Related provisions for INSPRU 1.5.4
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(1) Before an EEA firm exercises an EEA right to provide cross border services into the United Kingdom, the Act requires it to satisfy the service conditions, as set out in paragraph 14 of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act. (2) For the purposes of paragraph 14(1)(b) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, the information to be contained in the regulator's notice has been prescribed under regulation 3 of the EEA Passport Rights Regulations.
An EEA firm that has satisfied the service conditions in paragraph 14 of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act is entitled to start providing cross border services into the United Kingdom. However, an EEA firm that wishes to start providing cross border services but has not yet received notification of the applicable provisions may wish to contact the FSA's Passport Notifications Unit (see SUP 13A.8.1G (2)).
This guidance is based on the statutory instruments made as part of implementing the IMD in the United Kingdom. This legislation includes the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No.2) Order 2003 (S.I. 2003/1476), which amends among others the Regulated Activities Order, the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Appointed Representatives) Regulations 2001 (S.I. 2003/1217), the Non-Exempt Activities Order and the Business Order. Other legislation
Any person who carries on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom by way of business must either be an authorised person or exempt from the need for authorisation. Otherwise, the person commits a criminal offence and certain agreements may be unenforceable. PERG 2.2 (Authorisation and regulated activities) has further guidance on these consequences.2
A person who is concerned to know whether his proposed insurance mediation activities may require authorisation will need to consider the following questions (these questions are a summary of the issues to be considered and have been reproduced, in slightly fuller form, in the flow chart in PERG 5.15.2 G (Flow chart: regulated activities related to insurance mediation – do you need authorisation?):(1) will the activities relate to contracts of insurance (see PERG 5.3(Contracts
The United Kingdom's approach to implementing the IMD by domestic legislation is, in part, through secondary legislation, which will apply pre-existing regulated activities (slightly amended) in the Regulated Activities Order to the component elements of the insurance mediation definition in the IMD (see PERG 5.2.5 G and the text of article 2.3 IMD in PERG 5.16.2 G (article 2.3 of the Insurance Mediation Directive)).
The FSA will usually consider revoking a recognition order if:(1) the recognised body is failing or has failed to satisfy the recognition requirements or other obligations in or under the Act or, in the case of a UK RIE, the MiFID implementing requirements 1and that failure has or will have serious consequences; or(2) it would not be possible for the recognised body to comply with a direction under section 296 of the Act (FSA's power to give directions); or (3) for some other
The FSA would be likely to consider the conditions in REC 4.7.3 G (2) or REC 4.7.3 G (3) to be triggered1in the following circumstances:1(1) the recognised body appears not to have the resources or management to be able to organise its affairs so as to satisfy the recognition requirements or other obligations in or under the Act or, in the case of a UK RIE, the MiFID implementing requirements; or1(2) the recognised body does not appear to be willing to satisfy the recognition
1Subject to SYSC 12.1.2 R to SYSC 12.1.4 R, this section applies to each of the following which is a member of a group:(1) a firm that falls into any one or more of the following categories:(a) a regulated entity;(b) an ELMI;(c) an insurer;(d) a BIPRU firm;(e) a non-BIPRU firm that is a parent financial holding company in a Member State and is a member of a UK consolidation group; and(f) a firm subject to the rules in IPRU(INV) Chapter 14.(2) a UCITS firm, but only if
Except as set out in SYSC 12.1.4 R, this section applies with respect to different types of group as follows:(1) SYSC 12.1.8 R and SYSC 12.1.10 R apply with respect to all groups, including FSA regulated EEA financial conglomerates, other financial conglomerates and groups dealt with in SYSC 12.1.13 R to SYSC 12.1.16 R;(2) the additional requirements set out in SYSC 12.1.11 R and SYSC 12.1.12 R only apply with respect to FSA regulated EEA financial conglomerates; and(3) the
(1) This rule applies in respect of the following rules:(a) SYSC 12.1.8R (2);(b) SYSC 12.1.10R (1), so far as it relates to SYSC 12.1.8R (2);(c) SYSC 12.1.10R (2); and(d) SYSC 12.1.11 R to SYSC 12.1.15 R.(2) The rules referred to in (1):(a) only apply with respect to a financial conglomerate if it is an FSA regulated EEA financial conglomerate;(b) (so far as they apply with respect to a group that is not a financial conglomerate) do not apply with respect to a group for which
If this rule applies under SYSC 12.1.14 R to a firm, the firm must:(1) comply with SYSC 12.1.8R (2) in relation to any UK consolidation group or non-EEAsub-group of which it is a member, as well as in relation to its group; and(2) ensure that the risk management processes and internal control mechanisms at the level of any UK consolidation group or non-EEAsub-group of which it is a member comply with the obligations set out in the following provisions on a consolidated (or
(1) The purpose of the precautionary measure rule is to ensure that an incoming EEA firm is subject to the standards of MiFID and the MiFID implementing Directive to the extent that the Home State has not transposed MiFID or the MiFID implementing Directive by 1 November 2007. It is to 'fill a gap'.(2) The rule is made in the light of the duty of the United Kingdom under Article 62 of MiFID to adopt precautionary measures to protect investors. (3) The rule will be effective for
This chapter sets out the FSA's approach to the supervision of recognised bodies and contains guidance on: (1) the arrangements for investigating complaints about recognised bodies made under section 299 of the Act (Complaints about recognised bodies) (REC 4.4); (2) the FSA's approach to the exercise of its powers under:(a) section 296 of the Act (FSA's power to give directions) to give directions to recognised bodies (REC 4.6);(b) section 297 of the Act (Revoking recognition)
(1) The purpose of REC 3.18 is to enable the FSA to monitor changes in the types of member admitted by UK recognised bodies and to ensure that the FSA has notice of foreign jurisdictions in which the members of UK recognised bodies are based. UK recognised bodies may admit persons who are not authorised persons or persons who are not located in the United Kingdom, provided that the recognition requirements continue to be met.(2) REC 3.18.2 R focuses on the admission of persons
Where a UK recognised body admits a member who is not an authorised person of a type of which, immediately before that time, that UK recognised body had not admitted to membership, it must immediately give the FSA notice of that event, and:(1) a description of the type of person whom it is admitting to membership; and (2) particulars of its reasons for considering that, in admitting that type of person to membership, it is able to continue to satisfy the recognition requirement
Where a UK recognised body admits for the first time a member whose head or registered office is in a jurisdiction from which that UK recognised body has not previously admitted members, it must immediately give the FSA notice of that event, and:(1) the name of that jurisdiction; (2) the name of any regulatory authority in that jurisdiction which regulates that member in respect of activities relating to specified investments; and(3) particulars of its reasons for considering
The FSA recognises that its responsibilities in respect of an incoming EEA firm or of an incoming Treaty firm are reduced compared with a firm which is incorporated in the United Kingdom. Accordingly the periodic fees which would otherwise be applicable to incoming EEA firms and incoming Treaty firms are reduced.
For an incoming EEA firm or an incoming Treaty firm, the calculation required by FEES 4.3.3 R is modified as follows:(1) the tariffs set out in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 2 are applied only to the regulated activities of the firm which are carried on in the United Kingdom; and(2) those tariffs are modified in accordance with Part 3 of and, if applicable, Part 3 of FEES 4 Annex 2.
Section 31 of the Act (Authorised persons) states that an EEA firm is authorised for the purposes of the Act if it qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act (EEA Passport Rights). Under paragraph 12 of Part II of that Schedule, an EEA firm qualifies for authorisation if:(1) it is seeking to establish a branch in the United Kingdom in exercise of an EEA right and satisfies the establishment conditions (see SUP 13A.4.1 G and SUP 13A.4.2 G); or(2) it is seeking to provide
(1) On qualifying for authorisation, subject to SUP 13A.3.2G (2), an EEA firm will have permission to carry on each permitted activity (see (3) below) which is a regulated activity.(2) (a) Paragraph (1) does not apply to the activity of dealing in units in a collective investment scheme in the United Kingdom where:(i) the firm is an EEA UCITS management company;(ii) the firm satisfies the establishment conditions in SUP 13A.4.1 G; and(iii) the FSA notifies the EEA firm and the
The exclusions apply where the regulated activity is carried out in the course of a profession or business which does not otherwise consist of the carrying on of regulated activities in the United Kingdom. However, activities are only excluded to the extent that they may reasonably be regarded as a necessary part of the other services provided in the course of the profession or business. The exclusion does not apply if separate remuneration is received in respect of any regulated
An overseasperson is defined as a person who carries on what would be regulated activities (including any activity that would otherwise be excluded from being a regulated activity by virtue of the exclusions for overseas persons referred to in PERG 2.9.15 G) but who does not do so, or offer to do so, from a permanent place of business maintained by him in the United Kingdom. Where a person does not have a permanent place of business in the United Kingdom, he will not, in any event,
The exclusions are available, for regulated activities other than those that relate to home finance transactions4 in the two broad cases set out below. For some of these regulated activities, the exclusions apply in each case. In others, they apply in only one.4(1) The first case is where the nature of the regulated activity requires the direct involvement of another person and that person is authorised or exempt (and acting within the scope of his exemption). For example, this
(1) In accordance with article 3(2) of the E-Commerce Directive, all requirements on persons providing electronic commerce activities into the United Kingdom from the EEA are lifted, where these fall within the co-ordinated field and would restrict the freedom of such a firm to provide services. The coordinated field includes any requirement of a general or specific nature concerning the taking up or pursuit of electronic commerce activities. Authorisation requirements fall within
Where an overseas recognised body proposes to change: (1) its address in the United Kingdom for the service of notices or other documents required or authorised to be served on it under the Act; or(2) the address of its head office;it must give notice to the FSA and inform it of the new address at least 14 days before the change is effected.
Where an overseas recognised body has notice that any licence, permission or authorisation which it requires to conduct any regulated activity in its home territory has been or is about to be:(1) revoked; or(2) modified in any way which would materially restrict the overseas recognised body in performing any regulated activity in its home territory or in the United Kingdom;it must immediately notify the FSA of that fact and must give the FSA the information specified for the purposes
The following information is specified for the purposes of REC 6.7.8 R:(1) particulars of the licence, permission or authorisation which has been or is to be revoked or modified, including particulars of the overseas recognised body's regulated activities to which it relates;(2) an explanation of how the revocation or modification restricts or will restrict the overseas recognised body in carrying on any regulated activity in its home territory or in the United Kingdom;(3) the
(1) Threshold condition 5 (Suitability), requires the firm to satisfy the FSA that it is 'fit and proper' to have Part IV permission having regard to all the circumstances, including its connections with other persons, the range and nature of its proposed (or current) regulated activities and the overall need to be satisfied that its affairs are and will be conducted soundly and prudently (see also PRIN and SYSC).(2) The FSA will also take into consideration anything that could
In determining whether a firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, threshold condition 5 in respect of conducting its business with integrity and in compliance with proper standards, the relevant matters, as referred to in COND 2.5.4 G (2), may include but are not limited to whether:(1) the firm has been open and co-operative in all its dealings with the FSA and any other regulatory body (see Principle 11 (Relations with regulators)) and is ready, willing and organised to comply
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 9
2(1) |
The [UK RIE] must have effective arrangements for the investigation and resolution of complaints arising in connection with the performance of, or failure to perform, any of itsregulatory functions. |
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(2) |
But sub-paragraph (1) does not extend to - |
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(a) |
complaints about the content of rules made by the [UK RIE], or |
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(b) |
complaints about a decision against which the complainant has the right to appeal under procedures of the kind mentioned in paragraph 8(2)(b). |
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(3) |
The arrangements must include arrangements for a complaint to be fairly and impartially investigated by apersonindependent of the [UK RIE], and for him to report on the result of his investigation to the [UK RIE] and to the complainant. |
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(4) |
The arrangements must confer on thepersonmentioned in sub-paragraph (3) the power to recommend, if he thinks appropriate, that the [UK RIE] - |
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(a) |
makes a compensatory payment to the complainant, |
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(b) |
remedies the matter complained of, |
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or takes both of those steps. |
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(5) |
Sub-paragraph (3) is not to be taken as preventing the [UK RIE] from making arrangements for the initial investigation of a complaint to be conducted by the [UK RIE]. |
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In determining whether a UK recognised body has effective arrangements for the investigation and resolution of complaints arising in connection with the performance of, or failure to perform, any of its regulatory functions, the FSA may have regard to the extent to which the UK recognised body's resources and procedures enable it to:(1) acknowledge complaints promptly;(2) make an objective, prompt and thorough initial investigation of complaints;(3) provide a timely reply to the
In determining whether a UK recognised body's arrangements for the investigation of complaints include appropriate arrangements for the complaint to be fairly and impartially investigated by an independent person (a "complaints investigator"), the FSA may have regard to:(1) the arrangements made for appointing (and removing) a complaints investigator, including the terms and conditions of such an appointment and the provision for remuneration of a complaints investigator; (2)
The Ombudsman can consider a complaint under the Compulsory Jurisdiction only if it relates to an act or omission by a firm in the carrying on of one or more of the following activities (unless the provision described in DISP 2.6.3 R applies):(1) regulated activities;(2) lending money secured by a charge on land;(3) lending money (other than restricted credit);(4) paying money by a plastic card (other than a store card);(5) the provision of ancillary banking services (see DISP
The carrying on of an activity in DISP 2.6.1 R includes offering, providing or failing to provide and administering or failing to administer a service in relation to the activities covered by that rule. This includes the manner in which a firm has administered its business, provided that the business is an activity subject to the jurisdiction of the Financial Ombudsman Service.
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 4(2)(f)
2Without prejudice to the generality of sub-paragraph [4(1)], the [UK RIE] must ensure that- |
appropriate measures (including the monitoring of transactions effected on the [UK RIE]) are adopted to reduce the extent to which the [UK RIE's ]facilities can be used for a purpose connected withmarket abuse orfinancial crime, and to facilitate their detection and monitor their incidence; |
In determining whether a UK recognised body's measures are appropriate to reduce the extent to which its facilities can be used for a purpose connected with market abuse or financial crime, to facilitate their detection and to monitor their incidence, the FSA may have regard to:(1) whether the rules of the UK recognised body enable it to disclose any information to the FSA, or other appropriate bodies involved in the detection, prevention or pursuit of market abuse or financial
The FSA is of the opinion that UK firms that are credit institutions and MiFID investment firms2 should apply the 'characteristic performance' test (as referred to in SUP App 3.6.7 G) when considering whether prior notification is required for services business. Firms should note that other EEA States may take a different view. Some EEA States may apply a solicitation test. This is a test as to whether it is the consumer or the provider that initiates the business relationshi
In the case of a UK firm conducting portfolio management, for example, this would mean looking at where the investment decisions and management are actually carried on in order to determine where the service is undertaken. Similarly, a UK stockbroker that receives orders by telephone from a customer in France for execution on a UK exchange may be deemed to be dealing or receiving and transmitting orders within the territory of the United Kingdom. In such a case, whether the firm
The FSA considers that, in order to comply with Principle 3:Management and control (see PRIN 2.1.1 R), a firm should have appropriate procedures to monitor the nature of the services provided to its customers. Where a UK firm has non-resident customers but has not notified the EEA State in which the customers are resident that it wishes to exercise its freedom to provide services, the FSA would expect the firm's systems to include appropriate controls. Such controls would include
(1) 2The FSA is of the opinion that where a UK firm becomes a member of:(a) a regulated market that has its registered office or, if it has no registered office, its head office, in another EEA State; or(b) an MTF operated by a MiFID investment firm or a market operator in another EEA State,2the same principles as in the 'characteristic performance' test should apply. Under this test, the fact that a UK firm has a screen displaying the regulated market's or the MTF's prices in
Where the auditors of a UK recognised body cease to act as such, that UK recognised body must immediately give the FSA notice of that event, and the following information:(1) whether the appointment of those auditors expired or was terminated;(2) the date on which they ceased to act; and(3) if it terminated, or decided not to renew, their appointment, its reasons for taking that action or decision.