Related provisions for PERG 2.10.1
81 - 100 of 234 items.
If a person established in the EEA: (1) does not have an EEA right; (2) does not have permission as a UCITS qualifier; and(3) does not have, or does not wish to exercise, a Treaty right (see SUP 13A.3.4 G to SUP 13A.3.11 G);to carry on a particular regulated activity in the United Kingdom, it must seek Part IV permission from the FSA to do so (see the FSA website "How do I get authorised": http://www.fsa.gov.uk/Pages/Doing/how/index.shtml1). This might arise if the activity itself
Where the FSA grants a top-up permission to an incoming EEA firm to carry on regulated activities for which it has neither an EEA right nor a Treaty right, the FSA is responsible for the prudential supervision of the incoming EEA firm, to the extent that the responsibility is not reserved to the incoming EEA firm'sHome State regulator.
Paragraph 1, Schedule 6 to the Act
3(1) |
If the regulated activity concerned is the effecting or carrying out of contracts of insurance the authorised person must be a body corporate (other than a limited liability partnership), a registered friendly society or a member of Lloyd's. |
(2) |
If the person concerned appears to the [FSA] to be seeking to carry on, or to be carrying on, a regulated activity constituting accepting deposits or issuing electronic money, it must be- |
(a) |
a body corporate; or |
(b) |
Section 40(1) of the Act (Application for permission) allows an application to be made to the FSA for Part IV permission by an individual, a body corporate, a partnership or an unincorporated association. However, in the case of the regulated activities of accepting deposits and effecting or carrying out contracts of insurance, article 1 of the Banking Consolidation Directive and article 8(1) of the First Non-Life Directive and ofthe First Life Directive place further limits on
The application of section 21 of the Act and of exemptions in the Financial Promotion Order to invitations or inducements about insurance mediation activities will vary depending on the type of activity. The implementation of the Insurance Mediation Directive has not led to any changes in the definitions of a controlled investment or a controlled activity under the Financial Promotion Order. So:(1) rights under any contract of insurance are a controlled investment;(2) rights to
This means that an insurance intermediary will not be communicating a financial promotion:(1) where the only activity to which the promotion relates is assisting in the administration and performance of a contract of insurance; or(2) purely by reason of his inviting or inducing persons to make use of his advisory or arranging services where they relate only to general insurance contracts or pure protection contracts or both.But as regards (2), an intermediary will be communicating
Article 53 does not apply to advice given on any of the following:(1) deposit or other bank or building society accounts (but note that providing basic advice on a stakeholder product including stakeholder deposit accounts is a separate regulated activity under article 52A of the Regulated Activities Order - see the guidance in PERG 2.7.14A G (Providing basic advice on stakeholder products));(2) interests under the trusts of an occupational pension scheme (but rights under an
Of potentially greater significance is the exclusion in article 33 of the Regulated Activities Order which excludes arrangements where:(1) they are arrangements under which persons will be introduced to another person;(2) the person to whom introductions are to be made is:(a) an authorised person; or(b) an exempt person acting in the course of business comprising a regulated activity in relation to which he is exempt; or(c) a person who is not unlawfully carrying on regulated
Article 72B of the Regulated Activities Order (Activities carried on by a provider of relevant goods or services) excludes from FSA regulation certain regulated activities carried on by providers of non-motor goods and services related to travel in relation to contracts of insurance that satisfy a number of conditions. Details about the scope of this exclusion can be found at PERG 5.11.13 G to PERG 5.11.15 G (Activities carried on by a provider of relevant goods or services)
For an activity to be a regulated activity, it must be carried on in relation to 'specified investments' (see section 22 of the Act Regulated activities) and Part III of the Regulated Activities Order (Specified investments)). For the purposes of insurance mediation activity, specified investments include the following 'relevant investments' defined in article 3(1) of the Regulated Activities Order (Interpretation):(1) rights under any contract of insurance (see article 75 (Contracts
Advice is excluded by article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order from the regulated activities of advising on investments and advising on a home finance transaction1if:1(1) the advice is given in a publication or service that is in one of three formats (see PERG 7.4.3 G and PERG 7.4.4 G); and(2) the principal purpose of the particular format is neither to give certain advice nor to lead to (or enable) certain transactions to be carried out (see PERG 7.4.5 G and PERG 7.4.10
If a person would, but for the exclusion, be carrying on the regulated activities of advising on investments or advising on a home finance transaction1, or any or each of them1, and will be doing so as a business in the United Kingdom (see PERG 7.3), he may wish to apply to the FSA for a certificate that the exclusion applies (see PERG 7.6). However, a person does not need a certificate to get the benefit of the exclusion. In many cases it will be clear that the exclusion in article
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 6
2(1) The [UK RIE] must be able and willing to promote and maintain high standards of integrity and fair dealing in the carrying on of regulated activities by persons in the course of using the facilities provided by the [UK RIE]. |
(2) The [UK RIE] must be able and willing to cooperate by the sharing of information or otherwise, with the [FSA],with any other authority, body or person having responsibility in the United Kingdom for the supervision or regulation of any regulated activity or other financial service, or with an overseas regulator within the meaning of section 195 of the Act. |
In determining whether a UK recognised body is able and willing to promote and maintain high standards of integrity and fair dealing in the carrying on of regulated activities, the FSA may have regard to the extent to which the UK recognised body seeks to promote and encourage, through its rules, practices and procedures, conduct in regulated activities which is consistent with the Code of Market Conduct (see MAR 1) and with any other codes of conduct, rules or principles relating
FSA staff under executive procedures will take the decision to give a warning notice if the FSA proposes to:(1) refuse an application for a Part IV permission or to refuse an application to cancel a Part IV permission;(2) impose a limitation or a requirement which was not applied for, or specify a narrower description of regulated activity than that applied for, on the grant of a Part IV permission;(3) refuse an application to vary a Part IV permission, or to restrict a Part IV
The RDC will take the decision to give a supervisory notice exercising the FSA's own initiative power (by removing a regulated activity, by imposing a limitation or requirement or by specifying a narrower description of regulated activity) if the action involves a fundamental change (see DEPP 2.5.8 G) to the nature of a permission. Otherwise, the decision to give the decision notice will be taken by FSA staff under executive procedures.
Some of the distinguishing features of notices given under enactments other than the Act are as follows: (1) Building Societies Act 1986, section 36A: There is no right to refer a decision to issue a prohibition order under section 36A to the Tribunal. Accordingly, a decision notice under section 36A(5A) is not required to give an indication of whether any such right exists. A decision notice under section 36A(5A) may only relate to the issue of a prohibition order under section
There is power in the Act for the Treasury to specify the circumstances in which a person is or is not to be regarded as carrying on regulated activities by way of business. The Business Order has been made using this power (partly reflecting differences in the nature of the different activities). As such, the business test for insurance mediation activity is distinguished from the standard test for 'investment business' in article 3 of the Business Order. Under article 3(4) of
A communication must be an invitation or inducement to engage in investment activity for the restriction in section 21 to apply. Section 21(8) defines this phrase as:(1) entering or offering to enter into an agreement the making or performance of which by either party is a controlled activity; or(2) exercising any rights conferred by a controlled investment to acquire, dispose of, underwrite or convert a controlled investment.
Controlled activity and controlled investment are defined in Schedule 1 to the Financial Promotion Order and are listed in PERG 8.36.3 G and PERG 8.36.4 G. Broadly speaking, controlled activities and controlled investments are similar to regulated activities and specified investments under the Regulated Activities Order. However, with controlled activities, the exclusions set out in the Regulated Activities Order do not, in most cases, apply. It is important to note, however,
The circumstances in which the FSA may vary a firm'sPart IV permission on
its own initiative under section 45 of the Act include
where it appears to the FSA that:(1) one
or more of the threshold conditions is or is likely to be no longer
satisfied; or(2) it
is desirable to vary a firm's permission in order to protect the interests of consumers or
potential consumers.
1The effect of sections 20 (Authorised persons acting without permission) and 39(4) (Exemption of appointed representatives) of the Act is that the regulated activities covered by an appointed representative's appointment need to:(1) fall within the scope of the principal's permission; or(2) be excluded from being regulated activities when carried on by the principal, for example because they fall within article 28 of the Regulated Activities Order (Arranging transactions to which
Before a firm appoints a person as an appointed representative (other than an introducer appointed representative) and on a continuing basis, it must establish on reasonable grounds that:11(1) the appointment does not prevent the firm from satisfying and continuing to satisfy the threshold conditions;(2) the person:(a) is solvent;(b) is otherwise 1suitable to act for the firm in that capacity;and1(c) has no close links which would be likely to prevent the effective supervision
1
Multiple principal agreement
Matter |
Explanation |
|
1. |
Scope of appointment |
The scope of appointment given by each principal to the appointed representative. |
2. |
Complaints handling |
The identity of the principal which will be the point of contact for a complaint from a client (referred to as the "lead-principal" in SUP 12.4.5D G to SUP 12.4.5E G). |
An agreement that each principal will co-operate with each other principal in resolving a complaint from a client in relation to the appointed representative's conduct. |
||
The arrangements for complaints handling, including arrangements for resolving disputes between the principals in relation to their liability to a client in respect of a complaint and arrangements for dealing with referrals to the Financial Ombudsman Service. |
||
3. |
The arrangements for approving financial promotion. |
|
4. |
Control and monitoring |
The arrangements for the control and monitoring of the activities of the appointed representative (see in particular SUP 12.6.6 R (Regulated activities and investment services outside the scope of appointment) and SUP 12.6.7 G (Senior management responsibility for appointed representatives)). |
5. |
Approved person status |
The arrangements for making applications for approved person status (see SUP 10 (Approved persons)). |
6. |
Training and competence |
The arrangements for training and competence (see TC). |
7. |
Co-operation |
The arrangements for co-operation over any other issues which may arise from the multiple appointments, including issues which may damage the interests of clients dealing with the appointed representative and administrative issues. |
An agreement by each principal to take reasonable steps to ensure that it does not cause the appointed representative or any of its other principals to be in breach of their obligations to each other or under the regulatory system. |
||
8. |
Sharing information |
The arrangements for sharing information on matters relevant to the matters covered under the multiple principal agreement and each principal's obligations under SUP 12.6 (Continuing obligations of firms with appointed representatives). |
An agreement that each principal will notify each other principal of any information which is materially relevant to the multiple principal agreement. |
(1) Overseas investment exchanges and overseas clearing houses which are considering whether to seek authorisation or recognition should first consider whether they will be carrying on regulated activities in the United Kingdom. Overseas investment exchangesand overseas clearing houses which do not carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom need take no action.(2) Prospective applicants should discuss authorisation and recognition with the FSA before deciding whether
There is no standard application form for application for recognition as an overseas recognised body. An application should be made in accordance with any direction the FSA may make under section 287 (Application by an investment exchange) or section 288 (Application by a clearing house) of the Act and should include:(1) the information, evidence and explanatory material necessary to demonstrate to the FSA that the recognition requirements (set out in REC 6.3) will be met;(2)
A common platform firm must establish, implement and maintain an adequate business continuity policy aimed at ensuring, in the case of an interruption to its systems and procedures, that any losses are limited, the preservation of essential data and functions, and the maintenance of its regulated activities, or, where that is not possible, the timely recovery of such data and functions and the timely resumption of its regulated activities.[Note: article 5(3) of the MiFID implementing
(1) CASS 5.1 to CASS
5.6 apply, subject to (2), (3) and CASS 5.1.3 R to CASS 5.1.6 R, to a firm that receives
or holds money in the course
of or in connection with its insurance mediation
activity.(2) CASS 5.1 to CASS
5.6 do not, subject to (3), apply:(a) to
a firm to the extent that it
acts in accordance with the non-directive client money chapter or
the MiFID client money
chapter4; or4(b) to
a firm in carrying on an insurance mediation activity which is in
respect of a reinsurance
An authorised
professional firm regulated by The Law Society (of England and
Wales), The Law Society of Scotland or The Law Society of Northern Ireland must comply
withthe rules of its designated professional
body as specified in CASS 5.1.4 R, in force on 14 January
2005, and if it does so, it will be deemed
to comply with CASS
5.2 to CASS 5.6.
Where an overseas recognised body has notice that any licence, permission or authorisation which it requires to conduct any regulated activity in its home territory has been or is about to be:(1) revoked; or(2) modified in any way which would materially restrict the overseas recognised body in performing any regulated activity in its home territory or in the United Kingdom;it must immediately notify the FSA of that fact and must give the FSA the information specified for the purposes
The following information is specified for the purposes of REC 6.7.8 R:(1) particulars of the licence, permission or authorisation which has been or is to be revoked or modified, including particulars of the overseas recognised body's regulated activities to which it relates;(2) an explanation of how the revocation or modification restricts or will restrict the overseas recognised body in carrying on any regulated activity in its home territory or in the United Kingdom;(3) the