Related provisions for REC 6.5.1

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LR 8.7.20GRP
EG3 sets out the FSA's policy on when and how it will use its disciplinary powers, including 3 in relation to a sponsor.3
COND 2.3.3GRP
In assessing this threshold condition, factors which the FSA will take into consideration include, among other things, whether: (1) it is likely that the FSA will receive adequate information from the firm, and those persons with whom the firm has close links, to enable it to determine whether the firm is complying with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system and to identify and assess the impact on the regulatory objectives in section 2 of the Act (The FSA's
COND 2.5.2GRP
(1) Threshold condition 5 (Suitability), requires the firm to satisfy the FSA that it is 'fit and proper' to have Part IV permission having regard to all the circumstances, including its connections with other persons, the range and nature of its proposed (or current) regulated activities and the overall need to be satisfied that its affairs are and will be conducted soundly and prudently (see also PRIN and SYSC).(2) The FSA will also take into consideration anything that could
COND 2.5.3GRP
(1) The emphasis of this threshold condition is on the suitability of the firm itself. The suitability of each person who performs a controlled function will be assessed by the FSA under the approved persons regime (see SUP 10 (Approved persons) and FIT). In certain circumstances, however, the FSA may consider that the firm is not suitable because of doubts over the individual or collective suitability of persons connected with the firm.8(2) When assessing this threshold condition
COND 2.5.4GRP
(1) When determining whether the firm will satisfy and continue to satisfy threshold condition 5, the FSA will have regard to all relevant matters, whether arising in the United Kingdom or elsewhere.(2) Relevant matters include, but are not limited to, whether a firm:(a) conducts, or will conduct, its business with integrity and in compliance with proper standards;(b) has, or will have, a competent and prudent management; and(c) can demonstrate that it conducts, or will conduct,
COND 2.5.6GRP
In determining whether a firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, threshold condition 5 in respect of conducting its business with integrity and in compliance with proper standards, the relevant matters, as referred to in COND 2.5.4 G (2), may include but are not limited to whether:(1) the firm has been open and co-operative in all its dealings with the FSA and any other regulatory body (see Principle 11 (Relations with regulators)) and is ready, willing and organised to comply
COND 2.4.2GRP
(1) Threshold condition 4 (Adequate resources), requires the FSA to ensure that a firm has adequate resources in relation to the specific regulated activity or regulated activities which it seeks to carry on, or carries on.(2) In this context, the FSA will interpret the term 'adequate' as meaning sufficient in terms of quantity, quality and availability, and 'resources' as including all financial resources, non-financial resources and means of managing its resources; for example,
REC 6.7.2GRP
The notification rules in this chapter are made by the FSA in order to ensure that it is provided with notice of events and information which it reasonably requires for the exercise of its functions under the Act.
REC 6.7.3RRP
Where an overseas recognised body includes in its report made under section 295(1) of the Act (Notification: overseas investment exchanges and overseas clearing houses) a statement in compliance with section 295(2)(a) of the Act that an event has occurred in the period covered by that report which is likely to affect the FSA's assessment of whether it is satisfied as to the requirements set out in section 292(3) (Overseas investment exchanges and overseas clearing houses), it
REC 6.7.5RRP
An overseas recognised body must include in the first report submitted under section 295(1) of the Act after the recognition order in relation to that overseas recognised body is made: (1) particulars of any events of the kind described in section 295(2) of the Act which occurred; (2) particulars of any change specified in REC 6.7.4 R (1) or disciplinary action specified in REC 6.7.4 R (2) which occurred; and(3) any annual report and accounts which covered a period ending; after
REC 6.7.7RRP
Where an overseas recognised body proposes to change: (1) its address in the United Kingdom for the service of notices or other documents required or authorised to be served on it under the Act; or(2) the address of its head office;it must give notice to the FSA and inform it of the new address at least 14 days before the change is effected.
FIT 1.2.1GRP
Under section 61(1) of the Act (Determination of applications), the FSA may grant an application for approval made under section 60 (Applications for approval) only if it is satisfied that the candidate is fit and proper to perform the controlled function to which the application relates.
FIT 1.2.4GRP
The Act does not prescribe the matters which the FSA should take into account when determining fitness and propriety. However, section 61(2) states that the FSA may have regard (among other things) to whether the candidate or approved person is competent to carry out a controlled function.
SUP 7.2.1GRP
The FSA has the power under section 45of the Act (Variation on the Authority's own initiative) to vary a firm's Part IV permission. This includes imposing a statutory requirement or limitation on that Part IV permission.1
SUP 7.2.2GRP
The circumstances in which the FSA may vary a firm'sPart IV permission on its own initiative under section 45 of the Act include where it appears to the FSA that:(1) one or more of the threshold conditions is or is likely to be no longer satisfied; or(2) it is desirable to vary a firm's permission in order to protect the interests of consumers or potential consumers.
SUP 7.2.3GRP
The FSA may also use its powers under section 45 for enforcement purposes. ENF 3 sets out in detail the FSA's powers under section 45 and the circumstances under which the FSA may vary a firm's permission in this way, whether for enforcement purposes or as part of its day to day supervision of firms. This chapter provides additional guidance on when the FSA will use these powers for supervision purposes.
SUP 7.2.4GRP
The FSA may use its powers under section 45 of the Act only in respect of a Part IV permission ; that is, a permission granted to a firm under section 42 of the Act (Giving permission) or having effect as if so given. In respect of an incoming EEA firm, an incoming Treaty firm, or a UCITS qualifier, this power applies only in relation to any top-up permission that it has. There are similar but more limited powers under Part XIII of the Act in relation to the permission of an
COND 1.3.1GRP
The guidance in COND 2 explains each threshold condition in Part I of Schedule 6 (threshold conditions) to the Act and how the FSA will interpret it in practice. An overview of the threshold conditions is given in COND 1 Annex 1 G. This guidance is not, however, exhaustive and is written in very general terms. A firm will need to have regard to the obligation placed upon the FSA under section 41 (the threshold conditions) of the Act; that is, the FSA must ensure that the firm
COND 1.3.4GRP
(1) For ease of reference, the threshold conditions in or under Schedule 6 to the Act have been quoted in full in COND 2. (2) As these provisions impose obligations, they are printed in bold type. The use of bold type is not intended to indicate that these quotations are rules made by the FSA.(3) Where words have been substituted for the text of these provisions the substitutions are enclosed in square brackets ([ ]). However, none of the changes made by the FSA in these quotations
FEES 3.2.5GRP
(1) (2) With the exception of persons seeking to become a designated professional body, all applications, notifications, requests for vetting or admission approval will be treated as incomplete until the relevant fee is fully paid and the FSA will not consider an application, notification, request for vetting or admission approval until the relevant fee is fully paid. Persons seeking to become a designated professional body have 30 days after the designation order is made to
FEES 3.2.7RRP

Table of application, notification and vetting fees

(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable

Due date

(a) Any applicant for Part IV permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission)

(1) Unless (2) applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application.

(2) In respect of a particular application which is:

(i) a straightforward or moderately complex case for the purposes of FEES 3 Annex 1 part 1, and

(ii) only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6,

the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11

1

On or before the application is made

(b) Any Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right, except for a firm providing cross border services only4

(1) Where no certificate has been issued under paragraph 3(4) of Schedule 4 to the Act the fee payable is, in respect of a particular exercise, set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, part 4

(2) Where a certificate in (i) has been issued no fee is payable

On or before the notice of exercise is given

(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order

2,000

On or before the application is made

(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition of, a collective investment scheme

FEES 3 Annex 2, part 1

On or before the application is made

(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body.

10,000

30 days after the order is granted

(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body under section 287 or section 288 of the Act

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(h) Any applicant for recognition as an overseas recognised body under section 287 or section 288 and section 292 of the Act

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(i) An applicant for listing (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(j) Applicant for approval as sponsor (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(k) Issuers of tranches from debt issuance programmes and securitised derivative tranches

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

An upfront fee is required per tranche for draw downs in the following 12 months

(l) Under the listing rules, an issuer involved in specific events or transactions during the year where documentation is subject to a transaction vetting

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 1, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA

(m) Under the prospectus rules, an issuer or person requesting approval or vetting of the documents arising in relation to specific events or transactions that it might be involved in during the year

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 2, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA

(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges

50,000

On or before the date the application is made

2(o) In connection with rules (or future rules) implementing the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 (including any amendments):

(i) a firm applying to the FSA for a waiver or concession (or guidance on the availability of either): or

(ii) a firm'sEEA parent applying to its Home State regulator for the use of the Internal Ratings Based approach and the Home State regulator requesting the FSA's assistance in accordance with the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 .

112

If the firm is applying to the FSA:2

(1) unless2 (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6;2

(2) (a) unless2 (b) applies a1firm submitting a second application for a waiver or concession or1guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application

(b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a waiver or a concession based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1

(c) No fee is payable by a firm applying to its Home State regulator where the Home State regulator has requested the assistance of the FSAand the firm falls within Group 4 of Part 1 of FEES 3 Annex 6.2

212

Where the firm has made an application directly to the FSA, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the FSA notifies the firm that its EEA parent's Home State regulator has requested the FSA's assistance.2

2

(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part IV permission

(1) Unless (2) applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1 not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in which apply to that application.

(2) If the only change is that the1 A.12 activity group tariff applied to the firm's business before the variation and the A.13 activity group will apply after variation, no fee is payable(3) In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250, unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part IV permission in which case no fee is payable.1

11

On or before the date the application is made

2(q) A significanttransaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 1.5 billion and it is a new applicant for a primary listing under the listing rules, or involved in a reverse or hostile takeover or a significant restructuring; or

(ii) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 5 billion and is involved in a class 1 transaction or a transaction requiring vetting of an equity prospectus or equivalent document

; or (iii) the issuer is proposing a Depositary Receipt issue intended to raise more than 5billion.

50,000

On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA.3

33

2(r) Providers of reporting or trade matching systems applying for recognition under MiFID as an Approved Reporting Mechanism.

20,000

On or before the date the application is made.
PERG 8.12.36GRP
The first part of the exemption (referred to in PERG 8.12.34G (1)) specifically precludes any form of written communication. However, the FSA understands that the Treasury did not intend to prohibit the use of written words in the form of subtitling. These may be an aid to those with hearing difficulties or to interpret a foreign language, or the use of captions which supplement a spoken communication by highlighting aspects of it without introducing anything new. The FSA cannot
SUP 5.1.3GRP
The purpose of this chapter is to give guidance on the FSA's use of the power in section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons). The purpose is also to make rules requiring a firm to include certain provisions in its contract with a skilled person and to give assistance to a skilled person. These rules are designed to ensure that the FSA receives certain information from a skilled person and that a skilled person receives assistance from a firm.
REC 4.2C.1GRP
1Chapter 1A of Part XVIII of the Act places an obligation on controllers and proposed controllers of UK RIEs to notify the FSAof acquisitions of or increases in control. Furthermore, those persons are required to obtain the FSA's approval before becoming a controller or increasing the level of control held (in certain circumstances).
REC 4.2C.2GRP
The FSA will approve an acquisition ofcontrol if it is satisfied that the acquisition of control by the person seeking approval does not pose a threat to the sound and prudent management of any financial market operated by the UK RIE.
REC 4.2C.3GRP
If a proposed controller or controller has complied with the obligation to notify, the procedure the FSA will follow if it approves or does not approve of that person becoming a controller or increasing the level of control held is set out in section 301C of the Act.
REC 4.2C.8GRP
The powers the FSA can exercise in the event that a person acquires or continues to exercise control notwithstanding the FSA's refusal to approve the acquisition of control or the FSA's objection to the exercise of control are set out in section 301Eof the Act.
REC 4.7.1GRP
Under section 297 of the Act (Revoking recognition), the FSA has the power to revoke a recognition order relating to a recognised body.
REC 4.7.3GRP
The FSA will usually consider revoking a recognition order if:(1) the recognised body is failing or has failed to satisfy the recognition requirements or other obligations in or under the Act or, in the case of a UK RIE, the MiFID implementing requirements 1and that failure has or will have serious consequences; or(2) it would not be possible for the recognised body to comply with a direction under section 296 of the Act (FSA's power to give directions); or (3) for some other
REC 4.7.4GRP
The FSA would be likely to consider the conditions in REC 4.7.3 G (2) or REC 4.7.3 G (3) to be triggered1in the following circumstances:1(1) the recognised body appears not to have the resources or management to be able to organise its affairs so as to satisfy the recognition requirements or other obligations in or under the Act or, in the case of a UK RIE, the MiFID implementing requirements; or1(2) the recognised body does not appear to be willing to satisfy the recognition
REC 4.7.5GRP
In addition to the relevant 1factors set out in REC 4.7.4 G, the FSA will usually consider that it would not be able to secure an overseas recognised body's compliance with the recognition requirements or other obligations in or under the Act by means of a direction under section 296 of the Act, if it appears to the FSA that the overseas recognised body is prevented by any change in the legal framework or supervisory arrangements to which it is subject in its home territory from
SUP 13.4.2GRP
A UK firm cannot start providing cross border services into another EEA State under an EEA right unless it satisfies the conditions in paragraphs 20(1) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act and, if it derives its EEA right from the Insurance Directives, paragraph 20(4B) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act. It is an offence for a UK firm which is not an authorised person to breach this prohibition (paragraph 21 of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act).The conditions are that:(1) the
SUP 13.4.4GRP
8(1) If8 the UK firm'sEEA right derives from MiFID8, the Banking Consolidation Directive or the UCITS Directive, paragraph 20(3) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act requires the FSA to send a copy of the notice of intention8 to the Host State Regulator within one month8 of receipt.8However, a UK firm passporting under the Banking Consolidation Directive or MiFID may start providing cross border services as soon as it satisfies the relevant conditions (see SUP 13.4.2 G).888888(2)
PERG 9.8.1GRP
The test in section 236(3)(a) of the Act is whether the reasonable investor would expect that, were he to invest, he would be in a position to realise his investment within a period appearing to him to be reasonable. In the FSA's view, this is an objective test with the appropriate objective judgment to be applied being that of the hypothetical reasonable investor with qualities such as those mentioned in PERG 9.7.2 G (The investment condition: the 'reasonable investor').
PERG 9.8.2GRP
In the FSA's view, the 'realisation' of an investment means converting an asset into cash or money. The FSA does not consider that 'in specie' redemptions (in the sense of exchanging shares or securities of BC with other shares or securities) will generally count as realisation. Section 236(3)(a) refers to the realisation of an investment, the investment being represented by the 'value' of shares or securities held in BC. In the FSA's view, there is no realisation of value where
PERG 9.8.5GRP
The use of an expectation test ensures that the definition of an open-ended investment company is not limited to a situation where a holder of shares in, or securities of, a body corporate has an entitlement or an option to realise his investment. It is enough if, on the facts of any particular case, the reasonable investor would expect that he would be able to realise the investment. The following are examples of circumstances in which the FSA considers that a reasonable investor
PERG 9.8.7GRP
In the FSA's view, the fact that a person may invest in the period shortly before a redemption date would not cause a body corporate, that would not otherwise be regarded as such, to be open-ended. This is because the investment condition must be applied in relation to BC as a whole (see PERG 9.6.3 G (The investment condition (section 236(3) of the Act): general).
REC 4.8.1GRP
A decision to: (1) revoke a recognition order under section 297 of the Act (Revoking recognition); or(2) make a direction under section 296 (FSA's powers to give directions); or(3) refuse to make a recognition order under section 290 (Recognition orders) or 290A (Refusal of recognition on ground of excessive regulatory provision)2;is a serious one and section 298 of the Act (Directions and revocation: procedure) sets out a procedure (see REC 4.8.9 G) which the FSA will follow
REC 4.8.3GRP
In considering whether it would be appropriate to exercise the powers under section 296 or section 297 of the Act, the FSA will have regard to all relevant information and factors including:(1) its guidance to recognised bodies;(2) the results of its routine supervision of the body concerned;(3) the extent to which the failure or likely failure to satisfy the recognition requirements or other obligations in or under the Act or, in the case of a UK RIE, the MiFID implementing requirements1may
REC 4.8.5GRP
The procedures laid down in section 298 of the Act are summarised, with the FSA's guidance about the actions it proposes to take in following these procedures, in the table at REC 4.8.9 G.
REC 4.8.6GRP
Before exercising its powers under section 296 or section 297 of the Act, the FSA will usually discuss its intention, and the basis for this, with the key individuals or other appropriate representatives of the recognised body. It will usually discuss its intention not to make a recognition order with appropriate representatives of the applicant.
FEES 2.1.5GRP
Paragraph 17 of Schedule 1 and section 99 to the Act enable the FSA to charge fees to cover its costs and expenses in carrying out its functions. The corresponding provisions for the FSCS levy and FOS levies and case fees are set out in FEES 6.1, and FEES 5.2 respectively.