadline

Annual regulated business revenue up to and including £5 million

Annual regulated business revenue over £5 million

Balance Sheet

Section A RMAR

Half yearly

Quarterly

30 business days

Income Statement

Section B RMAR

Half yearly

Quarterly

30 business days

Capital Adequacy

Section D1 RMAR

Half yearly

Quarterly

30 business days

Professional indemnity insurance

Section E RMAR

Half yearly

Half yearly

30 business days

Threshold Conditions

Section F RMAR

Half yearly

Half yearly

30 business days

Training and Competence

Section G RMAR

Half yearly

Half yearly

30 business days

COB data

Section H RMAR

Half yearly

Half yearly

30 business days

Supplementary product sales data

Section I RMAR

Annually

Annually

30 business days

Client money and client assets

Section C RMAR

Half yearly

Quarterly

30 business days

Fees and levies

Section J RMAR

Annually

Annually

30 business days

Note 1

When submitting the completed data item required, a firm must use the format of the data item set out in SUP 16 Annex 18A. Guidance notes for the completion of the data items is set out in SUP 16 Annex 18B.
SUP 16.12.30RRP
(1) 2An authorised professional firm, other than one that must comply with IPRU(INV) 3, 5, 10 or 13 in accordance with IPRU(INV) 2.1.4R,3 must submit an annual questionnaire, contained in SUP 16 Annex 9R, unless:(a) its only regulated activities are one or more of:(i) insurance mediation;(ii) mortgage mediation;(iii) retail investment;(iv) mortgage lending;(v) mortgage administration; or(b) its "main business" as determined by IPRU(INV) 2.1.2R(3) is advising on, or arrangingdeals