Related provisions for PERG 6.7.11

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DTR 6.3.8RRP
Upon request, an issuer or other person must be able to communicate to the FSA, in relation to any disclosure of regulated information:(1) the name of the person who communicated the regulated information to the RIS;(2) the security validation details;(3) the time and date on which the regulated information was communicated to the RIS;(4) the medium in which the regulated information was communicated; and(5) details of any embargo placed by the issuer on the regulated information,
MCOB 1.6.2GRP
Principle 2 requires a firm to conduct its business with due skill, care and diligence. The purpose of MCOB 1.6.3 R is to reinforce this. The FSA would expect firms to take appropriate steps to determine whether any mortgage it proposes to enter into is subject to FSA regulation.
MCOB 1.6.4RRP
If, notwithstanding the steps taken by a firm to comply with MCOB 1.6.3 R, it transpires that a mortgage which the firm has treated as unregulated is in fact a regulated mortgage contract, the firm must as soon as practicable after the correct status of the mortgage has been established:(1) contact the customer and provide him with the following information in a durable medium:(a) a statement that the mortgage contract is a regulated mortgage contract subject to FSA regulation,
MCOB 1.6.5GRP
(1) MCOB 1.6.4 R(2) means, for example, that if a firm discovered immediately after completion that a loan was a regulated mortgage contract, the firm would be required to comply with MCOB 7.4 (Disclosure at the start of the contract).(2) Although MCOB 1.6.4 R recognises that firms may become aware that a mortgage is a regulated mortgage contract at a late stage, the FSA expects this to be an extremely rare occurrence. It could arise, for example, if a firm has acted on the understanding,
COLL 6.5.3RRP
(1) The directors (or director) of an ICVC must take all practicable steps to ensure the ICVC has at all times as its ACD a person who is qualified to act as ACD.(2) If the ICVC ceases to have any director, the depositary must exercise its powers, under the OEIC Regulations, to appoint a person to be an ACD of the ICVC.(3) For an ICVC that holds annual general meetings under the OEIC Regulations, the1 appointment of an ACD (other than the first ACD), under (1) or (2), must terminate
COLL 6.5.10RRP
(1) The depositary of an authorised fund may not retire voluntarily except upon the appointment of a new depositary.(2) The depositary of an authorised fund must not retire voluntarily unless, before its retirement, it has ensured that the new depositary has been informed of any circumstance of which the retiring depositary has informed the FSA.(3) When the depositary of an authorised fund wishes to retire or ceases to be an authorised person, the authorised fundmanager may, subject
COBS 12.2.11GRP
The FSA would expect a firm'sconflicts of interest policy to provide for investment research to be published or distributed to its clients in an appropriate manner. For example, the FSA considers it will be:(1) appropriate for a firm to take reasonable steps to ensure that its investment research is published or distributed only through its usual distribution channels; and(2) inappropriate for an employee (whether or not a financial analyst) to communicate the substance of any
COBS 12.2.12GRP
The FSA would expect a firm to consider whether or not other business activities of the firm could create the reasonable perception that its investment research may not be an impartial analysis of the market in, or the value or prospects of, a financial instrument. A firm would therefore be expected to consider whether its conflicts of interest policy should contain any restrictions on the timing of the publication of investment research. For example, a firm might consider whether
COBS 12.2.13GRP
The FSA considers that the significant conflicts of interest which could arise are likely to mean it is inappropriate for a financial analyst or other relevant person to prepare investment research which is intended firstly for internal use for the firm's own advantage, and then for later publication to its clients (in circumstances in which it might reasonably be expected to have a material influence on its clients' investment decisions).
SYSC 5.1.5AGRP
2If a firm requires employees who are not subject to an examination requirement in TC to pass a relevant examination from the list of recommended examinations maintained by the Financial Services Skills Council, the FSA will take that into account when assessing whether the firm has ensured that the employee satisfies the knowledge component of the competent employees rule.
COLL 6.6.7RRP
The ACD must immediately notify the FSA in writing if the ICVC's capital falls below the minimum or exceeds the maximum stated in the instrument of incorporation.
COLL 6.6.11GRP
(General notification requirements) contains rules and guidance on matters that should be notified to the FSA. Such matters include, but are not limited to, any circumstance that the depositary becomes aware of whilst undertaking its functions or duties in COLL 6.6.4 R (1) (General duties of the depositary) that the FSA would reasonably view as significant.
COLL 6.6.16GRP
(1) SYSC 3.2 (Areas covered by systems and controls) contains contains guidance relating to delegation, including external delegation.SYSC 3.2.4 G (1) states that a firm cannot contract out of its regulatory obligations.(2) SUP 15.8.6 R (Delegation by UCITS management companies) requires anauthorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme to inform the FSA whereone of its duties is delegated to another person.
PR 1.2.1UKRP

Sections 85 and 86 of the Act provide for when a prospectus approved by the FSA will be required:

85

(1)

It is unlawful for transferable securities to which this subsection applies to be offered to the public in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the offer is made.

(2)

It is unlawful to request the admission of transferable securities to which this subsection applies to trading on a regulated market situated or operating in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the request is made.

(3)

A person who contravenes subsection (1) or (2) is guilty of an offence and liable –

(a)

on summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum or both;

(b)

on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or a fine or both.

(4)

A contravention of subsection (1) or (2) is actionable, at the suit of a person who suffers loss as a result of the contravention, subject to the defences and other incidents applying to actions for breach of statutory duty.

(5)

Subsection (1) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.2 R].

(6)

Subsection (2) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Part 1 of Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.3 R].

(7)

"Approved prospectus" means, in relation to transferable securities to which this section applies, a prospectus approved by the competent authority of the home State in relation to the issuer of the securities.

86

Exempt offers to the public

(1)

A person does not contravene section 85(1) if –

(a)

the offer is made to or directed at qualified investors only;

(b)

the offer is made to or directed at fewer than 100 persons, other than qualified investors, per EEA State;

(c)

the minimum consideration which may be paid by any person for transferable securities acquired by him pursuant to the offer is at least 50,000 euros (or an equivalent amount);

(d)

the transferable securities being offered are denominated in amounts of at least 50,000 euros (or equivalent amounts); or

(e)

the total consideration for the transferable securities being offered cannot exceed 100,000 euros (or an equivalent amount).

(2)

Where -

(a)

a person who is not a qualified investor ("the client") has engaged a qualified investor falling within Article 2.1(e)(i) of the prospectus directive to act as his agent; and

(b)

the terms on which the qualified investor is engaged enable him to make decisions concerning the acceptance of offers of transferable securities on the client's behalf without reference to the client,

an offer made to or directed at the qualified investor is not to be regarded for the purposes of subsection (1) as also having been made to or directed at the client.

(3)

For the purposes of subsection (1)(b), the making of an offer of transferable securities to –

(a)

trustees of a trust,

(b)

members of a partnership in their capacity as such, or

(c)

two or more persons jointly,

is to be treated as the making of an offer to a single person.

(4)

In determining whether subsection (1)(e) is satisfied in relation to an offer ("offer A"), offer A is to be taken together with any other offer of transferable securities of the same class made by the same person which –

(a)

was open at any time within the period of 12 months ending with the date on which offer A is first made; and

(b)

had previously satisfied subsection (1)(e).

(5)

For the purposes of this section, an amount (in relation to an amount denominated in euros) is an "equivalent amount" if it is an amount of equal value denominated wholly or partly in another currency or unit of account.

(6)

The equivalent is to be calculated at the latest practicable date before (but in any event not more than 3 working days before) the date on which the offer is first made.

(7)

"Qualified investor" means –

(a)

an entity falling within Article 2.1(e)(i), (ii) or (iii) of the prospectus directive;

(b)

an investor registered on the register maintained by the [FSA] under section 87R;

(c)

an investor authorised by an EEA State other than the United Kingdom to be considered as a qualified investor for the purposes of the prospectus directive.
PR 1.2.2RRP
In accordance with section 85(5)(b) of the Act, section 85(1) of the Act does not apply to offers of the following types of transferable securities:(1) shares issued in substitution for shares of the same class already issued, if the issue of the new shares does not involve any increase in the issued capital;(2) transferable securities offered in connection with a takeover by means of an exchange offer, if a document is available containing information which is regarded by the
PR 1.2.3RRP
In accordance with section 85(6)(b) of the Act, section 85(2) of the Act does not apply to the admission to trading of the following types of transferable securities:(1) shares representing, over a period of 12 months, less than 10 per cent of the number of shares of the same class already admitted to trading on the same regulated market;(2) shares issued in substitution for shares of the same class already admitted to trading on the same regulated market, if the issue of the
PERG 9.10.4GRP
The restrictions mentioned in PERG 9.10.3 G are subject to a number of exemptions. For example, the controls in sections 238 and 240 do not apply to financial promotions about certain kinds of collective investment scheme. These are:(1) open-ended investment companies formed in Great Britain and authorised by the FSA under the Open-ended Investment Companies Regulations 2001;(2) authorised unit trust schemes; and(3) collective investment schemes that are recognised schemes (see
PERG 9.10.6GRP
The FSA has also made rules under section 238(5) which allow authorised persons to communicate or approve a financial promotion for an open-ended investment company that is an unregulated collective investment scheme (that is, one that does not fall within PERG 9.10.4 G). The circumstances in which such a communication or approval is allowed are explained in COB 3 Annex 5 R (which is introduced by COB 3.11).
PERG 9.10.10GRP
A person carrying on the regulated activity of establishing, operating or winding up a collective investment scheme that is constituted by an open-ended investment company will need permission for those activities. In line with section 237(2) of the Act (Other definitions), the operator of a collective investment scheme that is an open-ended investment company is the company itself. But where the open-ended investment company is incorporated outside the United Kingdom, it will
SYSC 13.9.2GRP
Firms should take particular care to manage material outsourcing arrangements and, as SUP 15.3.8 G (1)(e) explains, a firm should notify the FSA when it intends to enter into a material outsourcing arrangement.
SYSC 13.9.5GRP
In negotiating its contract with a service provider, a firm should have regard to:(1) reporting or notification requirements it may wish to impose on the service provider;(2) whether sufficient access will be available to its internal auditors, external auditors or actuaries (see section 341 of the Act) and to the FSA (see SUP 2.3.5 R (Access to premises) and SUP 2.3.7 R (Suppliers under material outsourcing arrangements);(3) information ownership rights, confidentiality agreements
SYSC 6.1.2RRP
A common platform firm must, taking in toaccount the nature, scale and complexity of its business, and the nature and range of investment services and activities undertaken in the course of that business, establish, implement and maintain adequate policies and procedures designed to detect any risk of failure by the firm to comply with its obligations under the regulatory system, as well as associated risks, and put in place adequate measures and procedures designed to minimise
PERG 9.4.3GRP
In the FSA's view, it is the very existence of the body corporate that is the collective investment scheme. There are a number of statutory references that support this view. For example, it is clear that paragraph 21 of the Schedule to the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Collective Investment Schemes) Order 2001 (SI 2001/1062) (Arrangements not amounting to a collective investment scheme) is drafted on the basis that it is the body corporate itself that is (or would
PERG 9.4.4GRP
Analysing a typical corporate structure in terms of the definition of a collective investment scheme, money will be paid to the body corporate in exchange for shares or securities issued by it. The body corporate becomes the beneficial owner of that money in exchange for rights against the legal entity that is the body corporate. The body corporate then has its own duties and rights that are distinct from those of the holders of its shares or securities. Such arrangements will,
PERG 9.4.6GRP
In the FSA's view, the question of what constitutes a single scheme in line with section 235(4) of the Act does not arise in relation to a body corporate. This is simply because the body corporate is itself a collective investment scheme (and so is a single scheme). Section 235(4) contemplates a 'separate' pooling of parts of the property that is subject to the arrangements referred to in section 235(1). But to analyse a body corporate in this way requires looking through its
PERG 5.4.3GRP
As regards PERG 5.4.2G (1), the Business Order does not provide a definition of 'remuneration', but, in the FSA's view, it has a broad meaning and covers both monetary and non-monetary rewards. This is regardless of who makes them. For example, where a person pays discounted premiums for his own insurance needs in return for bringing other business to an insurance undertaking, the discount would amount to remuneration for the purposes of the Business Order. Remuneration can also
PERG 5.4.4GRP
As regards PERG 5.4.2G (2), in the FSA's view, for a person to take up or pursue insurance mediation activity by way of business, he will usually need to be carrying on those activities with a degree of regularity. The person will also usually need to be carrying on the activities for commercial purposes. That is to say, he will normally be expecting to gain a direct financial benefit of some kind. Activities carried on out of friendship or for altruistic purposes will not normally
PERG 5.4.7GRP
PERG 5.4.8 G contains a table that summarises the main issues surrounding the business test as applied to insurance mediation activities and that may assist persons to determine whether they will need authorisation or exemption. The approach taken in the table involves identifying factors that, in the FSA's view, are likely to play a part in the analysis. Indicators are then given as to the significance of each factor to the person's circumstances. By analysing the indicators
PERG 8.11.4GRP
In a few instances, the requirements of a particular exemption may affect the practicality of its being combined with another. These are article 12 (Communications to overseas recipients) and article 52 (Common interest group of a company). Article 12, for example, requires that financial promotions must be made to or directed only at overseas persons and certain persons in the United Kingdom. This presents no difficulty with article 12 being combined with other exemptions in
PERG 8.11.5GRP
A number of exemptions require that a financial promotion must be accompanied by certain indications. Article 9 of the Financial Promotion Order states that indications must be presented in a way that can be easily understood and in such manner as is ‘best calculated’ to bring the matter to the recipient’s attention. In the FSA's opinion, the expression ‘best calculated’ should be construed in a sensible manner. It does not, for instance, demand that the indication be presented
PERG 8.11.6GRP
Some exemptions are based on the communicator believing on reasonable grounds that the recipient meets certain conditions. For example, articles 19(1)(a), 44, 47 and 49. What are reasonable grounds for these purposes will be a matter for the courts to decide. In the FSA's view, it would be reasonable for a communicator to rely on a statement made by a potential recipient that he satisfies relevant conditions. This is provided that there is no reason to doubt the accuracy of the
SUP 13A.9.5GRP
(1) The purpose of the precautionary measure rule is to ensure that an incoming EEA firm is subject to the standards of MiFID and the MiFID implementing Directive to the extent that the Home State has not transposed MiFID or the MiFID implementing Directive by 1 November 2007. It is to 'fill a gap'.(2) The rule is made in the light of the duty of the United Kingdom under Article 62 of MiFID to adopt precautionary measures to protect investors. (3) The rule will be effective for
PR 2.2.4RRP
An issuer, offeror or person requesting admission who already has a registration document approved by the FSA is required to draw up only the securities note and the summary when transferable securities are offered or a request is made for admission to trading. [Note: article 12.1 PD]
PR 2.2.9RRP
If the final terms of the offer are not included in eitherthe base prospectus or a supplementary prospectus:(1) the final terms must be provided to investors and filed with the FSA, and made available to the public, in accordance with PR 3.2.4 R to PR 3.2.6 R the PD Regulation as soon as practicable after each offer is made and, if possible, before the offer begins;(2) the base prospectus must disclose the criteria and/or the conditions in accordance with which the above elements
PR 2.2.10EURP

Articles 25 and 26 of the PD Regulation provide for the format of prospectuses and base prospectuses:

Format of the prospectus

25.1

Where an issuer, an offeror or a person asking for the admission to trading on a regulated market chooses, according to [PR 2.2.1 R] to draw up a prospectus as a single document, the prospectus shall be composed of the following parts in the following order:

(1)

a clear and detailed table of contents;

(2)

the summary provided for in [section 87A(5) of the Act];

(3)

the risk factors linked to the issuer and the type of security covered by the issue;

(4)

the other information items included in the schedules and building blocks according to which the prospectus is drawn up.

2.

Where an issuer, an offeror or a person asking for the admission to trading on a regulated market chooses, according to [LR 3.1.1 R], to draw up a prospectus composed of separate documents, the securities note and the registration document shall be each composed of the following parts in the following order:

(1)

a clear and detailed table of contents;

(2)

as the case may be, the risk factors linked to the issuer and the type of security covered by the issue;

(3)

the other information items included in the schedules and building blocks according to which the prospectus is drawn up.

3.

In the cases mentioned in paragraphs 1 and 2, the issuer, the offeror or the person asking for admission to trading on a regulated market shall be free in defining the order in the presentation of the required information items included in the schedules and building blocks according to which the prospectus is drawn up.

4.

Where the order of the items does not coincide with the order of the information provided for in the schedules and building blocks according to which the prospectus is drawn up, the [FSA] may ask the issuer, the offeror or the person asking for the admission to trading on a regulated market to provide a cross reference list for the purpose of checking the prospectus before its approval. Such list shall identify the pages where each item can be found in the prospectus. [see LR 3.1.1R(3)]

5.

Where the summary of a prospectus must be supplemented according to [section 87G of the Act], the issuer, the offeror or the person asking for admission to trading on a regulated market shall decide on a case-by-case basis whether to integrate the new information in the original summary by producing a new summary, or to produce a supplement to the summary.

If the new information is integrated in the original summary, the issuer, the offeror or the person asking for admission to trading on a regulated market shall ensure that investors can easily identify the changes, in particular by way of footnotes.

Format of the base prospectus and its related final terms

26.1

Where an issuer, an offeror or a person asking for the admission to trading on a regulated market chooses, according to [PR 2.2.7 R] to draw up a base prospectus, the base prospectus shall be composed of the following parts in the following order:

(1)

a clear and detailed table of contents;

(2)

the summary provided for in [section 87A of the Act];

(3)

the risk factors linked to the issuer and the type of security or securities covered by the issue(s);

(4)

the other information items included in the schedules and building blocks according to which the prospectus is drawn up.

2.

Notwithstanding paragraph 1, the issuer, the offeror or the person asking for admission to trading on a regulated market shall be free in defining the order in the presentation of the required information items included in the schedules and building blocks according to which the prospectus is drawn up. The information on the different securities contained in the base prospectus shall be clearly segregated.

3.

Where the order of the items does not coincide with the order of the information provided for by the schedules and building blocks according to which the prospectus is drawn up, the [FSA] may ask the issuer, the offeror or the person asking for admission to trading on a regulated market to provide a cross reference list for the purpose of checking the prospectus before its approval. Such list should identify the pages where each item can be found in the prospectus. [see LR 3.1.1R(3)]

4.

In case the issuer, the offeror or the person asking for admission to trading on a regulated market has previously filed a registration document for a particular type of security and, at a later stage, chooses to draw up base prospectus in conformity with the conditions provided for in [PR 2.2.7 R], the base prospectus shall contain:

(1)

the information contained in the previously or simultaneously filed and approved registration document which shall be incorporated by reference, following the conditions provided for in Article 28 of this Regulation;

(2)

the information which would otherwise be contained in the relevant securities note less the final terms where the final terms are not included in the base prospectus.

5.

The final terms attached to a base prospectus shall be presented in the form of a separate document containing only the final terms or by inclusion of the final terms into the base prospectus.

In the case that the final terms are included in a separate document containing only the final terms, they may replicate some information which has been included in the approved base prospectus according to the relevant securities note schedule that has been used for drawing up the base prospectus. In this case the final terms have to be presented in such a way that they can be easily identified as such.

A clear and prominent statement shall be inserted in the final terms indicating that the full information on the issuer and on the offer is only available on the basis of the combination of base prospectus and final terms and where the base prospectus is available.

6.

Where a base prospectus relates to different securities, the issuer, the offeror or the person asking for admission to trading on a regulated market shall include a single summary in the base prospectus for all securities. The information on the different securities contained in the summary, however, shall be clearly segregated.

7.

Where the summary of a base prospectus must be supplemented according to [section 87G of the Act], the issuer, the offeror or the person asking for admission to trading on a regulated market shall decide on a case-by-case basis whether to integrate the new information in the original summary by producing a new summary, or by producing a supplement to the summary.

If the new information is integrated in the original summary of the base prospectus by producing a new summary, the issuer, the offeror or the person asking for admission to trading on a regulated market shall ensure that investors can easily identify the changes, in particular by way of footnotes.

8.

Issuers, offerors or persons asking for admission to trading on a regulated market may compile in one single document two or more different base prospectuses.
FIT 2.1.1GRP
In determining a person's honesty, integrity and reputation, the FSA will have regard to matters including, but not limited to, those set out in FIT 2.1.3 G which may have arisen either in the United Kingdom or elsewhere. The FSA should be informed of these matters (see SUP 10.13.16 R ), but will consider the circumstances only where relevant to the requirements and standards of the regulatory system. For example, under FIT 2.1.3 G(1), conviction for a criminal offence will
FIT 2.1.2GRP
In considering the matters in FIT 2.1.1 G, the FSA will look at whether the person's reputation might have an adverse impact upon the firm for which the controlled function is or is to be performed and at the person's responsibilities.
FIT 2.1.3GRP
The matters referred to in FIT 2.1.1 G to which the FSA will have regard include, include, but are not limited to:(1) whether the person has been convicted of any criminal offence; this must include, where provided for by the Exceptions Orderto2 the Rehabilitation of Offenders Act 1974, any spent convictions2; particular consideration will be given to offences of dishonesty, fraud, financial crime or an offence whether or not in the United Kingdom or other offences under legislation
COLL 6.4.6RRP
(1) Every unitholder is entitled to transfer units held on the register by an instrument of transfer in any form that the person responsible for the register may approve, but that person is under no duty to accept a transfer unless:(a) it is permitted by the trust deed or prospectus; and(b) the transfer is excluded by Schedule 19 of the Finance Act 1999 from a charge to stamp duty reserve tax, or there has been paid to the trustee, for the account of the AUT, an amount agreed
LR 15.4.8RRP
A closed-ended investment fund must obtain the prior approval of its shareholders1 to any material change to its published investment policy. 1
SUP 14.6.11GRP
Section 36 of the Act states that a UCITS qualifier may ask the FSA to give a direction cancelling its authorisation under paragraph 1(1) of Schedule 5 to the Act. UCITS qualifiers should also refer to COLLG 3.1.11 Gand CIS 17.4.8 G (Revocation of recognition: Schemes recognised under section 264 of the Act).1