Related provisions for GEN 1.1.2

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PERG 4.2.3GRP
A person who is concerned to know whether his proposed activities may require authorisation will need to consider the following questions (these questions are a summary of the issues to be considered and have been reproduced, in slightly fuller form, in the flowchart in PERG 4.18):(1) will I be carrying on my activities by way of business (see PERG 4.3.3 G (The business test))?(2) if so, will my activities relate to regulated mortgage contracts (see PERG 4.4 (What is a regulated
PERG 4.2.5GRP
An unauthorised person who intends to carry on activities connected with mortgages will also need to comply with section 21 of the Act (Restrictions on financial promotion). This guidance does not cover financial promotions that relate to mortgages. Persons should refer to the general guidance on financial promotion in Appendix 1 to the Authorisation manual, PERG 8 (Financial promotion and related activities)) and, in particular, to PERG 8.17 (Financial promotions concerning agreements
FEES 3.2.5GRP
(1) (2) With the exception of persons seeking to become a designated professional body, all applications, notifications, requests for vetting or admission approval will be treated as incomplete until the relevant fee is fully paid and the FSA will not consider an application, notification, request for vetting or admission approval until the relevant fee is fully paid. Persons seeking to become a designated professional body have 30 days after the designation order is made to
FEES 3.2.7RRP

Table of application, notification and vetting fees

(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable

Due date

(a) Any applicant for Part IV permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission)

(1) Unless (2) applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application.

(2) In respect of a particular application which is:

(i) a straightforward or moderately complex case for the purposes of FEES 3 Annex 1 part 1, and

(ii) only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6,

the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11

1

On or before the application is made

(b) Any Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right, except for a firm providing cross border services only4

(1) Where no certificate has been issued under paragraph 3(4) of Schedule 4 to the Act the fee payable is, in respect of a particular exercise, set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, part 4

(2) Where a certificate in (i) has been issued no fee is payable

On or before the notice of exercise is given

(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order

2,000

On or before the application is made

(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition of, a collective investment scheme

FEES 3 Annex 2, part 1

On or before the application is made

(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body.

10,000

30 days after the order is granted

(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body under section 287 or section 288 of the Act

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(h) Any applicant for recognition as an overseas recognised body under section 287 or section 288 and section 292 of the Act

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(i) An applicant for listing (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(j) Applicant for approval as sponsor (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(k) Issuers of tranches from debt issuance programmes and securitised derivative tranches

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

An upfront fee is required per tranche for draw downs in the following 12 months

(l) Under the listing rules, an issuer involved in specific events or transactions during the year where documentation is subject to a transaction vetting

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 1, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA

(m) Under the prospectus rules, an issuer or person requesting approval or vetting of the documents arising in relation to specific events or transactions that it might be involved in during the year

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 2, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA

(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges

50,000

On or before the date the application is made

2(o) In connection with rules (or future rules) implementing the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 (including any amendments):

(i) a firm applying to the FSA for a waiver or concession (or guidance on the availability of either): or

(ii) a firm'sEEA parent applying to its Home State regulator for the use of the Internal Ratings Based approach and the Home State regulator requesting the FSA's assistance in accordance with the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 .

112

If the firm is applying to the FSA:2

(1) unless2 (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6;2

(2) (a) unless2 (b) applies a1firm submitting a second application for a waiver or concession or1guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application

(b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a waiver or a concession based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1

(c) No fee is payable by a firm applying to its Home State regulator where the Home State regulator has requested the assistance of the FSAand the firm falls within Group 4 of Part 1 of FEES 3 Annex 6.2

212

Where the firm has made an application directly to the FSA, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the FSA notifies the firm that its EEA parent's Home State regulator has requested the FSA's assistance.2

2

(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part IV permission

(1) Unless (2) applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1 not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in which apply to that application.

(2) If the only change is that the1 A.12 activity group tariff applied to the firm's business before the variation and the A.13 activity group will apply after variation, no fee is payable(3) In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250, unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part IV permission in which case no fee is payable.1

11

On or before the date the application is made

2(q) A significanttransaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 1.5 billion and it is a new applicant for a primary listing under the listing rules, or involved in a reverse or hostile takeover or a significant restructuring; or

(ii) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 5 billion and is involved in a class 1 transaction or a transaction requiring vetting of an equity prospectus or equivalent document

; or (iii) the issuer is proposing a Depositary Receipt issue intended to raise more than 5billion.

50,000

On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA.3

33

2(r) Providers of reporting or trade matching systems applying for recognition under MiFID as an Approved Reporting Mechanism.

20,000

On or before the date the application is made.5

5(s) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme, a transferor.

Note - for the purpose of this paragraph an insurance business transfer scheme consists of a single transferor and a single transferee. Where however such a scheme is part of a single larger scheme, that larger scheme is treated as a single insurance business transfer scheme. If an insurance business transfer scheme includes more than one transferor in accordance with this paragraph, the transferors are liable to pay the fee under column (2) jointly.

Either (1) or (2) as set out below:

(1) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme involving long term insurance business, 18,500; or

(2) in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme not involving long term insurance business, 10,000.

On or before any application is made to the FSA for the appointment of a person as an independent expert.
PERG 9.2.1GRP
The nature of many bodies corporate means that they will, in most if not all circumstances, come within the definition of collective investment scheme in section 235(1) to (3) of the Act (Collective investment schemes). The property concerned will generally be managed as a whole under the control of the directors of the body corporate or some other person for the purpose of running its business. The idea underlying the investment is that the investors will participate in or receive
PERG 9.2.2GRP
However, there are a number of exclusions that apply to prevent certain arrangements from being a collective investment scheme. These are in the Schedule to the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Collective Investment Schemes) Order 2001 (SI 2001/1062) (Arrangements not amounting to a collective investment scheme). The exclusion in paragraph 21 of the Schedule to that Order is of particular significance for bodies corporate. It excludes from being a collective investment
COLL 2.1.3GRP
(1) This chapter sets out the requirements that a person must follow in applying for an authorisation order for a scheme under regulation 12 of the OEIC Regulations (Applications for authorisation) or section 242 of the Act (Applications for authorisation of unit trust schemes).(2) COLLG 3 (The FSA's responsibilities under the Act) and COLLG 4 (The FSA's responsibilities under the OEIC Regulations) provide more information on what the Act and the OEIC Regulations require in
APER 1.2.5GRP
As set out in SUP 10.3.1 R (Arrangements and regulated activities), a function is a controlled function only to the extent that it is performed under an arrangement entered into by:(1) a firm; or (2) a contractor of the firm;in relation to the carrying on by the firm of a regulated activity.
PERG 8.8.1GRP
Section 21(3) of the Act states that, in the case of a communication originating outside the United Kingdom, the restriction in section 21(1) applies only if it is capable of having an effect in the United Kingdom. In this respect, it is irrelevant whether the communication has an effect provided it is capable of doing so.
PERG 8.8.3GRP
Where communications by persons in another EEA State are made to or directed at persons in the United Kingdom account must be taken of the effect of any relevant EU Directives. For example, the E-Commerce Directive will, with limited exceptions, prevent the United Kingdom from imposing restrictions on incoming financial promotions in information society services. The Treasury has given effect to this through the Financial Promotion Order (see1PERG 8.12.38 G). Other potentially
SUP 15.6.7GRP
Firms are reminded that section 398 of the Act (Misleading the Authority: residual cases) makes it an offence for a firm knowingly or recklessly to provide the FSA with information which is false or misleading in a material particular in purported compliance with the FSA'srules or any other requirement imposed by or under the Act. An offence by a body corporate, partnership or unincorporated association may be attributed to an officer or certain other persons (section 400 of the
SUP 13A.7.1GRP
If a person established in the EEA: (1) does not have an EEA right; (2) does not have permission as a UCITS qualifier; and(3) does not have, or does not wish to exercise, a Treaty right (see SUP 13A.3.4 G to SUP 13A.3.11 G);to carry on a particular regulated activity in the United Kingdom, it must seek Part IV permission from the FSA to do so (see the FSA website "How do I get authorised": http://www.fsa.gov.uk/Pages/Doing/how/index.shtml1). This might arise if the activity itself
SUP 13A.7.4GRP
For guidance on how to apply for Part IV permission under the Act, see the FSA website "How do I get authorised": http://www.fsa.gov.uk/Pages/Doing/how/index.shtml.1 If an EEA firm or Treaty firm wishes to make any subsequent changes to its top-up permission, it can make an application for variation of that permission (see SUP 6 (Applications to vary and cancel Part IV permission)).1
REC 2.2.1UKRP

Recognition Requirements Regulations, Regulation 6

2(1) In considering whether a [UK recognised body] or applicant satisfiesrecognition requirements applying to it under these [Recognition Requirements Regulations], the [FSA] may take into account all relevant circumstances including the constitution of the person concerned and its regulatory provisions within the meaning of section 302(1) of the Act.

(2) Without prejudice to the generality of paragraph (1), a [UK recognised body] or applicant may satisfyrecognition requirements applying to it under these [Recognition Requirements Regulations] by making arrangements for functions to be performed on its behalf by any otherperson.

(3) Where a [UK recognised body] or applicant makes arrangements of the kind mentioned in paragraph (2), the arrangements do not affect the responsibility imposed by the Act on the [UK recognised body] or applicant to satisfy recognition requirements applying to it under these [Recognition Requirements Regulations ], but it is in addition a recognition requirement applying to the [UK recognised body] or applicant that the person who performs (or is to perform) the functions is a fit and proper person who is able and willing to perform them.
REC 2.2.6GRP
In determining whether the UK recognised body meets the recognition requirement in Regulation 6(3), the FSA may have regard to whether that body has ensured that the person who performs that function on its behalf:(1) has sufficient resources to be able to perform the function (after allowing for any other activities);(2) has adequate systems and controls to manage that function and to report on its performance to the UK recognised body;(3) is managed by persons of sufficient
PERG 8.20.1GRP
Where collective investment schemes are concerned additional restrictions are placed on their promotion to ensure that only those which are regulated are promoted to the general public. This is achieved by a combination of sections 21 and 238 (Restrictions on promotion) of the Act as explained in PERG 8.20.2 G. A regulated collective investment scheme is:(1) an authorised unit trust scheme; or(2) an investment company with variable capital; or(3) a scheme recognised under section
PERG 8.20.2GRP
Section 21 precludes the promotion by unauthorised persons of unregulated collective investment schemes unless the financial promotion is approved by an authorised person or is exempt. Section 238 then precludes the promotion of an unregulated collective investment scheme by authorised persons except where:(1) there is an exemption in an order made by the Treasury under section 238(6); or(2) the financial promotion is permitted under rules made by the FSA under section 238(5)
SUP 18.4.9GRP
For an amalgamation the successor society, and for a transfer the transferee, may need to apply for permission, or to vary its permission, under Part IVof the Act. The FSA will need time before confirming a transferto consider whether any necessary permission or variation should be given. If the transferee is an EEA firm or a Swiss general insurance company, then confirmation will be needed from its Home State regulator that it meets the Home State's solvency margin requirements
SUP 18.4.25GRP
The criteria that the FSA must use in determining whether to confirm a proposed amalgamation or transfer are set out in schedule 15 to the Friendly Societies Act 1992. These criteria include that:(1) confirmation must not be given if the FSA considers that:(a) there is a substantial risk that the successor society or transferee will be unable lawfully to carry out the engagements to be transferred to it;(b) information material to the members' decision about the amalgamation or
PERG 2.3.1GRP
Under section 22 of the Act (Regulated activities), for an activity to be a regulated activity it must be carried on 'by way of business'.
PERG 2.3.2GRP
There is power in the Act for the Treasury to change the meaning of the business element by including or excluding certain things. They have exercised this power (see the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Carrying on Regulated Activities by Way of Business) Order 2001 (SI 2001/1177), the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No.2) Order 2003 (SI 2003/1476) and the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Carrying on Regulated Activities
PERG 8.5.1GRP
Under section 21(4) of the Act, the Treasury has the power to specify circumstances in which a person is viewed as ‘acting in the course of business’ or ‘not acting in the course of business’. The power under section 21(4) relates only to financial promotions and is distinct from the power in section 419 which relates to regulated activities. To date, the Treasury has not used the power in section 21(4). As a result, the phrase has its ordinary or natural meaning.
PERG 8.5.2GRP
The FSA considers that ‘in the course of business’ requires a commercial interest on the part of the communicator. This does not necessarily have to be a direct interest. And the communicator does not need to be carrying on regulated activities (the test in section 19 of the Act) as or as part of his business. Neither does the communication need to be made in the course of carrying on activities as a business in their own right (the test in article 3 of the Financial Services
SUP 3.4.5RRP
A firm must not appoint as auditor a person who is disqualified by the FSA under section 345 of the Act (Disqualification) from acting as an auditor either for that firm or for a relevant class of firm.
SUP 3.4.6GRP
If it appears to the FSA that an auditor of a firm has failed to comply with a duty imposed on him under the Act, it may disqualify him under section 345 of the Act. For more detail about what happens when the disqualification of an auditor is being considered or put into effect, see EG 151. A list of persons who are disqualified by the FSA under section 345 of the Act may be found on the FSA website (www.fsa.gov.uk).1
BIPRU 7.9.2GRP
The purpose of BIPRU 7.9 is to provide guidance on the FSA's policy for granting CAD 1 model waivers under section 148 of the Act (Modification or waiver of rules). The policy recognises that CAD 1 models may vary across firms but, as a minimum, the FSA will need to be satisfied:(1) about the quality of the internal controls and risk management relating to the model (see BIPRU 7.9.19G - BIPRU 7.9.23G for further details);(2) about the quality of the model standards; and(3) that
BIPRU 7.9.17GRP
No changes should be made to a CAD 1 model unless the change is not material. Material changes to a CAD 1 model will require a renewed waiver to be issued. Materiality is measured from the time that the waiver is granted or, if the waiver has been varied in accordance with section 148 of the Act, any later time that may be specified in the waiver for these purposes. If a firm is considering making material changes to its CAD 1 model, then it should notify the FSA at once. If a
BIPRU 7.9.18GRP
If the CAD 1 model ceases to meet the requirements of the waiver, the firm should notify the FSA at once. The FSA may then revoke the waiver unless it is varied in accordance with section 148 of the Act. If the CAD 1 model waiver contains conditions it is a condition of using the CAD 1 model approach that the firm should continue to comply with those conditions.
PERG 5.3.3GRP
One consequence of this is that common law judicial decisions about whether particular contracts amount to 'insurance' or their being effected or carried out amounts to 'insurance business' are relevant in defining the regulatory scope of the Act.
PERG 5.3.4GRP
As with any other contract, a contract of insurance that is not effected by way of a deed will only be legally binding if, amongst other things, it is entered into for valuable consideration. Determining what amounts to sufficient consideration in any given case is a matter for the courts. In practice, however, the legal definition of consideration is very wide. In particular, just because a contract of insurance is 'free' in the colloquial sense does not mean that there is no
MAR 4.3.4GRP
(1) Where a restriction under MAR 4.3.1 R applies, an authorised professional firm is not prevented from providing professional advice or representation in any proceedings to the person where that falls within section 327(8) of the Act. This means that the person can obtain legal advice or representation in any proceedings from a law firm and accounting advice from an accounting firm: see MAR 4.4.1 R (2).(2) While the FSA recognises the duty of authorised professional firms to
MAR 4.3.7GRP
As a result of section 413 of the Act (Limitation on powers to require documents), MAR 4.3.5 R does not require a firm or an authorised professional firm to produce, disclose or permit the inspection of protected items.