Related provisions for PERG 6.1.1
61 - 80 of 388 items.
1Under subsections 292A(1) and (2) of the Act, a UK RIE must as soon as practicable after a recognition order is made in respect of it publish such particulars of the ownership of the UK RIE, including the identity and scale of interests of the persons who are in a position to exercise significant influence over the management of the UK RIE, whether directly or indirectly, as the FSA may reasonably require.
Under subsections 292A(3) and (4) of the Act, a UK RIE must as soon as practicable after becoming aware of a transfer of ownership of the UK RIE which gives rise to a change of persons who are in a position to exercise significant influence over the management of the UK RIE, whether directly or indirectly, publish such particulars of any such transfer as the FSA may reasonably require.
The basic restriction on the communication of financial promotions is in section 21(1) of the Act. Sections 21(2) and (5) disapply the restriction in certain circumstances. Their combined effect is that a person must not, in the course of business, communicate an invitation or inducement to engage in investment activity unless:(1) he is an authorised person; or(2) the content of the communication is approved for the purposes of section 21 by an authorised person; or(3) the communication
Section 21 of the Act does not itself (other than in its heading and side-note) refer to a ‘financial promotion’ but rather to the communication of ‘an invitation or inducement to engage in investment activity’. References in this guidance to a financial promotion mean an invitation or inducement to engage in investment activity.
Section 21 of the Act contains a number of key expressions or phrases which will determine whether or not it will apply. These are:(1) 'invitation or inducement' (see PERG 8.4);(2) 'in the course of business' (see PERG 8.5);(3) 'communicate' (see PERG 8.6);(4) 'engage in investment activity' (see PERG 8.7); and(5) 'having an effect in the United Kingdom' (see PERG 8.8).
1DEPP 7 applies when the FSA:(1) has appointed an investigator at
the request of an overseas regulator,
under section 169(1)(b) (Assistance to overseas regulators) of the Act;
and(2) has directed, or is considering
directing, the investigator, under section 169(7) of the Act,
to permit a representative of the overseas
regulator to attend, and take part in, any interview conducted for the
purposes of the investigation.
The purpose of DEPP 7 is to set out the FSA's statement of policy on the conduct of interviews to which a direction
under section 169(7) has been given or the FSA is considering giving. The FSA is required to prepare and publish this statement of policy by
section 169(9) and (11) of the Act.
As required by section 169(10) of the Act, the Treasury has approved
the statement of policy.
Section 87B(1) of the Act sets out when the FSA may authorise the omission of information from a prospectus:
(1) |
The [FSA] may authorise the omission from a prospectus of any information, the inclusion of which would otherwise be required, on the ground – |
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(a) |
that its disclosure would be contrary to the public interest; |
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(b) |
that its disclosure would be seriously detrimental to the issuer, provided that the omission would be unlikely to mislead the public with regard to any facts or circumstances which are essential for an informed assessment of the kind mentioned in section 87A(2); or |
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(c) |
that the information is only of minor importance for a specific offer to the public or admission to trading on a regulated market and unlikely to influence an informed assessment of the kind mentioned in section 87A(2). |
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A request to the FSA to authorise the omission of specific information must:(1) be in writing from the applicant;(2) identify the specific information concerned and the specific reasons for its omission; and(3) state why in the applicant's opinion one or more of the grounds in section 87B(1) of the Act applies.
A decision to: (1) revoke a recognition order under section 297 of the Act (Revoking recognition); or(2) make a direction under section 296 (FSA's powers to give directions); or(3) refuse to make a recognition order under section 290 (Recognition orders) or 290A (Refusal of recognition on ground of excessive regulatory provision)2;is a serious one and section 298 of the Act (Directions and revocation: procedure) sets out a procedure (see REC 4.8.9 G) which the FSA will follow
In considering whether it would be appropriate to exercise the powers under section 296 or section 297 of the Act, the FSA will have regard to all relevant information and factors including:(1) its guidance to recognised bodies;(2) the results of its routine supervision of the body concerned;(3) the extent to which the failure or likely failure to satisfy the recognition requirements or other obligations in or under the Act or, in the case of a UK RIE, the MiFID implementing requirements1may
Before exercising its powers under section 296 or section 297 of the Act, the FSA will usually discuss its intention, and the basis for this, with the key individuals or other appropriate representatives of the recognised body. It will usually discuss its intention not to make a recognition order with appropriate representatives of the applicant.
Section 250 of the Act and regulation 7 of the OEIC Regulations allow the FSA to waive the application of certain rules in COLL and CIS to:(1) a person, as respects a particular AUT or ICVC, on the application or with the consent of that person; and(2) an AUT or ICVC on the application or with the consent of the manager and trustee (in the case of an AUT) or the ICVC and its depositary (in the case of an ICVC).2
This guidance is issued under section 157of the Act (Guidance). It is designed to throw light on particular aspects of regulatory requirements, not to be an exhaustive description of a person's obligations. If a person acts in line with the guidance and the circumstances contemplated by it, then the FSA will proceed on the footing that the person has complied with aspects of the requirement to which the guidance relates.
Rights conferred on third parties cannot be affected by guidance given by the FSA. This guidance represents the FSA's view, and does not bind the courts, for example, in relation to the enforceability of a contract where there has been a breach of the general prohibition on carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom without authorisation (see sections 26 to 29 of the Act (Enforceability of Agreements)).
(1) If the operator of a scheme gives notice to the FSA under section 270 of the Act (Schemes authorised in designated countries or territories) or makes an application under section 272 of the Act (Individually recognised overseas schemes), the notice or application must include the information in paragraph (4). (2) The documents must be in English or accompanied by a translation in English. (3) The documents must be certified by the operator to be true copies of the originals.
An operator of a scheme recognised under section 272 of the Act must ensure the prospectus:(1) contains a statement that "Complaints about the operation of the scheme may be made to the FSA."; and(2) states whether or not investors in the scheme would be covered by the compensation scheme, and if so, it must state how they are covered and who they would need to contact for further information.
(1) An operator of a scheme which is a recognised scheme by virtue of section 270 or 272 of the Act must comply, subject to paragraph (2) below, with the requirements set out in COLL 4.2 (Pre-sale notifications). (2) Where a scheme recognised under section 270of the Act is managed and authorised in Guernsey, Jersey, or the Isle of Man, the prospectus need not comply with the requirements of COLL 4.2.5 R (Table: contents of prospectus), providing it contains corresponding matter
(1) 1PR 2, PR 3, PR 4.2, PR 5.1, PR 5.3.1 UK to PR 5.3.3 G and PR 5.5 only apply (subject to paragraph (2)) in relation to:(a) an offer, or a request for admission to trading of transferable securities, in respect of which section 85 of the Act applies (other than an exempt offer under section 86 of the Act) and in relation to which the United Kingdom is the Home State;(b) an offer, or a request for admission to trading of transferable securities, where under section 87 of the
Most of the exclusions under the Directives, however, are not excluded from being regulated activities. For example, article 3 of the Consolidated Life Directive and article 3 of the Non-Life Directive exclude certain mutual associations whose annual contribution income falls below a defined threshold. In the United Kingdom, these include certain smaller friendly societies commonly referred to as "non-directive friendly societies". The activities of such societies are regulated
Under the Act and the Regulated Activities Order, the activities of effecting and carrying out contracts of insurance are treated as being carried on in the United Kingdom on the basis of legal tests under which the location of the risk is only one factor. If the risk is located in the United Kingdom, then (other relevant factors being taken into account) the activity will, in the vast majority of cases, also be viewed as carried on in the United Kingdom. There are exceptions,
So, the effect of App 3.12.1 is that an insurer may be carrying on insurance business in the United Kingdom which is to be treated as a regulated activity under article 10 to the Regulated Activities Order (Effecting and carrying out contracts of insurance) in circumstances where the risks covered are treated as located in another EEA State. In that event, the insurer is required by Schedule 3 to the Act to passport into the State concerned and may be subject to conduct of business
An insurer authorised in another EEA State who is insuring UK risks and so passports on a services basis under the Insurance Directives into the United Kingdom (see ), may not be carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom. But, if it passports into the United Kingdom, it will qualify for authorisation under paragraph 12 of Schedule 3 to the Act (Firms qualifying for authorisation). Where this is the case, the insurer will be subject to conduct of business requirements
(1) Under section 41(2) of the Act (The threshold conditions), in giving or varying a Part IV permission or imposing or varying any requirement, the FSA must ensure that the firm concerned will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, the threshold conditions in relation to all of the regulated activities for which it has or will have permission.(2) If, however, the applicant for permission is an incoming firm seeking top-up permission, or variation of top-up permission, under Part IV
(1) If, among other things, a firm is failing to satisfy any of the threshold conditions, or is likely to fail to do so, section 45 of the Act (Variation etc. on the FSA's own initiative) states that the FSA may exercise its own-initiative power. Use of the FSA'sown-initiative power is explained in SUP 7 (Individual requirements), and EG 8 (Variation and cancellation of permission on the FSA's own initiative and intervention against incoming firms)1.1(2) If, when exercising its
A firm authorised under Part IV of the Act (Permission to carry on regulated activity) has a single Part IV permission granted by the FSA. A firm's Part IV permission specifies all or some of the following elements (see PERG 2 Annex 2 (Regulated activities and the permission regime) and the FSA website "How do I get authorised": http://www.fsa.gov.uk/Pages/Doing/how/index.shtml3):3(1) a description of the activities the firm may carry on, including any limitations;(2) the specified
Sections 87H and 87I of the Act provide:
Prospectus approved in another EEA State |
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87H |
(1) |
A prospectus approved by the competent authority of an EEA State other than the United Kingdom is not an approved prospectus for the purposes of section 85 unless that authority has provided the competent authority with – |
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(a) |
a certificate of approval; |
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(b) |
a copy of the prospectus as approved; and |
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(c) |
if requested by the [FSA], a translation of the summary of the prospectus. |
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(2) |
A document is not a certificate of approval unless it states that the prospectus – |
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(a) |
has been drawn up in accordance with the prospectus directive; and |
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(b) |
has been approved, in accordance with that directive, by the competent authority providing the certificate. |
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(3) |
A document is not a certificate of approval unless it states whether (and, if so, why) the competent authority providing it authorised, in accordance with the prospectus directive, the omission from the prospectus of information which would otherwise have been required to be included. |
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(4) |
“Prospectus” includes a supplementary prospectus. |
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Provision of information to host Member State |
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87I |
(1) |
The [FSA] must, if requested to do so, supply the competent authority of a specified EEA State with – |
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(a) |
a certificate of approval; |
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(b) |
a copy of the specified prospectus (as approved by the [FSA]); and |
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(c) |
a translation of the summary of the specified prospectus (if the request states that one has been requested by the other competent authority). |
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(2) |
Only the following may make a request under this section – |
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(a) |
the issuer of the transferable securities to which the specified prospectus relates; |
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(b) |
a person who wishes to offer the transferable securities to which the specified prospectus relates to the public in an EEA State other than (or as well as) the United Kingdom; |
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(c) |
a person requesting the admission of the transferable securities to which the specified prospectus relates to a regulated market situated or operating in an EEA State other than (or as well as) the United Kingdom. |
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(3) |
A certificate of approval must state that the prospectus – |
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(a) |
has been drawn up in accordance with this Part and the prospectus directive; and |
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(b) |
has been approved, in accordance with those provisions, by the [FSA]. |
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(4) |
A certificate of approval must state whether (and, if so, why) the [FSA] authorised, in accordance with section 87B, the omission from the prospectus of information which would otherwise have been required to be included. |
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(5) |
The [FSA] must comply with a request under this section – |
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(a) |
if the prospectus has been approved before the request is made, within 3 working days beginning with the date of the request; or |
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(b) |
if the request is submitted with an application for the approval of the prospectus, on the first working day after the date on which it approves the prospectus. |
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(6) |
“Prospectus” includes a supplementary prospectus. |
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(7) |
“Specified” means specified in a request made for the purposes of this section. |
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(1) This rule applies to a request by a person to the FSA to supply information referred to in section 87I of the Act to the competent authority of a relevant Host State.(2) The request must be in writing and must include:(a) the relevant prospectus as approved (if it has already been approved); and(b) a translation of the summary if required by the competent authority of a relevant host State.
Under section 296 of the Act (FSA's power to give directions), the FSA has the power to give directions to a recognised body to take specified steps 1in order to secure its compliance with the recognition requirements or other obligations in or under the Act or, in the case of a UK RIE, the MiFID implementing requirements. In the case of a UK RIE those steps may include granting the FSA access to the UK RIE's premises for the purposes of inspecting those premises or any documents
The FSA is likely to exercise its power under section 296 of the Act if it considers that:(1) there has been, or was likely to be, a failure to satisfy the recognition requirements or there has been a failure to comply with any other obligation in or under the Act or, in the case of a UK RIE, the MiFID implementing requirements1which has serious consequences; (2) compliance with the direction would ensure that the recognition requirements, or other obligation in or under the Act
Under section 298(7) of the Act (Directions and revocation: procedure), the FSA need not follow the consultation procedure set out in the rest of section 298 (see REC 4.8), or may cut short that procedure, if it considers it essential to do so. The FSA is likely to consider it essential to cut short the procedure if, in the absence of immediate action, there would be:(1) a serious risk of substantial losses to investors, particularly retail clients1; or1(2) a serious threat to
This guidance is issued under section 157of the Act (Guidance). It is designed to throw light on particular aspects of regulatory requirements, not to be an exhaustive description of a person's obligations. If a person acts in line with the guidance in the circumstances it contemplates, the FSA will proceed on the footing that the person has complied with aspects of the requirement to which the guidance relates. Rights conferred on third parties cannot be affected by guidance
Open-ended investment companies constituted in other EEA States which are seeking to exercise rights conferred by the UCITS Directive should refer to COLL 9 (Recognised schemes) and CIS 17 (Recognised Schemes) for guidance on the requirements of section 264 of the Act (Schemes constituted in other EEA States).
Guidance on what constitutes a branch is given in SUP App 36. Note that if a UK MiFID investment firm is seeking to use a tied agent established in another EEA State, the rules in SUP 13 will apply as if that firm were seeking to establish a branch in that EEA State unless the firm has already established a branch in that EEA State (paragraph 20A of Schedule 3 to the Act).846
A UK firm cannot establish a branch in another EEA State for the first time under an EEA right unless the conditions in paragraphs 19(2), (4) and (5) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act are satisfied. It is an offence for a UK firm which is not an authorised person to contravene this prohibition (paragraph 21 of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act). These conditions are that:(1) the UKfirm has given the FSA, in accordance with the FSArules (see SUP 13.5.1 R), notice of its intention
(1) If the FSA proposes to refuse to give a consent notice, then paragraph 19(8) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act requires the FSA to give the UK firm a warning notice.(2) If the FSA decides to refuse to give a consent notice, then paragraph 19(12) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act requires the FSA to give the UK firm a decision notice within three months8 of the date on which it received the UK firm'snotice of intention8(two months8 in the case of a UK firm which is a
A firm should satisfy itself that the terms of the contract with its appointed representative (including an introducer appointed representative):(1) are designed to enable the firm to comply properly with any limitations or requirements on its own permission;(2) require the appointed representative to cooperate with the FSA as described in SUP 2.3.4 G (Information gathering by the FSA on its own initiative: cooperation by firms) and give access to its premises, as described in
A firm must ensure that its written contract with each of its appointed representatives:4(1) complies with the requirements prescribed in regulation 3 of the Appointed Representatives Regulations (see SUP 12.5.2 G);4(2) requires the appointed representative to comply, and to ensure that any persons who provide services to the appointed representative under a contract of services or a contract for service comply, with the relevant requirements in or under the Act (including the