Related provisions for LR 10.1.5
41 - 60 of 588 items.
Under section 294 of the Act (Modification or waiver of rules), the FSA may, on the application or with the consent of a recognised body (including an overseas recognised body), direct that any notification rule is not to apply to the body or is to apply with such modifications as may be specified in the waiver.
Under section 294(4) of the Act, before the FSA may give a waiver of notification rules, it must be satisfied that:(1) compliance by the recognised body with those notification rules, or with those rules as unmodified, would be unduly burdensome or would not achieve the purpose for which those rules were made; and(2) the waiver would not result in undue risk to persons whose interests those rules are designed to protect.
There is no application form, but applicants should make their application formally and in writing and in accordance with any direction the FSA may make under section 294(2) of the Act. Each application should set out at least:(1) full particulars of the waiver which is requested; (2) the reason why the recognised body believes that the criteria set out in section 294(4) (and described in REC 3.3.3 G) would be met, if this waiver were granted; and (3) where the recognised body
Any waiver given by the FSA under section 294 of the Act will be made in writing, stating: (1) the name of the recognised body in respect of which the waiver is made;(2) the notification rules which are to be waived or modified in respect of that body;(3) where relevant, the manner in which any rule is to be modified;(4) any condition or time limit to which the waiver is subject; and(5) the date from which the waiver is to take effect.
Where the FSA considers that it will not give the waiver which has been applied for, the FSA will give reasons to the applicant for its decision. The FSA will endeavour, where practicable, to inform an applicant in advance where it seems that an application is likely to fail unless it is amended or expanded, so that the applicant will have the opportunity to make any necessary amendments or additions before the application is considered.
The FSA will periodically review any waiver it has given. The FSA has the right to revoke a waiver under section 294(6) of the Act. This right is likely to be exercised in the event of a material change in the circumstances of the recognised body or in any fact on the basis of which the waiver was given.
(1) 1Under section 313A of the Act, the FSA may for the purpose of protecting:(a) the interests of investors; or (b) the orderly functioning of the financial markets; require a UK RIE to suspend or remove a financial instrument from trading.(2) If the FSA exercises this power, the UK RIE concerned may refer the matter to the Tribunal.
The procedure the FSA will follow if it exercises its power to require a UK RIE to suspend or remove a financial instrument from trading is set out in section 313B of the Act. The FSA's internal arrangements provide for decisions to exercise this power to be taken at an appropriately senior level. If the FSA exercises this power, the UK RIE concerned and the issuer (if any) of the relevant financial instrument may refer the matter to the Tribunal(see EG 2.39)2.2
The circumstances in which the FSA may vary a firm'sPart IV permission on
its own initiative under section 45 of the Act include
where it appears to the FSA that:(1) one
or more of the threshold conditions is or is likely to be no longer
satisfied; or(2) it
is desirable to vary a firm's permission in order to protect the interests of consumers or
potential consumers.
The FSA may also use its powers under section 45 for
enforcement purposes. ENF 3 sets out in detail the FSA's powers under section 45 and
the circumstances under which the FSA may vary a firm's permission in this way, whether for enforcement purposes or as part of its
day to day supervision of firms.
This chapter provides additional guidance on when the FSA will use these powers for supervision purposes.
The FSA may use its powers under section 45 of the Act only in respect of a Part IV permission ; that is, a permission granted
to a firm under section 42 of the Act (Giving
permission) or having effect as if so given. In respect of an incoming EEA firm, an incoming
Treaty firm, or a UCITS qualifier,
this power applies only in relation to any top-up
permission that it has. There are similar but more limited powers
under Part XIII of the Act in
relation to the permission of
an
Section 19 of the Act (The general prohibition) provides that the requirement to be authorised under the Act only applies in relation to regulated activities which are carried on 'in the United Kingdom'. In many cases, it will be quite straightforward to identify where an activity is carried on. But when there is a cross-border element, for example because a borrower is outside the United Kingdom or because some other element of the activity happens outside the United Kingdom,
The exclusions in article 72(5A) to (5F) of the Regulated Activities Order (Overseas persons) provide that an overseas person does not carry on the regulated activities of:(1) arranging (bringing about) or making arrangements with view to a regulated mortgage contract;(2) entering into a regulated mortgage contract; or(3) administering a regulated mortgage contract;if the borrower (and each of them, if more than one) is an individual and is normally resident overseas. In the case
The FSA's view of the effect of the Act and Regulated Activities Order in various territorial scenarios is set out in the remainder of this section. In those scenarios:(1) the term "service provider" is used to describe a person carrying on any of the regulated mortgage activities;(2) the term "borrower" refers to a borrower who is an individual and not a trustee; the position of a borrower acting as a trustee is not considered; and(3) it is assumed that the activity is not an
When a person is arranging (bringing about) regulated mortgage contracts or making arrangements with a view to regulated mortgage contracts from overseas, the question of whether he will be carrying on regulated activities in the United Kingdom will depend on the relevant circumstances. In the FSA's view, factors to consider include:(1) the territorial limitation in the definition of regulated mortgage contract so that regulation only applies if the land is in the United Kingdom;(2)
In the FSA's view:(1) if the borrower is normally resident in the United Kingdom, the clear territorial limitation in the definition of regulated mortgage contract carries most weight in determining where regulation should apply; it is likely that the arranger will be carrying on regulated activities in the United Kingdom;(2) if the borrower is normally resident overseas, the arrangements are excluded by the overseas persons exclusion.In the case of arranging (bringing about)
In the FSA's view, advising on regulated mortgage contracts is carried on where the borrower receives the advice. Accordingly:(1) if the borrower is located in the United Kingdom, a person advising that borrower on regulated mortgage contracts is carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom; but(2) if the service provider and borrower are both located overseas, the regulated activity is not carried on in the United Kingdom.
In the FSA's view, in circumstances other than those excluded by article 72(5D) of the Regulated Activities Order, an overseas lender is likely to carry on the regulated activity of entering into regulated mortgage contracts in the United Kingdom. This is because of:(1) the territorial limitation in the definition of regulated mortgage contract so that regulation applies only if the land is in the United Kingdom;(2) the general principle and practice that contracts relating to
In the FSA's view, in circumstances other than those excluded by article 72(5E) of the Regulated Activities Order, an overseas administrator is likely to carry on the regulated activity of administering a regulated mortgage contract in the United Kingdom. This is because:(1) the territorial limitation in the definition of regulated mortgage contract means that regulation applies only if the land is in the United Kingdom;(2) when administrators notify borrowers resident in the
In most cases, there will be no preliminary agreement to enter into a regulated mortgage contract in advance of entering into the contract itself. Moreover, the exclusions relevant to a regulated activity are taken into account to determine whether a person is agreeing to carry on that regulated activity. So, for example, agreeing to arrange regulated mortgage contracts in cases where borrower and service provider are overseas, would not be regulated activities because the activities
The FSA will be responsible for implementing the Distance Marketing Directive for those firms and activities it regulates. The FSA and the Treasury agree that the Distance Marketing Directive is intended to operate on a country of origin basis, except where a firm is marketing into the UK from an establishment in an EEA State which has not implemented the Directive.
(1) The applicant must submit to the FSA by the date specified in paragraph (2):(a) the completed form A in final form;(b) the relevant fee; and(c) the other information referred to in PR 3.1.1 R in draft form.(2) The date referred to in paragraph (1) is:(a) at least 10 working days before the intended approval date of the prospectus; or(b) at least 20 working days before the intended approval date of the prospectus if the applicant does not have transferable securitiesadmission
If an applicant wishes the FSA to provide a certificate of approval to another competent authority at the time the prospectus is approved, it should include a request for the supply of the certificate with its application for approval of the prospectus (PR 5.3.2 R sets out the requirements for such a request).
Section 87A(1) of the Act provides for the approval of a prospectus by the FSA:
(1) |
The [FSA] may not approve a prospectus unless it is satisfied that: |
|
(a) |
the United Kingdom is the home State in relation to the issuer of the transferable securities to which it relates, |
|
(b) |
the prospectus contains the necessary information, and |
|
(c) |
all of the other requirements imposed by or in accordance with this Part or the prospectus directive have been complied with (so far as those requirements apply to a prospectus for the transferable securities in question). |
|
The FSA will follow the executive procedures for statutory notice decisions and statutory notice associated decisions if it:(1) proposes to refuse to approve a prospectus; or(2) decides to refuse to approve a prospectus after having given the applicant a written notice.Note: DEPP 44 sets out the executive procedures for statutory notice decisions and statutory notice associated decisions.4
(1) A person seeking to have the function of approving a prospectus transferred to the competent authority of another EEA State must make a written request to the FSA at least 10 working days before the date the transfer is sought.(2) The request must:(a) set out the reasons for the proposed transfer;(b) state the name of the competent authority to whom the transfer is sought; and(c) include a copy of the draft prospectus.
The FSA will consider transferring the function of approving a prospectus to the competent authority of another EEA State:(1) if requested to do so by the issuer, offeror or person requesting admission or by another competent authority; or(2) in other cases if the FSA considers it would be more appropriate for another competent authority to perform that function.
A person who wishes the FSA to vet an equivalent document referred to in PR 1.2.2 R (2) or (3) or PR 1.2.3R (3) or (4) must submit to the FSA:(1) a copy of the document;(2) a cross reference list identifying the pages in the document where each item that is equivalent to the disclosure requirements for a prospectus may be found;(3) contact details of individuals who are:(a) sufficiently knowledgeable about the documentation to be able to answer queries from the FSA; and(b) available
(1) The purpose of REC 3.15.2 R to REC 3.15.5 G is to enable the FSA to obtain information where a UK recognised body decides to suspend the provision of its services in relation to particular investments. Planned changes to the provision of services should be notified to the FSA under REC 3.14.(2) REC 3.15.6 R to REC 3.15.7 R provide for notification to the FSA where a UK recognised body is unable to operate or provide its facilities for reasons outside its control or where it
Where, for any reason, an RIE: (1) suspends trading in any derivative (other than an option in relation to a security), in any type of security or in any type of option in relation to a security; or(2) temporarily calls a trading halt in respect of any type of security or in any type of option in relation to a security;it must immediately give the FSA notice of that event, particulars of that derivative, type of security or type of option in relation to a security, as the case
Where a UK recognised body suspends providing clearing services generally in respect of any derivative (other than an option in relation to a security), type of security or type of option in relation to a security, it must immediately give the FSA notice of that event, particulars of that derivative, type of security or type of option in relation to a security, as the case may be, and the reasons for the action taken.
Where a UK recognised body suspends any arrangements it makes for the safeguarding and administration of any type of asset belonging to any other person (other than an undertaking in the same group), that UK recognised body must immediately give the FSA notice of that event, particulars of that type of asset and the reasons for the action taken.
Where, because of the occurrence of any event or circumstances, a UK recognised body is unable to operate any of its facilities within its normal hours of operation, it must immediately give the FSA notice of that inability and inform the FSA:(1) which facility it is unable to operate; (2) what event or circumstance has caused it to become unable to operate that facility within those hours; and(3) what action, if any, it is taking or proposes to take to enable it to recommence
Where, because of the occurrence of any event or circumstances, a UK recognised body extends its hours of operation, it must immediately give the FSA notice of that event, and inform the FSA:(1) what event or circumstance has caused it to do so; (2) the new hours of operation; and(3) the date on which it expects to revert to its normal hours of operation.
An auditor of a firm must submit a report addressed to the FSA, signed in his capacity as auditor, which: (1) 5states the matters set out in SUP 3.10.5 R; or(2) if the firm claims not to hold client money or custody assets, states whether anything has come to the auditor's attention that causes him to believe that the firm held client money or custody assets during the period covered by the report.
1The rights and duties of auditors are set out in SUP 3.8 (Rights and duties of all auditors) and SUP 3.10 (Duties of auditors: notification and report on client assets). SUP 3.8.10 G also refers to the auditor's statutory duty to report certain matters to the FSA imposed by regulations made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (information given by auditor or actuary to the FSA). An auditor should bear these rights and duties in mind when carrying out client
1It is the responsibility of an insurance intermediary's senior management to determine, on a continuing basis, whether the firm is an exempt insurance intermediary for the purposes of this requirement and to appoint an auditor if management determines the firm is no longer exempt. SUP 3.7 (amplified by SUP 15) sets out what a firm should consider when deciding whether it should notify the FSA of matters raised by its auditor.
When considering whether it is satisfied under section 148(6), the FSA is required by section 148(7) of the Act:(1) to take into account whether the waiver relates to a rule contravention of which is actionable under section 150 of the Act (Actions for damages); Schedule 5 identifies such rules;(2) to consider whether its publication would prejudice, to an unreasonable degree, the commercial interests of the firm concerned, or any other member of its immediate group; and(3) to
Waivers can affect the legal rights of third parties, including consumers. In the FSA's view it is important that the fact and effect of such waivers should be transparent. So the fact that a waiver relates to a rule that is actionable under section 150 of the Act (see SUP 8.6.2 G (1)) will tend to argue in favour of publication.
In considering whether commercial interests would be prejudiced to an unreasonable degree (see SUP 8.6.2 G (2)), the FSA will weigh the prejudice to firms' commercial interests against the interests of consumers, markets and other third parties in disclosure. In doing so the FSA will consider factors such as the extent to which publication of the waiver would involve the premature release of proprietary information to commercial rivals, for example relating to a product innovation,
If, after taking into account the matters in SUP 8.3.3 D to SUP 8.6.6 G, a firm believes there are good grounds for the FSA either to withhold publication or to publish the waiver without disclosing the identity of the firm, it should make this clear in its application (see SUP 8.3.3 D (7)). If the FSAproposes to publish a waiver against the wishes of the firm, the FSA will give the firm the opportunity to withdraw its application before the waiver is given.
A decision to withhold a waiver or identity of a firm from publication may be for a limited period only, usually as long as the duration of the relevant grounds for non-publication. If the FSA proposes to publish information about a waiver that had previously been withheld, it will first give the firm an opportunity to make representations.
Achieving the regulatory objectives involves the FSA informing itself of developments in firms and in markets. The Act requires the FSA to monitor a firm's compliance with requirements imposed by or under the Act (paragraph 6 (1) of Schedule 1). The Act also requires the FSA to take certain steps to cooperate with other regulators (section 354). For these purposes, the FSA needs to have access to a broad range of information about a firm's business.
The FSA receives the information in SUP 2.1.3 G through a variety of means, including notifications by firms (see SUP 15) and regular reporting by firms (see SUP 16). This chapter is concerned with the methods of information gathering that the FSA may use on its own initiative in the discharge of its functions under the Act. This chapter does not deal with the information gathering powers that the FSA has under the Unfair Terms Regulations. These are dealt with in UNFCOG2.12
Part XI of the Act (Information Gathering and Investigations) gives the FSA statutory powers, including: (1) to require the provision of information (see section 165 and EG 32);2(2) to require reports from skilled persons (see section 166 and SUP 5);(3) to appoint investigators (see sections 167, 168 and 169 of the Act and EG 32); and2(4) to apply for a warrant to enter premises (see section 176 of the Act and EG 42).2
The FSA prefers to discharge its functions by working in an open and cooperative relationship with firms. The FSA will look to obtain information in the context of that relationship unless it appears that obtaining information in that way will not achieve the necessary results, in which case it will use its statutory powers. The FSA has exercised its rule-making powers to make Principle 11 which requires that a firm must deal with its regulators in an open and cooperative way,
The purpose of SUP 2.3 is to amplify Principle 11 in the context of information gathering by the FSA on its own initiative in the discharge of its functions under the Act. SUP 2.3 therefore sets out, in guidance on Principle 11 and in rules, how the FSA expects firms to deal with the FSA in that context, including the steps that a firm should take with a view to ensuring that certain connected persons should also cooperate with the FSA.
The purpose of SUP 2.4 is to explain a particular method of information gathering used by the FSA, known as "mystery shopping". Information about how a firm sells financial products can be very difficult to obtain, and the purpose of this method is to obtain such information from individuals who approach a firm in the role of potential retail consumers on the FSA's initiative. The FSA may seek information about particular issues or the activities of individual firms by means
Where a sponsor has been appointed under LR 8.2 by a listed company or an applicant, a sponsor must:(1) provide assurance to the FSA when required that the responsibilities of the listed company or applicant under the listing rules have been met; and(2) guide the listed company or applicant in understanding and meeting its responsibilities under the listing rules anddisclosure rules and transparency rules.
A sponsor will be the main point of contact with the FSA for any matter where the sponsor has been appointed by a listed company or applicant. The FSA expects to discuss all issues relating to a transaction and any draft or final document directly with the sponsor. However, in appropriate circumstances, the FSA will communicate directly with the listed company or applicant.
A sponsor must:(1) deal with the FSA in an open and co-operative way;(2) deal with all enquiries raised by the FSA promptly.; and(3) disclose to the FSA in a timely manner any material information relating to the sponsor or to a listed company or applicant of which it has knowledge which addresses non-compliance with the listing rules or disclosure rules and transparency rules.
1Firms that are part of a group may submit a joint report to the
FSA
. The joint report must contain the information required from all firms concerned and clearly indicate the firms on whose behalf the report is submitted. The requirement to provide a report, and the responsibility for the report, remains with each firm in the group.
For the purpose of inclusion in the public record maintained by the FSA, a firm must:(1) provide the FSA, at the time of its authorisation, with details of a single contact point within the firm for complainants; and(2) notify the
FSA
of any subsequent change in those details when convenient and, at the latest, in the firm's next report under the complaints reporting rules.
The guidance in COND 2 explains each threshold condition in Part I of Schedule 6 (threshold conditions) to the Act and how the FSA will interpret it in practice. An overview of the threshold conditions is given in COND 1 Annex 1 G. This guidance is not, however, exhaustive and is written in very general terms. A firm will need to have regard to the obligation placed upon the FSA under section 41 (the threshold conditions) of the Act; that is, the FSA must ensure that the firm
(1) The FSA will consider whether a firm satisfies, and will continue to satisfy, the threshold conditions in the context of the size, nature, scale and complexity of the business which the firm carries on or will carry on if the relevant application is granted.(2) In relation to threshold conditions 4 and 5, the FSA will consider whether a firm is ready, willing and organised to comply, on a continuing basis, with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system which
Although the FSA may consider that a matter is relevant to its assessment of a firm, the fact that a matter is disclosed to the FSA, for example in an application, does not necessarily mean that the firm will fail to satisfy the threshold conditions. The FSA will consider each matter in relation to the regulated activities for which the firm has, or will have, permission, having regard to the regulatory objectives set out in section 2 of the Act (The FSA's general duties). A firm
(1) For ease of reference, the threshold conditions in or under Schedule 6 to the Act have been quoted in full in COND 2. (2) As these provisions impose obligations, they are printed in bold type. The use of bold type is not intended to indicate that these quotations are rules made by the FSA.(3) Where words have been substituted for the text of these provisions the substitutions are enclosed in square brackets ([ ]). However, none of the changes made by the FSA in these quotations
There
is no duty on an approved person to
report such information directly to the FSA unless he is one of the approved persons responsible within the firm for reporting matters to the FSA. However, if an approved
person takes steps to influence the decision so as not to report
to the FSA or acts in a way that is intended to
obstruct the reporting of the information to the FSA, then the FSA will, in respect of that information,
view him as being one of those within the firm who
has
In
determining whether or not an approved person's conduct
under APER 4.4.4 E complies with Statement of Principle 4,
the following are factors which, in the opinion of the FSA, are to be taken into account:(1) the
likely significance to the FSA of the information which it was
reasonable for the individual to assume;(2) whether
the information related to the individual himself or to his firm;(3) whether
any decision not to report the matter internally was taken after reasonable
enquiry
In
determining whether or not an approved person's conduct
under APER 4.4.7 E complies with Statement of Principle 4(APER
2.1.2 P), the following are factors which, in
the opinion of the FSA, are to be taken into account:(1) the
likely significance of the information to the FSA which it was reasonable for the approved person to assume;(2) whether
any decision not to inform the FSA was taken after reasonable enquiry
and analysis of the situation.
1Under section 300B(2) of the Act, the FSA may, by rules under section 293 (Notification requirements):(1) 1specify descriptions of regulatory provision in relation to which, or circumstances in which, the duty in section 300B(1) does not apply, or(2) 1provide that the duty applies only to specified descriptions of regulatory provision or in specified circumstances.
1Under section 300B(3) of the Act, the FSA may also by rules under section 293: (1) 1make provision as to the form and contents of the notice required, and(2) 1require the UK recognised body to provide such information relating to the proposal as may be specified in the rules or as the FSA may reasonably require.
1A notice under section 300B(1) of the Act of a proposal to make a regulatory provision must be in writing and state expressly that it is a notice for the purpose of that section. To be effective, a notice must: (1) 1contain full particulars of the proposal to make a regulatory provision which is the subject of that notice; and(2) 1either be accompanied by sufficient supporting information to enable the FSA to assess the purpose and effect of the proposed regulatory provision
1In determining whether a UK recognised body has provided sufficient supporting information, the FSA may have regard to the extent to which the information includes:(1) 1clearly expressed reasons for the proposed regulatory provision; and(2) 1an appropriately detailed assessment of the likely costs and benefits of the proposed regulatory provision.
If a UK firm is passporting under the UCITS Directive, regulation 12(1) states that the UK firm must not make a change in its programme of operations, or the activities to be carried on under its EEA right, unless the relevant requirements in regulation 12(2) have been complied with. These requirements are:5(1) the UK firm has given a notice to the FSA and to the Host State regulator stating the details of the proposed change; or(2) if the change arises as a result of circumstances
The FSA logo is a registered UK service mark, with number 2150560. The Key facts logo is a registered Community trade mark, with the number E3866688. Both are3 the property of the FSA. They are 3also subject to copyright and may be used or reproduced with permission of the FSA only. If the FSA or Key facts logos are 3reproduced or otherwise used by any person without such permission the FSA may seek to enforce its rights over its property through the Courts.333
GEN 5 Annex 1 G is a general licence, which sets out the circumstances in which the FSA permits firms and their appointed representatives or tied agents5to reproduce the FSA and Key facts logos3. A firm, appointed representative or tied agent5need not apply for an individual licence if it uses or reproduces the logos 3in accordance with the general licence.353
The FSA has no policy to allow use of the logos3 by a firm, appointed representative or tied agent5other than as set out in GEN 5 Annex 1 G. If, however, a firm, appointed representative or tied agent5 wishes to use or reproduce either of3 the logos3 other than in accordance with the general licence, it may apply to the FSA for an individual licence, giving full reasons why it considers the FSA should grant the licence.355
When a firm appoints a skilled person to provide a report under section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons), the firm must, in a contract with the skilled person:(1) require and permit the skilled person during and after the course of his appointment:(a) to cooperate with the FSA in the discharge of its functions under the Act in relation to the firm; and(b) to communicate to the FSA information on, or his opinion on, matters of which he has, or had, become aware in
In complying with the contractual duty in SUP 5.5.1 R (1) the FSA expects that a skilled person appointed under section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons) will cooperate with the FSA by, amongst other things, providing information or documentation about the planning and progress of the report and its findings and conclusions, if requested to do so. A firm should therefore ensure that the contract it makes with the skilled person requires and permits the skilled person
If the FSA is considering asking for the information specified in SUP 5.5.2 G it will take into consideration the cost of the skilled person complying with the request, and the benefit that the FSA may derive from the information. For example, in most cases, the FSA will not need to request a skilled person to give it source data, documents and working papers. However, the FSA may do so when it reasonably believes that this information will be relevant to any investigation
In complying with the contractual duty in SUP 5.5.1 R, the FSA expects that, in the case of substantial or complex reports, the skilled person will give a periodic update on progress and issues to allow for a re-focusing of the report if necessary. The channel of communication would normally be directly between the skilled person and the FSA. However, the FSA would also expect firms normally to be informed about the passage of information, and the skilled person would usually
A firm must ensure that the contract required by SUP 5.5.1 R:(1) is governed by the laws of a part of the United Kingdom; (2) expressly(a) provides that the FSA has a right to enforce the provisions included in the contract under SUP 5.5.1 R and SUP 5.5.5 R (2);(b) provides that, in proceedings brought by the FSA for the enforcement of those provisions, the skilled person is not to have available by way of defence, set-off or counterclaim any matter that is not relevant to
The FSA expects the firm, in complying with Principle 11, to give the FSA information about the cost of the skilled persons report. This may include both an initial estimate of the cost as well as the cost of the completed report. This information is required to help inform the FSA's decision making in the choice of regulatory tools. Information about the number and cost of reports by skilled persons will be published by the FSA.
There is no definition in the Financial Promotion Order of what ‘proper systems and procedures’ are, and the matter will ultimately be for the courts to determine. This is unsurprising as systems and procedures may take many different forms depending upon the precise circumstances in which financial promotions are made. But it is clear that persons seeking conclusive proof that the exemption applies must consciously make arrangements to prevent their dealing with certain recipients
In any case, some but not all of the conditions referred to in PERG 8.12.5G (1) to PERG 8.12.5G (2) and PERG 8.12.7G (1) to PERG 8.12.7G (2) (or the additional condition that the communication is included in a website, newspaper or periodical publication which is principally accessed in or intended for a non-UK market or in a radio or television broadcast or teletext service transmitted principally for reception overseas) may be met. In these cases, those conditions being satisfied
This exemption applies to any financial promotion that is made with a view to or for the purposes of introducing the recipient to certain kinds of person. These are authorised persons who carry on the controlled activity to which the financial promotion relates, or exempt persons where the financial promotion relates to a controlled activity that is also a regulated activity in relation to which he is an exempt person. This is subject to the requirement that:11(1) the person making
The conditions in article 18(2) include a requirement that the person making the financial promotion does not select, modify or otherwise exercise control over its content before it is transmitted or received. Article 18(3) provides that a person is not selecting, modifying or exercising control merely as a result of having power to remove material which is illegal, defamatory or in breach of copyright or at the request of a regulatory body or where the law requires him to do
The conditions in article 18 also require that the person acting as the mere conduit must communicate in the course of an activity1 carried on by him the principal purpose of which is transmitting or receiving material provided to him by others. In the FSA's view, what matters is that the person is carrying on an activity1 which has the required principal purpose. Such an activity1 might represent but a part of a person’s overall business1 activities (however small), so long as
Article 19(4) sets out conditions which, if all are satisfied, offer conclusive proof that a financial promotion is directed only at investment professionals. These conditions relate to indications accompanying the financial promotion and the existence of proper systems and procedures. The guidance about proper systems and procedures in PERG 8.12.6 G applies equally to article 19. Article 19(6) specifically states that a financial promotion may be treated as made only to or directed
With this objective in mind, the exemption in article 20 applies to any non-real time financial promotion the contents of which are devised by a person acting as a journalist where the financial promotion is in:1(1) a newspaper, journal, magazine or other periodical publication;(2) a regularly updated news or information service (such as a website or teletext service); or(3) a television or radio broadcast or transmission.In addition, the publication, service or broadcast must
Provided the conditions in PERG 8.12.25 G are met, the exemption in article 20 applies to any non-real time financial promotion. However, there is an additional condition where the subject matter of the financial promotion is shares or options, futures or contracts for differences relating to shares and the financial promotion identifies directly a person who issues or provides such an investment. In such cases, the exemption is subject to a disclosure requirement which is itself
The effect of PERG 8.12.27G (1) is that a journalist will not breach section 21 by not disclosing a financial interest, providing that the publication, service or broadcast concerned operates proper systems and procedures. As with the exemption in article 12 of the Financial Promotion Order (see PERG 8.12.6 G), what proper systems and procedures are will be a matter ultimately for the courts to determine and may vary according to the medium used. It will depend upon all the circumstances
Persons such as experts or analysts may be approached to contribute at very short notice and may be overseas. In such cases, the systems and procedures referred to in PERG 8.12.29 G may not be practical. It is the FSA's opinion that, where occasional contributors are concerned, proper systems and procedures may include arrangements for ensuring that the need for disclosure (or the avoidance of financial interests) is drawn to the contributor’s attention before the communication
It appears to the FSA, however, that there will be situations when it may not be practical for the persons who are responsible for a publication, service or broadcast to apply proper systems and procedures to every person who may, whilst acting in the capacity of a journalist, communicate a financial promotion. For example where persons are asked to stand in at the last moment. In such cases, it is the FSA's opinion that the benefit of the exclusion will not be lost as respects
The exemption applies where the financial promotion:(1) comprises words which are spoken by the director or employee and not broadcast, transmitted or displayed in writing; or(2) is displayed in writing only because it is part of an interactive dialogue to which the director or employee is a party and in the course of which he is expected to respond immediately to questions put by a recipient of the communication.This is provided that the financial promotion is not part of an
The first part of the exemption (referred to in PERG 8.12.34G (1)) specifically precludes any form of written communication. However, the FSA understands that the Treasury did not intend to prohibit the use of written words in the form of subtitling. These may be an aid to those with hearing difficulties or to interpret a foreign language, or the use of captions which supplement a spoken communication by highlighting aspects of it without introducing anything new. The FSA cannot
In the FSA's view, the matters identified in PERG 8.10.2 G mean that:(1) for a communication to be real time it must be made in course of an interactive dialogue; but that(2) if the interactive dialogue takes place by means of the exchange of letters or e-mails or in a publication, the communication will be deemed to be non-real time. In this case, publications include newspapers, journals, magazines or other periodical publications, websites or similar systems for the electronic
The words ‘personal visit, telephone conversation or other interactive dialogue’ clearly imply that the first two are types of the third. In the FSA's view, it is difficult to envisage circumstances in which a personal visit or telephone conversation would not be interactive. The very fact of a conversation taking place would mean two or more persons were interacting with each other. A telephone call is not the same thing as a conversation. It may be made to, or even by, an intelligent
In the FSA's view, the fact that scope for interaction is essential if a financial promotion is to be real time leads to the following conclusions.(1) Most communications made in written or pictorial form will not offer scope for interaction. The most likely exception to this is where persons are expected to respond immediately. This situation may arise, for example, where the equivalent of a telephone conversation is conducted by e-mail. This is the basis of the exemption in
In the FSA's view, a communication which may exist in enduring form will be a non-real time communication. Examples of this include videos, audio cassettes, bulletin boards, websites and recorded telephone messages. Messages placed on Internet chat-rooms will also be non-real time. Radio or television programmes or teletext services may contain communications that involve an interactive dialogue. For example, a communication made by the broadcaster and addressed to an interviewee
PERG 8.6.9 G explains that article 6 of the Financial Promotion Order has the broad effect that a communication is made to another person where it is addressed to a particular person or persons. It also states that a ‘recipient’ of a communication is the person or persons to who it is made (that is to whom it is addressed). This takes on importance where certain exemptions which apply to real time financial promotions made to a person are concerned. It appears to the FSA that,
In the FSA's view, persons who may be engaging in investment activity jointly include:(1) a married couple;(2) two or more persons, who will invest jointly in a product (for example, a cohabiting couple who are not married or members of a family);(3) the directors of a company or partners in a firm;(4) members of a group of companies;(5) the participants in a joint commercial enterprise;(6) the members of an investment club; and(7) the managers or prospective managers of a company
In the FSA's view, the mere fact of a person accepting an invitation to attend a meeting does not automatically mean that he has initiated any dialogue which may take place during the meeting and which may amount to a financial promotion. This will depend on the facts of each case and such matters as the manner in which the invitations are made, the arrangements for acceptance and how the meeting is conducted. For example, the fact that investments or investment services will
Persons subject to enforcement action may be prepared to agree the amount of any financial penalty and other conditions which the FSA seeks to impose by way of such action. Such conditions might include, for example, the amount or mechanism for the payment of compensation to consumers. The FSA recognises the benefits of such agreements, in that they offer the potential for securing earlier redress or protection for consumers and the saving of cost to the person concerned and the
In appropriate cases the FSA's approach will be to negotiate with the person concerned to agree in principle the amount of a financial penalty having regard to the factors set out in DEPP 6.5.2 G1.1 (This starting figure will take no account of the existence of the settlement discount scheme described in this section.) Such amount ("A") will then be reduced by a percentage of A according to the stage in the process at which agreement is reached. The resulting figure ("B") will
- (1)
The FSA has identified four stages of an action for these purposes:
- (a)
the period from commencement of an investigation until the FSA has:
- (b)
the period from the end of stage 1 until the expiry of the period for making written representations or, if sooner, the date on which the written representations are sent in response to the giving of a warning notice ("stage 2");
- (c)
the period from the end of stage 2 until the giving of a decision notice ("stage 3");
- (d)
the period after the end of stage 3, including proceedings before the Tribunal and any subsequent appeals ("stage 4").
- (a)
- (2)
The communication of the FSA's assessment of the appropriate penalty for the purposes of DEPP 6.7.3G (1)(a) need not be in a prescribed form but will include an indication of the breaches alleged by the FSA. It may include the provision of a draft warning notice.
- (3)
The reductions in penalty will be as follows:
Stage at which agreement reached
Percentage reduction
Stage 1
30
Stage 2
20
Stage 3
10
Stage 4
0
(1) Any settlement agreement between the FSA and the person concerned will therefore need to include a statement as to the appropriate penalty discount in accordance with this procedure.(2) In certain circumstances the person concerned may consider that it would have been possible to reach a settlement at an earlier stage in the action, and argue that it should be entitled to a greater percentage reduction in penalty than is suggested by the table at DEPP 6.7.3G (3). It may be,