Related provisions for MIPRU 3.2.6
61 - 80 of 85 items.
(1) A person to whom a firm provides, intends to provide or has provided:(a) a service in the course of carrying on a regulated activity; or(b) in the case of MiFID or equivalent third country business, an ancillary service,is a "client" of that firm;(2) A "client" includes a potential client.(3) In relation to the financial promotion rules, a person to whom a financial promotion is or is likely to be communicated is a "client" of a firm that communicates or approves it.(4) A
Some of the distinguishing features of notices given under enactments other than the Act are as follows: (1) Building Societies Act 1986, section 36A: There is no right to refer a decision to issue a prohibition order under section 36A to the Tribunal. Accordingly, a decision notice under section 36A(5A) is not required to give an indication of whether any such right exists. A decision notice under section 36A(5A) may only relate to the issue of a prohibition order under section
(1) The purpose of the precautionary measure rule is to ensure that an incoming EEA firm is subject to the standards of MiFID and the MiFID implementing Directive to the extent that the Home State has not transposed MiFID or the MiFID implementing Directive by 1 November 2007. It is to 'fill a gap'.(2) The rule is made in the light of the duty of the United Kingdom under Article 62 of MiFID to adopt precautionary measures to protect investors. (3) The rule will be effective for
Except as set out in this section, MCOB applies if the customer of a firm carrying on home finance activities2 is resident in:2(1) the United Kingdom; or(2) another EEA State, but in this case only if the activity is carried on from an establishment maintained by the firm (or its appointed representative) in the United Kingdom;at the time that the home finance activity2 is carried on.2
For the purposes of DISP 2.3.1 R (2), an example of an exceptional circumstance might be where the complainant has been or is incapacitated or where the firm, licensee29 or VJ participant has failed, in its final response, to inform the complainant that he may refer his complaint to the Financial Ombudsman Service or that he must do so within six months.
(1) A firm'sgoverning body is likely to delegate many functions and tasks for the purpose of carrying out its business. When functions or tasks are delegated, either to employees or to appointed representatives or, where applicable, its tied agents8, appropriate safeguards should be put in place.(2) When there is delegation, a firm should assess whether the recipient is suitable to carry out the delegated function or task, taking into account the degree of responsibility involved.(3)
A firm is required to comply with the financial promotion rules in relation to a financial promotioncommunicated by its appointed representative even where the financial promotion does not require approval because of the exemption in article 16 of the Financial Promotion Order (Exempt persons).[Note: see section 39 of the Act]
For the purposes of this section, a person who is not:(1) a director, partner or equivalent, manager or appointed representative (or, where applicable, a tied agent) of the firm; or(2) a director, partner or equivalent, or manager of any appointed representative (or where applicable, a tied agent) of the firm;will only be a relevant person to the extent that they are involved in the provision of designated investment business
In complying with SUP 3.6.1 R, a firm should take reasonable steps to ensure that each of its appointed representatives or, where applicable, tied agents1 gives the firm's auditor the same rights of access to the books, accounts and vouchers of the appointed representative or tied agent1and entitlement to information and explanations from the appointed representative's or tied agent's1 officers as are given in respect of the firm by section 341 of the Act (see also SUP 12.5.5
(1) This chapter applies to a firm in respect of complaints from eligible complainants concerning activities carried on from an establishment maintained by it or its appointed representative in the United Kingdom.(2) For complaints relating to the MiFID business of a firm, the complaints handling rules and the complaints record rule:(a) apply to complaints from retail clients and do not apply to complaints from eligible complainants who are not retail clients; (b) also apply in
Application of article 33 to arrangements for making introductions. This table belongs to PERG 5.6.20 G.
Type of introduction |
Applicability of exclusion |
|
1 |
Introductions are purely for the purpose of the provision of independent advice – Introducer is completely indifferent to whether or not transactions take place after advice has been given. |
Exclusion not relevant as introducer is not arranging under article 25(2). |
2 |
Introduction is one-off or otherwise not part of pre-existing ongoing arrangements that envisage such introduction being made. |
Exclusion not relevant as introducer is not arranging under article 25(2). |
3 |
Introducer is not indifferent to whether or not transactions take place after advice has been given, but is indifferent to whether or not the transactions may involve a contract of insurance. |
Exclusion will be available provided the introduction was made with a view to the provision of independent advice on investments generally. |
4 |
Introducer is not indifferent to whether or not transactions take place after advice has been given (for example, because he expects to receive a percentage of the commission), and introductions specifically relate to contracts of insurance. |
Exclusion is not available. If introducer is an unauthorised person, he will need authorisation or exemption as an appointed representative. If introducer is an authorised person (such as an IFA introducing to a general insurance broker), he will need to vary his Part IV permission accordingly. If introducer is an appointed representative, he will need to ensure that his agreement covers making such arrangements. |
In determining whether a firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, threshold condition 5 in respect of conducting its business with integrity and in compliance with proper standards, the relevant matters, as referred to in COND 2.5.4 G (2), may include but are not limited to whether:(1) the firm has been open and co-operative in all its dealings with the FSA and any other regulatory body (see Principle 11 (Relations with regulators)) and is ready, willing and organised to comply
(1) A firm must notify the FSA of:(a) a significant breach of a rule (which includes a Principle, or a Statement of Principle ; or(b) a breach of any requirement imposed by the Act or by regulations or an order made under the Act by the Treasury (except if the breach is an offence, in which case (c) applies);6(c) the bringing of a prosecution for, or a conviction of, any offence under the Act;(d) a breach of a directly applicable provision in the MiFID Regulation; or6(e) a breach
1(1) This sourcebook3 applies to every firm that:113(a) carries on a home finance activity3 (subject to 31the business loan application provisions3); or3(b) communicates or approves a financial promotion of qualifying credit, of a home purchase planorof a home reversion plan.33(2) Where a firm has outsourced activities to a third party processor, any rule in MCOB which requires the third party processor, when acting as such, to disclose its identity to a customer must be read
If the relevant person in default is an appointed representative, the FSCS must allocateany compensation costs or specific costs arising out of a regulated activity for which his principal has not accepted responsibility to the relevant sub-class4 for that activity or if a levy limit of the relevant sub-class or class has been exceeded, FSCS must allocate any compensation costs levy on the same basis as set out in FEES 6.5.2 R.44
Under section 23 of the Act (Contravention of the general prohibition), a person commits a criminal offence if he carries on activities in breach of the general prohibition in section 19 of the Act (The general prohibition) .. Although a person who commits the criminal offence is subject to a maximum of two years imprisonment and an unlimited fine, it is a defence for a person to show that he took all reasonable precautions and exercised all due diligence to avoid committing the